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    江苏省东台市第五联盟2021-2022学年七年级上学期期中质量检测英语试卷(含答案及听力音频)

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    江苏省东台市第五联盟2021-2022学年七年级上学期期中质量检测英语试卷(含答案及听力音频)

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    这是一份江苏省东台市第五联盟2021-2022学年七年级上学期期中质量检测英语试卷(含答案及听力音频),文件包含江苏省东台市第五联盟2021-2022学年七年级上学期期中质量检测英语试卷doc、江苏省东台市第五联盟2021-2022学年七年级上学期期中质量检测英语听力mp3等2份试卷配套教学资源,其中试卷共11页, 欢迎下载使用。
    试卷总分:120分 考试时间:100分钟 命题: 审核人:
    第Ⅰ卷 (选择题,共65分)
    一、听力(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
    A) 听下面10段对话。每段对话后有1个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
    1. What’s Andy’s favurite sprt?
    A. B. C.
    2. Hw des the by g t schl?
    A. B. C.
    3. When des the wman get up n Sunday?
    A. B. C.
    4. What des Kate usually d at the weekends?
    A. B. C.
    Where is the schlbag?
    A. On the bed. B. Beside the basketball. C. Under the desk.
    What Grade is Andy in?
    A. He’s in Grade 7. B. He’s in Grade 8. C. He’s in Grade 9.
    7. Hw ften des Daniel g t the Cmputer Club?
    A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
    8. Hw many bys are there in the class?
    A. Furteen. B. Twenty-six. C. Frty.
    9. What des Bb’s mther d?
    A. A dctr. B. A wrker. C. A teacher.
    10. Whse bike is it?
    A. Jacks. B. Wendy’s.C. Sally’s.
    B) 听下面一段对话,回答11-12 小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。对话读两遍。
    11. Wh des Wang Bin want t write t?
    A. His classmate.B. His teacher. C. His nline friend.
    12. What are his favurite hbbies?
    A. Swimming and drawing. B. Skating and music. C. Drawing and singing.
    C) 听下面一段对话,回答第13-15小题,完成信息记录表。对话读两遍。
    13. A. Lndn B. Beijing C. Nanjing
    14. A. 7:00 B. 7:45 C. 8:00
    15. A. plays ftballB. plays basketball C. des his hmewrk
    D) 听下面一段短文,短文后有5个小题,根据所听内容选择正确答案。短文听两遍。
    听第二篇短文,回答第 16-20小题。
    Hw many peple are there in Tm’s family?
    A. Three. B. Fur. C. Five.
    17. What des Tm like ding?
    A. Watching trains. B. Swimming in summer. C. Walking the dg.
    18. What des Peter d when he sees a train?
    A. He writes dwn its name and number.
    B. He draws it.
    C. He runs with it.
    19. Wh likes walking the dg?
    A. Tm’s sister. B. Tm’s brther. C. Tm’s father.
    20. What des Tm’s mther like ding fr the family?
    A. Buying new clthes. B. Ding husewrk. C. Cking fd.
    单项选择 (共15小题;每题1分,共15分)
    从下列每题所给的选项中,选择一个最佳答案。
    21. ________ man with ________ I-phne 12 in his hand lks very cl.
    A. The; an B. The; the C. A; an D. A; the
    22. -- Sandy, I hpe yut my Schl Open Day. It will be very interesting!
    --- Of curse I will. Thank yu!
    A .are cmeB. t cmeC. cmesD. cme
    23. — Tell me mre abut yur family.
    — My grandfather was brn ______ February, 1949.
    A. nB. atC. inD. t
    24. — Our teacher ______ a friend t me.
    — She is s kind.
    A. likesB. is likeC. likeD. is liking
    25. The library__________ at 2 every afternn, s I think it __________nw.
    A. pens; pens B. pens; is pen C. is pen; pens D. is pen; pen
    26. The dctr tells the by nt t eat _________ because he is _________ fat.
    A. t much; t much B. t much; much t
    C. much t; much t D. much t; t much
    27. The man ______ a blue cat is standing _______ my father.
    A. wears; in frnt f B. in; in the frnt f
    C. wears; in the frnt f D. in; in frnt f
    28. — Hw ______ he _______?
    — He’s very strng.
    A. des; lk B. is; like C. des; like D. is; lk like
    29. — What abut t He Family Garden(何园)fr a trip?
