2022宜宾高三下学期第二次诊断性测试（3月）（二模）英语含答案（含听力）

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宜宾市普通高中2019级第二次诊断性测试
英 语
（考试时间：120分钟 全卷满分：150分）
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt?
A. ￡19.15. B. ￡9.18. C. ￡9.15. 答案是C。
请听下面5段对话，选出最佳选项。
1．What does the man want to get?
A. A tennis. B. A table. C. Tap water.
2．What are the speakers discussing?
A. Which movie to see.
B. What homework to do.
C. What textbook to read.
3．What is the woman doing?
A. Making a decision.
B.Taking an examination.
C.Looking for her watch. 
4．What do we know about the man?
A. He is late. B. He is tired. C. He is hungry.
5．Which bus can the man catch?
A. The 9:30 one. B. The 9:40 one. C. The 10:00 one.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6．What subject does Mike like best?
A. Physics. B. Biology. C. Chemistry.
7．How does the man feel about his career prospects?
A. Confident. B. Anxious. C. Confused.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8．Who is the man probably?
A. A farmer. B. A host. C. A guide. 
9．What will the weather be like this afternoon?
A. Sunny. B. Rainy. C. Windy.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10．When will Singing with Guitar finish tonight?
A. At 8:00. B. At 9:00. C. At 10:00.
11．What will the man do on Wednesday?
A. Sing folk songs. B. Watch a performance. C. Meet a journalist.
12．Where will the man probably go next?
A. The student services office. B. The school hall. C. The lecture room.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13．What does the man advise the woman to add to the letter?
A. Her hobbies. B. Her photo. C. Her driving license.
14．What language is the woman least fluent in?
A. Chinese. B. French.  C. Japanese.
15．What did the woman do in Paris?
A. She visited her uncle. B. She received education. C. She worked as a teacher.
16．What does the woman think of her typing skills?
A. Useful. B. Poor. C. Basic.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17．Who took charge of the action group?
A. A school teacher. B. A restaurant owner. C. A community worker.
18．What did the speaker persuade the school to do to raise money?
A. Organize a concert.
B. Collect the rubbish.
C. Sell second-hand books.
19．How much more did the action group need after collecting money for sixmonths?
A. £15, 000. B. £10, 000. C. £5, 000.
20．What was most community members’ attitude toward using Xcite?
A. Concerned. B. Uncaring. C. Approving.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Point your cameras toward the sky as February’s full moon, nicknamed the snow moon, will make its appearance from midnight Tuesday to midnight Thursday, according to NASA.
The snow moon will be at its brightest on February 16 at 11:57 a.m. American East Time, but the best time to view it will be after sunset. As a bonus, the moon will be above the east-northeastern horizon on Wednesday evening, which will place it near Regulus, a bright star.
February’s full moon will be generally visible in areas around the world that do not have dense cloud coverage. It will be below the horizon at the South Pole, though, and therefore not viewable from that area.
A large storm system forecast for the central and eastern United States is expected to bring cloud cover, making moongazing difficult Wednesday night into Thursday morning, especially for anyone east of the Rockies, according to CNN Meteorologist Haley Brink.
The best places in the US to view the full moon will be portions of the Southwest and California, where clearer skies are expected.
There are 10 full moons left in 2022, with two of them qualifying as supermoons. Here is a list of the remaining moons for 2022, according to the Farmers’ Almanac:
• March 18: Worm moon • April 16: Pink moon
• May 16: Flower moon • June 14: Strawberry moon
• July 13: Buck moon • August 11: Sturgeon moon
• September 10: Harvest moon • October 9: Hunter’s moon
• November 8: Beaver moon • December 7: Cold moon
While these are the popularized names associated with the monthly full moons, the significance of each one may vary across Native American tribes.
21．Where can people watch the snow moon most suitably this year?
A. At the South Pole. B. In the east of Rockies.
C. In the Central United States. D. In the Southwest of United States.
22．Which day is available for appreciating the Harvest moon?
A. April 16. B. September 10. C. October 9. D. December 7.
23．Whoare most interested in the passage?
