四川省成都市郫都区2021-2022学年高二上学期期中考试英语含答案

这是一份四川省成都市郫都区2021-2022学年高二上学期期中考试英语含答案，共15页。试卷主要包含了答非选择题时，必须使用0， B等内容，欢迎下载使用。
郫都区2021-2022学年度上期高二年级期中考试
英语
(时间：120分钟 满分：150分)
注意事项：
1.答题前，务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卷规定的位置上。
2.答选择题时，必须使用2B铅笔将答题卷上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。
3.答非选择题时，必须使用0.5毫米黑色签字笔，将答案书写在答题卷规定的位置上。
4.所有题目必须在答题卷上作答，在试题卷上答题无效。
第I卷 选择题(共100分)
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
1. At what time will the speakers get to the sports meeting?
A. 8:45. B. 8:30. C. 8:15.
2. How will the woman get to New York?
A. By car. B. By train. C. By air.
3. What can we learn from the conversation?
A. The man is handsome.
B. The man eats a lot every day.
C. The man has been exercising recently.
4. Why is the woman studying English?
A. It will help her with her job.
B. She wants to find a better job.
C. She will move to America.
5. Who is the woman probably speaking to?
A. A shop manager. B. A policeman. C. Her neighbor.
第二节(共15小题)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A，B，C三个选项中选择最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读每个小题，每小题5秒钟，听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What does the woman think of the coming examinations?
A. Too easy. B. Very difficult. C. Not too difficult.
7. What has affected the woman’s choice of career?
A. Her hometown. B. Her family. C. Her teacher.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. Who advised the woman to call the man?
A. Her son. B. Her friend Susan. C. Her friend’s son Bobby.
9. Why does the woman contact the man?
A. To ask something about her son’s studies.
B. To give some suggestions to the man.
C. To ask for some information on gymnastics.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What is the probable relationship between the two speakers?
A. Teacher and student. B. Colleagues. C. Doctor and patient.
11. What happened to Mark?
A. He felt sad about David’s leaving.
B. He missed David’s farewell party.
C. He drank too much and felt unwell.
12. What made Bill happy?
A. His wife had a baby. B. His friends visited him. C. He attended a party.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What’s wrong with the woman?
A. She has got flu. B. She has sleeping problems. C. She was sick last night.
14. When did Jerry eat at the new restaurant?
A. Last night. B. Last week. C. Last month.
15. What can we learn about the woman?
A. She does not agree with the man.
B. She thinks she has eaten something bad.
C. She does not like the food in the restaurant.
16. What is the man’s opinion of this matter?
A. The restaurant has a food safety problem.
B. It is only a coincidence.
C. The restaurant needn’t be investigated.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What makes fatty meals more popular with children?
A. Promotion. B. Toys. C. Discounts.
18. Which is recommended to overweight children?
A. Apple sticks. B. Sweets. C. Fast food.
19. What is the most important thing in getting children to exercise?
A. Teaching them to have a strong will.
B. Forcing them to exercise every day.
C. Making exercise fun for them.
20. How many suggestions does the woman offer?
A. 2. B. 3. C. 4.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Rome can be pricey for travelers, which is why many choose to stay in a hostel. The hostels in Rome offer a bed in a dorm room for around $ 25 a night, and for that, you'll often get to stay in a central location with security and comfort.
Yellow Hostel
If I had to make just one recommendation for where to stay in Rome, it would be Yellow Hostel. It's one of the best-rated hostels in the city, and for good reason. It's affordable, and it's got a fun atmosphere without being too noisy. As an added bonus, it's close to the main train station.
Hostel Alessandro Palace
If you love social hostels, this is the best hostel for you in Rome. Hostel Alessandro Palace is fun. Staff members hold plenty of bar events for guests like free shots, bar crawls and karaoke. There's also an area on the rooftop for hanging out with other travelers during the summer.
Youth Station Hostel
If you're looking for cleanliness and a modern hostel, look no further than Youth Station. It offers beautiful furnishings and beds. There are plenty of other benefits, too; it doesn't charge city tax; it has both air conditioning and a heater for the rooms; it also has free Wi-Fi in every room.
Hotel and Hostel Des Artistes
Hotel and Hostel Des Artistes is located just a 10-minute walk from the central city station and it's close to all of the city's main attractions. The staff is friendly and helpful, providing you with a map of the city when you arrive, and offering advice if you require some. However, you need to pay 2 euros a day for Wi-Fi.