    — Gd idea. Let's have great fun!
    A. g ; a B. ging ; / C. ging ; a D. t g ; /
    30. Miss Jiang is _____ Maths teacher. She teaches _____ very well.
    A. we; us B. ur; we C. we; ur D. ur; us
    31. The by_________ eats vegetables and _________ des sprts, s he isn't healthy at all.
    A.always; seldm B.seldm; ften
    C.smetimes; always D.never; seldm
    32. —______ is it frm yur schl t the nearest shp?
    — Fifteen minutes’ walk.
    A. Hw lng B. Hw much C. Hw far D. Hw ften
    33. She is a girl with ____ wrds. She desn’t enjy ____ with thers.
    A. few; t chat B. few; chatting C. a little; chatting D. little; t chat
    34. — Jim, can yu ___ the stry in Japanese fr us?
    — Srry, I can nly _____ a little Japanese.
    A. tell; speak B. tell; say C. say; speak D. say; tell
    35. — I'm ging t enjy the film My Cuntry with my parents tmrrw.
    — ______.
    A. Gd luckB. All the bestC. Best wishesD. Have a gd time
    三、完形填空(共10小题;每小题1分,计10分)阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
    Hi! Nice t meet yu! My name is Jhn Smith, I am 19 and a 36 in a cllege(大学)
    in New Yrk. My favurite 37 are maths, French and histry. My teachers are friendly and kind. They ften help me. It’s 38 secnd year in cllege nw. I lve studying here!
    I 39 in a big huse n Ivy Street near the cllege with ther three students. Their names are Bill, Tny and Paul. We help 40 ur hmewrk each ther. On the weekend, we play ftball 41 .
    I have a(n) 42 brther. He just started schl. He is 14 and he lives with ur parents. They live n Mulberry Street. Smetimes they 43 me in New Yrk, I’m 44 when they cme here. My mm always 45 me lts f things. I really miss them!
    36. A. teacher B. wrker C. student D. dctr
    37. A. subjects B. games C. jbs D. sprts
    38. A. my B. his C. her D. their
    39. A. play B. wrk C. meet D. live
    40. A. fr B. f C. like D. with
    41. A. slwly B. quickly C. hard D. tgether
    42. A. lder B. yunger C. bigger D. smaller
    43. A. visit B. call C. pay D. stp
    44. A. tired B. happy C. quiet D. busy
    45. A. keeps B. shws C. brings D. brrws
    四、阅读理解。(20分)
    A
    ( )46. What des Millie ften d n Thursday?
    A. Playing vlleyball. B. Reading bks.
    C. Ging swimming. D. Drawing pictures.
    ( )47. Millie’s brther usually reads bks frm __________.
    A. 9:00 a.m. t 11:30 a. m.B. 10:00 a.m. t 5:00 p. m.
    C. 4:30 p.m. t 5:30 p. m.D. 6:00 p.m. t 7:00 p. m.
    ( )48. What can we learn frm the passage?
    A. Millie likes sprts very much.
    B. Millie likes t stay at hme n Saturday.
    C. Millie ften reads bks n Saturday.
    D. Millie ften plays vlleyball fr tw hurs.
    B
    I am Kyra. I think my father is a little fat but he says he is nt. He is nly “pear-shaped”. My mther has a very beautiful face. The skin n her face is sft. She has “skin like a peach”.
    I have a little sister. We all lve her very much. My mther says that she is “the apple f her eye”(她的掌上明珠). My parents say I am lazy. I like t lie n the sfa and watch televisin. I als like t play cmputer games and eat snacks. My parents call me a “cuch ptat”. They tell me I shuld exercise mre but I dn’t like sprts. It isn’t my “cup f tea”.
    I have a dg. His name is Freddie. Freddie sleeps(睡觉) a lt. He likes t play with his ball. He gets very excited—he “ges bananas”(发狂)!
    I have a cusin. She has red hair. We call her “carrt tp” because f her red hair. She is really kind. I think she is “as sweet as sugar”.
    D yu like my writing? It is easy t tell yu all abut my family. It is “a piece f cake”.
    ( )49. Freddie “ges bananas” when he _____________.
    A. sleeps B. meets peple C. has nice fd D. plays with his ball
    ( )50. The underlined phrase “a piece f cake” means(意思是) ____________.