A. Space amateurs. B. Tourism lovers.
C. Fashion seekers. D. Sports enthusiasts.
B
“Hi everyone, my name is Yao Yuan,” said Mongolian performer Ayanga, 31, greeting the audience on stage.
The scene happened to the musical On the Road, first played in Beijing Tianqiao Performing Arts Center on Dec 24. The musical concentrates on Yao Yuan (played by Ayanga), a courier (快递员) at a private delivery company, who built his own express delivery and e-commerce business. By focusing on the changes of the delivery industry, the musical aims to reflect the rapid development of Chinese society in the past 20 years.
“Those straightforward and good-natured couriers are the first people I think of when it comes to the delivery industry,” Ayanga said. In 2018, he impressed the audience with performance in the show Super Vocal.
“Most people would naturally remind themselves of one scene–individual people riding an electric tricycle,” said the main actress, An Yuexi, 31, known as her role as Tangbao in The Journey of Flower.
“It’s difficult to make original musical with Chinese characteristics. The script was changed at least 10 times,” Ayanga told Beijing Daily. He would even call the director at midnight to share his new thoughts on the musical. 
An also made sure her performance was the best it could be. “The biggest challenge is how to improve my singing technique with emotion on the stage,” she said. She hoped to convey to the audience the spirit of courageousness when they pursue their dreams. “The path to realize your dream is rough, but you’ll succeed as long as you keep moving on.” she added.
24．What is the musical “On the Road” mainly about?
A. It mainly deals with the life of Ayanga.
B. It introduces a private delivery company.
C. It centers on a courier’s life and business.
D. It reflects China’s rapid development in economy.
25．How did Ayanga feel about couriers initially?
A. Brave and serious.
B. Outgoing and optimistic.
C. Simple and broad-mined.
D. Frank and good-tempered.
26．What is the purpose of paragraph 5?
A. To showthedirector’s struggle.
B. To highlight Ayanga’s great efforts.
C. To describe the performance’s process.
D. To explain the importance of original musical.
27．What is the hardest part for the performance according to An?
A. Singing skill with emotion on the stage.
B. Sticking to the same goal all the time.
C. Voicing the spirits of courageousness.
D. Understanding the musical new opinions.
C
From tiny hummingbirds(蜂鸟) to giant whooping cranes, roughly half of the world’s more than 10,000 bird species migrate(迁徙). Longer wings and powerful flying muscles often help these birds cross vast expanses of air. But a study of nearly all bird species suggests many migrators share another unexpected flight aid: lighter-colored feathers.
Being a bit more lightly colored than non-migrating birds may help these long-distance fliers stay cool as they work hard under the hot sun to fly, researchers report December 6 in Current Biology.
It’s known that color can help birds hide from predators(捕食者) by blending in, or attract mates by standing out. But color has subtle effects too, including regulating temperature by absorbing or reflecting light, says Kaspar Delhey, an expert at the Max Planck Institute for Ornithology in Germany. For example, bird eggs laid in colder climates tend to be darker, which may help keep them warm. 
Migrating birds push their bodies to the physiological limit, which creates much heat. Some species cope by rising to cooler air during daytime. “If overheating is a problem in migratory birds, another way of dealing with that would be to evolve lighter colors” that absorb less heat, Delhey says.
Delhey and his colleagues analyzed over 20,000 illustrations of 10,618 bird species, ranking feather lightness for each species and comparing that with how far the birds fly. On average, lightness slightly increased with migratory distance, the team found. The longest-distance migrators were about 4 percent lighter than non-migrators, an effect that wasn’t explained by size, climate or habitat type for different species.
“It’s not a big difference,” Delhey says, noting that many migrators are darkly colored, perhaps for reasons unrelated to flight. But the trend was remarkably consistent.“Very different groups with very different biologies show this pattern,” Delhey says.“That surprised us.” 
28．Which of the following ignored previously help migratory birds fly?
A. Longer wings. B. Vast expanses of air.
C. Lighter-colored feathers. D. Powerful flying muscles.
29．What does the underlined word “subtle” in paragraph 3 probably mean?