21. What is probably the major concern of travelers who choose to stay in a hostel?
A. Comfort. B. Location. C. Security. D. Price.
22. Which hotel best suits people who enjoy an active social life?
A. Yellow Hostel. B. Hostel Alessandro Palace.
C. Youth Station Hostel. D. Hotel and Hostel Des Artistes.
23. What is the disadvantage of Hotel and Hostel Des Artistes?
A. It charges for Wi-Fi. B. Its staff is too talkative.
C. It gets noisy at night. D. Its inconveniently located.
B
Jane Goodall is a famous animal behaviorist and has spent many years observing the behavior of chimps in their native habitat. Jane Goodall was born on April 3rd, 1934 in London, England. Her childhood dream was to spend time with animals in the wild. In particular, she was drawn to Africa and the dream of seeing wild animals in their native habitat. It was an unusual dream for a girl at the time, but her parents said to her, "We know it's different, but we are at your back."
In 1956, Jane jumped at the opportunity to travel to a friend's farm in Kenya. It was there that Jane met the famous anthropologist, Dr Louis S.B. Leakey. Leakey was impressed with Jane's passion and knowledge of Africa and wildlife.
In 1960, Leakey and Jane began an important study of wild chimps by Lake Tanganyika. The chimps showed some fascinating habits to the group. These included meat eating, which is completely different from the previous opinion about chimps. Also, Jane saw chimps making tools to catch insects. This was an important discovery because, at the time, it was assumed only humans made tools.
The study of chimps in their native habitat was a significant event, leading to many new observations. Jane's first article My Life among Wild Chimpanzees was published in National Geographic in 1963. Some aspects of the study were challenged. For example, some feared her decision to feed the animals might have distorted their behavior and made them more aggressive.
In 1977, Jane set up the Jane Goodall Institute which promotes plans to look after chimps and their environment. The institute has many networks and programs all over the world.
24. How did Jane Goodall's parents respond to her childhood dream?
A. They worried about her. B. They laughed at her.
C. They supported her. D. They got angry with her.
25. What did people think of chimps previously?
A. Chimps were used to living alone. B. Chimps were thought not to eat meat.
C. Chimps were good at making tools. D. Chimps liked eating insects very much.
26. What does the underlined word "distorted" in the fourth paragraph mean?
A. terribly affected B. well trained C. badly protected D. strictly controlled
27. Which can be a suitable title for the text?
A. The Secrets of Chimpanzees
B. The Mysteries of African Land
C. Jane Goodall——A Friend of Chimps
D. Jane Goodall——A Woman Protecting The Wild World
C
"I’ll be there in a few minutes. I'm playing a game with a friend,a guy named Scuzbll, "my 15-year-old son shouted from his room. "Oh, what is Scuzzball's real name?" I asked. "I have no idea," he said. "Where is he from?" I continued. He responded, "I think somewhere in Canada. Oh, wait, it doesn't even matter because Scuzball just left the game and he has been replaced with a robot."
"Your friend is replaced by artificial intelligence?" "It doesn't matter, Dad. It happens all the time! The game continues. "My son doesn't mind playing with a person or a robot, which is typical of gamers these days. I wonder whether the face-to-face experience of friendship that I grew up with will be lost by our children.
Aristotle, a great thinker and educator, has pointed out that shallow friendship is easily formed but also easily abandoned because such bonds are fragile. Deep friendship, by contrast, is when you care for your friend for his sake, not for any benefit you can get. This is selfless friendship. You can have only a couple of these friends because they require lots of time and effort. You must make sacrifices for each other.
Presence in friendship requires "being with" and "doing for". Perhaps the most defining feature of deep friendship is "doing for", as my friend has my back in trouble or brings me soup when I'm sick. Only strong bonds have the power to motivate real sacrifices. But it is unclear why online "friends" would bother to do the hard work of friendship. When I asked my students whether they had people in their lives who would bring them soup when they were sick, they laughed at my Stone Age question and said they'd just order soup online.
Digital life fills and absorbs waking life time so that people do not join in example case of friendship, like sports, collective arts, free range childhoods, etc. In this way, digital life produces false friendships.
28. How does the author lead in the topic of the text?
A. By quoting mottos. B. By introducing a game.
C. By presenting a conversation. D. By showing robots' gamers.
29. What does the author mainly explain in paragraph 3?
A. Selfish friendship. B. The meaning of deep friendship.
C. The formation of shallow friendship. D. Selfless sacrifices in life.
30. What does the author want to tell his students in paragraph 4?
A. Virtual friends won't make real sacrifices. B. Ordering food online is convenient.
C. Robots will have our back in trouble. D. Strong bonds are formed easily.
31. What is the text mainly about?
A. The sacrifices of online friends. B. The benefits of digital life.
C. Face-to-face communication. D. Digitalized friendship.
D
Dancing with your grandma for 15 minutes a week promotes positive feelings and improves her state of mind, a study claims. Doctors from Israel are urging younger family members to have a regular visit to their grandmas and have a dance with their grandmas.