    A. very easy B. very lazy C. very excited D. very difficult
    ( )51. Accrding t Kyra’s intrductin f her family, we knw that _____________.
    A. Kyra desn’t like ding sprts
    B. Kyra’s little sister has “skin like a peach”
    C. Kyra’s mther has red hair, s we call her “carrt tp”
    D. All the members in Kyra’s family like eating different kinds f fruit
    C
    BUMP! Suddenly the huse hits the grund. Drthy wakes up. “Gd mrning, Tt,” she says. Tt wakes up t and puts his cld little nse in her face.
    The huse isn’t mving nw. Drthy lks arund and listens. It’s light nw and the rm is full f sunshine! She can hear birds.
    “Where are we, Tt?” she says. “We aren’t in Kansas. There aren’t any birds there.”
    The little dg jumps ff the bed and ges t the dr. He starts barking. Drthy fllws him. She pens the dr and lks ut.
    “Oh!” she says. “Oh, what a wnderful place!”
    She can see a beautiful cuntry in frnt f her. There’s green grass everywhere. There are tall trees with all kinds f fruit n them. There are brightly clured birds in the branches(树枝) f the trees. There are lts f flwers and pretty butterflies(蝴蝶). There’s a stream f clear water.
    It’s very different frm the grey prairies f Kansas.
    Then Drthy sees sme peple. They are cming twards the huse. There are three men and ne wman. They are very strange(奇怪的). They are small but they are ld. The men have gt lng beards(胡须) and the wman has gt white hair and lts f wrinkles(皱纹). They're all wearing tall hats. There are bells n them. The bells make a tinkling nise when the peple mve their heads. The men’s hats are blue and their clthes are blue t. The wman’s hat is white. Her dress is als white and it’s cvered with silver stars. She walks up t Drthy and says, “Welcme t the land f the Munchkins! Thank yu fr killing(杀死) the Wicked Witch f the East fr us. Nw ur peple are free.”
    “Yu’re very kind but yu’re wrng,” Drthy replies. “I dn’t knw the Wicked Witch f the East.”
    “Lk!” the ld wman says. “She’s there! Under yur huse! Yu can see her feet!”
    Drthy lks and sees a pair f feet in silver shes. She can’t see the rest f the bdy because it’s under the huse.
    —— Adapted frm The Wnderful Wizard f Oz
    ( )52.What d the strange peple lk like?
    A. They are tall and big. B. They are small and ld.
    C. They are big and strng. D. They are small and yung.
    ( )53.What clur is the wman’s dress?
    A. blue B. pink C. white D. blue and white
    ( )54.Where is the Wicked Witch f the East?
    A. She’s in the garden. B. She’s in the frest.
    C. She’s under the huse. D. She’s under the bed.
    ( )55.Frm the passage we can knw that_________.
    A. Drthy thinks the new cuntry is the same as the grey prairies f Kansas.
    B. the men and the wman bth wear blue clthes and white hats.
    C. the Wicked Witch f the East is very kind.
    D. the Wicked Witch f the East is dead(死去的).
    第II卷 (非选择题,共55分)
    五、任务型阅读(每空一词,每题1分,计10分)
    (A)阅读下列短文,根据短文中的信息完成文后表格.
    A gd pster tells peple what they need t knw.
    It is a great way t get yur message acrss. This is hw yu make a gd pster.
    * Keep the design simple.
    * D nt use t many wrds f pictures. There is
    n need t use all the space.
    * Make sure that the writing is clear and easy t read.
    * Clur is gd in psters. It attracts attentin.
    *D nt use t many different clurs in a pster. Very bright
    clurs make it hard t read the wrds n a pster.
    * Black and white psters lk great
    * Make sure yu include all the necessary infrmatin.
    (B)(本题共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分))注意:每题答案不超过6个单词。
    请认真阅读下面短文,根据短文内容回答短文后的各个问题,并将答案写在每小题下的横线上。
    A little by runs t a train statin. He is ut f breath when he gets there.But the train leaves and he can’t catch it.
    There is a man beside the by. He says t the by, “If yu run faster, yu can catch the train.”
    “I run as fast as I can,” says the by.
    ‘But why are yu late fr the train?” asks the man.
    “I start t late,” answers the by. “Next time ,I shuld start early.”
    Many yung peple dn’t wrk hard at the beginning. They lse many gd chances.They feel srry when it is t late.