A. Smart. B. Terrible. C. Ambiguous. D. Tender.
30．How do migrating birds deal with overheating in them?
A. By evolving lighter colors. B. By reaching bodies’limit.
C. By flying higherto the sky. D. By absorbing more lights.
31．What can be inferred from Delhey’s study?
A. 10,618 bird species fly over a long distance altogether.
B. Species of migrating birds’ feathers vary significantly.
C. Migrators with darkfeathers are clearly related to flight.
D. Migratory distance can be judged by feathers’ lightness.
D
Anyone with a kid is aware of the fact that kids have a really unusual sense of humor, but there’s no other way to put it. Sometimes it’s a non-funny situation that they find amusing. Whatever it is, you might be wondering what on earth they think is so funny. Up until recently, researchers weren’t sure what the timeline was of developing a sense of humor.
A group of researchers called the Early Humor Survey (EHS) aim to understand just that and help parents get a better understanding of their kids’ sense of humor. They surveyed a group of parents from the United States, United Kingdom, and Australia.
During the first year of their babies’ lives, parents observed the different ways their children appreciated humor and were even able to produce some humor on their own. More than 3/4ths of the parents found their babies laughing by the second month of their lives. By their first birthday, almost all parents reported that their kids were all laughing.
While babies don’t have a full understanding of humor, we are able to see when they’re smiling or if they’re happy. EHS authors were able to see that babies had the ability to appreciate humor before they are able to produce humor themselves.
According to KidsHealth, children with a sense of humor are more optimistic, happier and are able to handle differences with others. They are also more well-liked by their peers and show a better handling of adversities of childhood, including bullying, or moving to a new town.Since parents are the biggest role models in children’s lives, it’s safe to say that they develop their sense of humor from interacting with their parents.
32．What can we learn from Paragraph 1?
A. Children are born with a sense of humor.
B. Parents seek for the cause of kids’humor.
C. Experts knowwhen kids produce humor.
D. Kids’ sense of humor differs from adults’.
33．Which of the following does Kids Health agree with?
A.The two-month-old babies begin to laugh.
B. Parents interpret children’s humor properly.
C. Humor helps kids cope with tough problems.
D. Kids understand humor while appreciating it.
34．What is the best title for the passage?
A. Kids’ Humor at a Very Early Stage
B. How Parents Care about Kids’ Growth
C. A New Discovery about Babies’Humor
D. Why Humor Is Important in Kids’ Life
35．What can be talked about following the last paragraph？
A. How to create kids’ humor stories.
B. How to develop kids’ sense of humor.
C. How to distinguish types of kids’ humor.
D. How to make an assessment of kids’ humor.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
The Fallas Festival(法雅节) in Spain
It is sometimes strange how world-famous festivals are started. 36 It takes place every March in Valencia of Spain.
Centuries ago, the city’s carpenters would empty their houses of all the old wood they had saved over the winter and burn it all in the local square. Over time, the carpenters began to use their old wood to carve different images. 37 Everyone would come to take a look and everything would be burnt.
The Fallas Festival is now one of the most popular festivals in Spain. 38 Today, 350 communities that make up Valencia work together to design and make two sculptures. These larger-than-life sculptures, often several meters high, are still made of wood, but also include cardboard. On the 15th of March, the sculptures are paraded around the city.
39 These will not be burnt at the end of the festival. They are instead, saved and placed in the local museum, which is open throughout the year. During the festival, there are lots of different community activities. Every activity ends with fireworks being let off during both the day and night.
The Fallas Festival always bring communities together. On the final night, all the sculptures are collected and put on a bonfire(大火堆) in the main Valencia square. The fire is lit and all the year's hard work comes to an end in towers of flames. 40

A. The Fallas Festival is an exception.
B. Everyone would participate in carving.
C. This is especially true with the Fallas Festival.
D. A competition is run where the best sculptures are chosen.
E. It also attracts people from the world to watch and take part.
F. Sometimes they would create funny images of famous people.
G. Everyone watching says goodbye to winter and welcome to spring.

第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

I went to the beach nearby. It was a 41 time watching families come and gofor a warm weekend here. As I was near the end of the beach, I noticed a 42 playing alone. It seems that she built a little sandcastle with a moat(护河) 43 it and now was trying to 44 the canal with water.