And they found a 15-minute boogie (布吉舞) once a week lifted the spirits of the elder family members and helped strengthen the familial bond. In fact, it is called Dance Movement Therapy (DMT). DMT across the generations, complete with eye contact, was found to promote positive feelings and improve mood for the elderly.
The grandparents reported a bright state of mind, happy memories and uplifted spirits. Dancing has also previously been linked to improved muscle strength, balance and endurance (忍耐力). For the grandchildren in the study, the weekly boogie changed how they view ageing and allowed them to come to accept the eventual death of their elderly relative.
The study, published in the journal Frontiers in Psychology, assessed how dance affected the well-being of 16 dance movement therapists (治疗师) and their grandmothers. DMT was paid attention due to the fact that it is easily accessible and does not cost more to practice. The researchers were eager to examine a low-cost method to treat issues commonly faced by an ageing population, such as limited mobility and depression, Grandchildren were instructed to make eye contact and encourage playfulness and touch. They were also told to mirror their grandmothers' movements and give them time and space to rest when needed.
The sessions were recorded and then analysed while diaries and interviews captured the opinions and feelings of the participants. As well as the benefits to the health of the senior, the experiment also changed the idea of the younger family members.
32. What should the young people do when dancing with their grandmas?
A. Follow the grandmas' steps. B. Look at the grandmas' eyes.
C. Move the bodies as long as possible. D. Talk with their grandmas in gentle voice.
33. What can we infer from the third paragraph?
A. Dancing enables the senior to accept aging and death of their old relatives.
B. Dancing brings the young happy memories and uplifted spirits.
C. Dancing benefits both the senior and the young in the new study.
D. Dancing is linked to improved muscle strength and balance in the new study.
34. What is the best advantage of DMT?
A. Inexpensive. B. Relaxing. C. Common. D. Influential
35. What is the best title for the text?
A. What does Dance Movement Therapy Mean
B. Dancing a Good Way to Stop Being Senior
C. Why Don't You Dance l5 Minutes Every Week
D. Dancing with Grandparents is Good for Health and Family Ties
第二节(共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Cities are diverse ecosystems. In addition to visitors from the wild, a large number of species share our urban areas. As our cities spread, we need to think about what it is like for other species to have human neighbors.
Cities are built for humans. 36 For example, most city parks are kept neat and tidy so that humans will find them beautiful. But when we cut grass or plant flowers, we destroy natural habitats.
37 When a bridge in Austin, Texas was repaired, engineers added small gaps running along the length of its bottom. This made a good home for bats, and soon the bridge was the home of thousands of bats. 38 Now, they have come to value their winged neighbors. The bats are a tourist attraction, and they eat lots of bugs every night.
There are also structures built with the aim of bringing wildlife into the city. The Beijing Olympic Forest Park is a good example. The park used native plants and created open, natural spaces for wildlife. The result is a zone in Beijing with over 160 species of birds. In many ways, the park is the opposite of a zoo. 39
If we learn to share our space, we can become better neighbors to the wildlife around us. 40 Our own future will be endangered too.
A. They are built to protect birds.
B. Our actions sometimes help other species.
C. They do not always provide suitable habitats for wildlife.
D. If we do not, more species will become extinct.
E. Instead of being kept in cages, wildlife can move about freely.
F. They would sit on it and their droppings would fall into the water.
G. At first, people were afraid of the bats and tried to get rid of them.
第三部分 英语知识运用(共两节，45分)
第一节 完形填空(共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)阅读下面的短文，从短文后
各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Five years ago, I decided to write one letter each week to someone who had helped me. The first letter I wrote was to my mom, who had caught dementia five years before. I hoped that by writing to her, I'd 41 , for a short moment, to stop the 42 that was slowly robbing Mom of her words and memories.
Instead of 43 her for the gift of birth in the letter, I tried to mention some of the 44 moments in my childhood. I wanted Mom to 45 that, as a mother myself, I understood her hard 46 that had gone into creating our nice home life.
Actually, it was my mom that allowed me to 47 my hometown as fast as I could. From the age of fourteen, I was 48 to travel abroad. I didn't feel 49 about leaving my New York hometown behind because my mom would 50 be there supporting me. I could afford to 51 because I had a safety net built of my mother's love for me.
The generosity with which my mother let me 52 made all the 53 in my life. I took a job in Germany at age twenty-two. Two years later I returned to 54 to study for a graduate degree at a school where I 55 Andrew who became my husband later on. If Mom had 56 me to move so far away, I don't know where I would be.
I'm 57 that my mom's love for me is complete. But did she understand when I 58 to her, "You're the source of the 59 of my life"？ I don't know that. But I'm glad I didn't 60 even a day longer to write it.