    66.Hw many peple are there in the article(文章)?
    67.What des the by want t d ?
    68.Hw des the by g there?
    69.Why is the by late fr the train?
    70.What shuld we d when we d everything?
    六、词汇。(共20小题,每题1分,计20分)
    A)根据汉语提示完成下列句子。
    71. The Leisure Center is a lng and lw ________ building. (现代的)
    72. In ur class, Amy des well in because she lves traveling.(地理)
    73. Lucy wants t practise English, s she keeps in English every day.(日记)
    74. She desn’t g t the ________Club after schl. She ges there n Sundays.(跳舞)
    75. The cmputer n the table is nt mine. It must be smene_________. (其它的)
    B)用括号内所给词的适当形式填空。
    76. Lk at the wrds n the blackbard. Please write dwn.(they)
    77. It’s 10 p.m. nw. Let yur little sister _________t bed nw.(g)
    78. Hw much time des Sandy practise every day?(swim)
    79. Which d yu like ________ (well) f all the subjects?
    80. The schl day at eight in the mrning.(begin)
    (C)根据短文内容及首字母填空,填写所缺单词,使短文意思完整.
    "Simn, wake up!" mum shuts (喊) .
    Simn wakes up and has a lk at the clck. Oh, n! It's already 7:30. Schl s 81 in 30 minutes! He gets up and puts n his dirty shirt quickly. He has n time t find c_82 clthes. He runs dwn t the g 83 flr withut (没有) washing his face.
    Simn gets t the kitchen (厨房) , b84_he desn't see the breakfast. "I'm srry I get up late, t_ 85_, "says mum. Simn pens the fridge (冰箱) . There is a bx f ndles in it. "I dn't have time t have t 86 ."He ges ut t schl with his schlbag.
    "If I'm late a87_, Mr White will nt let me jin the basketball team. I have nly twenty m 88 nw" Simn thinks. Just then, a car s 89 next t him. "Cme n. I'll d 90 yu t schl" "It's his neighbr Mr Lee. Cl! Simn gets int the car quickly.
    Everything will be OK.
    七、书面表达(15分)
    假如你是来自美国的留学生 Le, 在盐城学习已经一年了。请给你的朋友 Linda 写一封信,介绍你在中国的学习和生活。
    要求:
    1.所写内容必须包含所给要点,适当发挥;
    2.不少于100词,开头段落首句和结尾已给出,不计入总词数;
    3.语句通顺,意思连贯,语法正确,条理清楚,字迹工整;
    4.文中不得出现真实的人名、校名及地名。
    Dear Linda,
    I am in Yancheng fr ne year. I wuld like t tell yu smething abut my life here.
    _____________________________________________________________________________
    _____________________________________________________________________________
    _____________________________________________________________________________
    Please write t me sn.
    All the best,
    Le

    2021-2022学年度第一学期期中质量检测
    七年级英语期中试题听力材料
    第一部分: 听对话回答问题。本部分共有10道小题,每小题你将听到一段对话,每段对话读两遍。在听每段对话前,你将有5秒钟的时间阅读题目;听完后,你将有5秒钟的时间选择你认为最合适的备选答案。
    1. W: D yu like playing basketball. Andy?
    M: N, playing ftball is my favurite. It makes me feel great.
    2. W: Is yur hme far away frm yur schl?
    M: Yes, a little, but I always walk t schl.
    3. M: When d yu usually get up in the mrning?
    W: I usually get up at six, but I get up at seven at the weekend.
    4. M: What d yu ften d at the weekends, Kate?
    W: I usually read sme bks.
    5. M: Excuse me, where’s my schlbag?
    W: Well, it’s just beside the baseball, n the bed.
    6. W: Glad t meet yu, Andy. Are yu in Grade 7, t?
    M: N, I’m in Grade 8.
    7. W: Where is Daniel? I can’t find him in the teaching building.
    M: He is in the Cmputer Club every Tuesday and Thursday afternn.
    8. W: Hw many students are there in yur class?
    M: Frty. And nly furteen girls.
    9. W: Wh’s the wman with lng hair, Bb?
    M: She’ s my mum. She’s a dctr.
    10. W: Can I use yur bike, Jack?
    M: Srry, it’s nt my bike. It’s Sally’s. Yu’d better ask her.