41. A. choose B. wish C. attempt D. manage
42. A. treat B. situation C. trouble D. disease
43. A. thanking B. praising C. providing D. remembering
44. A. annoying B. inspiring C. unforgettable D. surprising
45. A. believe B. know C. consider D. share
46. A. question B. life C. time D. work
47. A. admire B. love C. leave D. visit
48. A. determined B. supposed C. expected D. required
49. A. disappointed B. particular C. angry D. worried
50. A. sometimes B. always C. never D. even
51. A. take risks B. make efforts C. get chances D. make sense
52. A. recover B. stay C. go D. escape
53. A. differences B. decisions C. items D. tips
54. A. Britain B. Australia C. Canada D. America
55. A. married B. met C. greeted D. recognized
56. A. encouraged B. permitted C. forbidden D. persuaded
57. A. sure B. afraid C. hopeful D. sorry
58. A. pointed B. wrote C. said D. related
59. A. hardship B. excitement C. wealth D. happiness
60. A. plan B. take C. wait D. refuse
第II卷 非选择题(共50分)
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Nowadays, mushroom hunting is becoming more and more popular in many parts of the United States.
Mushroom hunters spend hours, even days, in wooded areas 61 (search) for wild mushrooms. They say mushroom hunting has changed their relationship with the environment. 62 (find) mushrooms, they must walk slowly. So, they get a chance to see the birds, the trees, little animals' life and everything. 63 is necessary to pay close attention to the 64 (detail) on trees and on the ground.
Experts say eating mushrooms 65 (be) good for health. Mushrooms contain the mineral selenium (硒). It 66 (contain) in most fruit and vegetables, too. This mineral helps the liver to work 67 (proper). The mineral also helps to prevent infection in the body and may decrease the 68 (grow) of cancer tumors (肿瘤). Mushrooms, 69 are high in fiber, may help us to lose weight. So, we eat much 70 (little) because they can make us feel full for longer periods.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分35分)
第一节 短文改错(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
修改：在错的词下画一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；2.只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。
While traveled to Paris on a bus, I became very sick. The well-dressed man on the bus helped me greatly. He took me off the bus, found out where the doctor's office and took me there himself. He came to visit me on the next day. I didn't speak French well, so I can't talk with him very much. Therefore, even if we couldn't talk, we could still communicate to each other. I communicated myself thanks to his great kindness, and he communicated his concern to my healthy. Through this experience I have learned that communication can take place without much actually language at all.
第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
假如你是李华，你的美国留学生朋友Young得知你校刚刚举行了以“节约粮食，人人有责(Saving Food is everyone's Responsibility)”为主题的校园文化节，写信询问相关情况，请你给他写一封回信，内容包括：
1.活动目的；2.活动内容；3.你的感受。
注意：
1.词数100左右；
2.可适当增加细节，文中不得透漏个人信息和学校名称。
Dear Young,



Yours
Li Hua
郫都区2021—2022学年度上期高二年级期中考试
英语答案
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分）
1-5 BCCAB 6-10 CABCB
11-15 CACBB 16-20 ABACB

第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分40分)
21-23 DBA 24-27CBAC 28-31 CBAD
32-35 BCAD 36-40 CBGED

第三部分 语言知识运用 (共两节，满分45分)
第一节 完形填空 (共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)
41-45 DDACB 46-50 DCADB
51-55 ACADB 56-60 CABDC
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
61. searching 62. To find 63. It 64. details 65. is
66. is contained 67. properly 68. growth 69. which 70. less

第四部分 写作(共两节，满分35分)
第一节 短文改错
1．traveled → traveling/travelling　　
2．The well-dressed →A well-dressed 　　
3．office后加was
4．on the next day去掉 on
5．can't → couldn't 　
6. Therefore→However　　　
7．communicate to → communicate with
8．myself → my
9．healthy → health 　　
10. actually → actual










第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
内容要点：
1. 恰当开头（2分）
2. 活动目的（5分）
3. 活动内容（8分）
4. 你的感受（5分）
5. 恰当的结尾（2分）
6. 综合分（3分）
评分总原则：
1. 本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 评分时应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
4. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
第五档（21—25分）
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
覆盖所有内容要点。
应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但因尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致。
有效地使用了句与句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档（16—20分）
完成了试题规定的任务。
覆盖所有内容要点。
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致。
应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档（11—15分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构连贯。
整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（6—10分）
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，或是要点的简单罗列，不成句子，写了一些无关内容。
语法错误较多，词汇表达不清。
有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档（1—5分）
未完成试题规定的任务。
明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。