    第二部分: 听对话和独白回答问题。本部分共有10道小题,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听第一段对话,完成11至12小题。
    M: Miss Green, I want t write back t my nline friend Maria, but I dn’t knw what t write.
    W: Well, just tell her abut yurself. The first ne is: Where are yu frm?
    M: I see. I am Wang Bin frm Beijing, China.
    W: Then tell her abut yur family.
    M: All right. There are three peple in my family. They’re my father, my mther and I.
    W: The next is abut yur hbbies.
    M: My hbbies? That’s easy. I like swimming and drawing.
    W: Nice hbbies.
    听一篇短文,回答第13至15小题。
    Daniel cmes frm Lndn. He is nw staying in Beijing with his family. He usually gets up at abut 6:30 am and has breakfast at 7:00 am. Then he leaves hme at 7:15 am. He gets t schl at 7:45 am. His first class begins at 8:00 am. There are fur lessns in the mrning. Mrning classes are ver at 11:50 am, and he has lunch 10 minutes later. Afternn classes begin at 1:30 pm. There are tw lessns in the afternn. They are ver at 3:10 pm. Daniel usually stays at schl fr anther hur t play ftball, and then ges hme.
    听第二篇独白,回答16至20小题。
    Hell, I am Tm. Let me tell yu smething abut my family’s hbbies. I like swimming mst. But it is t cld in winter, s I nly swim in summer. I have many friends in the city. We ften swim tgether. My little brther, Peter, likes watching trains. He ges t the statin nearby and watches them carefully. When a train passes the statin, he writes dwn its name and number. But he will nt run with it. My sister’s hbby is ding husewrk. She ften helps my mther with sme husewrk. My father has a hbby, t. That is taking the dg fr a walk. Every mrning and afternn, he walks with his dg. My mther likes cking very much. She always cks fd fr us.
    2021-2022学年度第一学期期中质量检测
    七年级 英语参考答案
    一、听力
    1-5 CABCA 6 -10 BBBAC 11-15 CABCA 16-20 CBACC
    二、单选
    21-25 ADCBB 26-30 BDABD 31-35 DCBAD
    三. 完形填空
    36-40 CAADD 41-45 DBABC
    四、阅读理解
    46-48 CBA 49-51 DAA 52-55 BCCD
    五、任务型阅读
    (A)56.Hw 57. secret 58.wrds 59.pictures 60.all
    61.clear 62.read 63.attentin 64.bright 65.necessary
    (B) 66.Tw
    67.He wants t catch the train
    68.He runs there
    69.Because he starts t late.
    70.We shuld wrk hard.
    六、词汇
    (A)71.mdern 72.Gegraphy 73.diaries 74.Dancing 75.else’s
    (B)76.them 77.g 78.swimming 79.best 80.begins
    (C) 81.starts 82.clean 83.grund 84.but 85.t 86.them
    87.again 88.minutes 89.stps 90.drive
    七、作文(略)
    Daniel’ Day
    Where is Daniel nw?
    He is in ___13___.
    When des the first class begin?
    At ___14___.
    What des he ften d after schl?
    He ften ___15___ fr an hur.
    Millie’s day
    Day
    Activity
    Place
    Time
    Mnday
    Play vlleyball with her friends
    In the playgrund
    4:30 p.m. --- 5:30 p. m.
    Tuesday
    Play ftball with her classmates
    In the Ftball Club
    5:00 p.m. --- 5:30 p. m.
    Thursday
    G swimming
    In the Swimming Club
    6:00 p.m. --- 7:00 p. m.
    Saturday
    fly a kite with her parents
    In the park
    9:00 a.m. --- 11:30 a. m.
    Sunday
    Read bks with her brther
    At hme
    10:00 a.m. --- 5:00 p. m.
    56 t make a gd pster

    Keep it 57 。
    Space
    Use a few 58 r pictures
    D nt use 59 the space
    Writing
    Be 60 and easy t 61 .
    Clur
    Can attract 62 .
    D nt use t many 63 clurs
    Nt t use very 64 clurs
    Infrmatin
    Include all the 65 infrmatin
    学校生活
    喜欢所有的功课,对感兴趣, 因为。
    老师们都对我很好,同学们。
    家离学校不远,。
    活动与饮食
    放学后,是俱乐部的成员。
    喜欢吃水果和喝牛奶,有助于健康。
    感想

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