Unluckily, there was no 45 around to carry water. She would go to the waves, 46 her hands and then return to her little sandcastle. Sadly not much of the water was 47 it to the moat. But she kept trying, still smiling and 48 . I so wished I could 49 , but I didn't have a container with me.
Watching her, and feeling helpless, I had an aha 50 . I realized that I had a bottle of water in my bag. I quickly dug in, took it out, and walked over to 51 it to her.
Confused at first, she smiled but shook her head 52 , saying no. I comforted her with that it would make getting the water much 53 , and that’s what I would do. She smiled widely and finally took it from my hands after I 54 . Not wanting her to feel 55 , I walked off the beach, seeing her running over to the sea with a big smile, 56 with a bottle in hand.
In my heart, I know that when she notices that someone needs 57 in life, maybe, just maybe, she would recall this little random act of kindness by a 58 . And maybe that would make her more 59 to jump in and help 60 a little gentler world around her.
41．A. bitter B. cloudy C. lovely D. busy
42．A. clerk B. girl C. friend D. waiter
43．A. under B. towards C. behind D. around
44．A. fill B. cover C. mix D. combine
45．A. sand B. pool C. road D. container
46．A. cup B. shake C. grasp D. cross
47．A. leading B. getting C. making D. pointing
48．A. surprised B. hopeful C. meaningful D. frightened
49．A. keep on B. go around C. cheer up D. help out
50．A. moment B. period C. decade D. date
51．A. lend B. hand C. hold D. leave
52．A. happily B. madly C. shyly D. sadly
53．A. fuller B. better C. faster D. earlier
54．A. insisted B. suggested C. required D. pushed
55．A. proud B. uneasy C. disappointed D. innocent
56．A. connected B. related C. fixed D. equipped
57．A. assist B. donation C. advice D. choice
58．A. guide B. worker C. tourist D. stranger
59．A. curious B. friendly C. likely D. obvious
60．A. challenge B. create C. enter D. face
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Inspired by Chinese jade ornaments(玉制品), the medals of the Beijing 2022 Olympic Winter Games were announced 61 (official) on Oct. 26, 2021, 100 days ahead of the opening of the sporting event.After months of expectation and secrecy, the organizing committee of the Beijing 2022 Games introduced the medals — named tong xin, 62 means togetherness — during a ceremony 63 (mark) the countdown to the opening of the event on February 4th.
The medalsshave carvings of the Olympic rings 64 one side and are carved with the words “XXIV Olympic Winter Games Beijing 2022”. The concentric rings around the center represent the pursuit of unity 65 harmony, while echoing the Olympic values of solidarity, inclusiveness and promoting peace.The other side of the medals has the Beijing 2022 emblem(徽章) at the center.
Engravings(版画) of cloud patterns, an element 66 (use) on the torch of the 2008 Beijing Summer Olympics, snowflakes and ice markings fill the outer rings. The outer rings 67
(decorate) with 24 stars strung together by circles, representing the 24th edition of the Winter Olympics.Visually, it looks quite simple and plain at first glance, while 68 (detail) such as the carving of clouds and snowflake patterns as well as the uneven casting on the surface have made it special. 
Designers’ 69 (inspire) from jade for a second time honors the Chinese capital’s unique status－the first city 70 (host) both the Summer and Winter Olympics.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2. 只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。
I have taken part a voluntary organization recently. It is set up last year to provide left-behind
children with birthday gifts. It is hardly for them to receive birthday gifts from their parents why
their parents leave home to work in big cities. Besides, we volunteers will make a list of these
children’s birthday wishes. Afterread the list, we try our best to get the gifts they really want.
Some kids hope for the pair of new shoes or several books as his birthday gifts. I’d
like to these kids to receive thevery gifts they wish. I sincere hope each one will have a nicebirthday.
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
假定你是李华,你和留学生Johnson组队报名参加本周末的排球比赛。比赛在即，但自己因故无法参赛。根据以下要点，请你用英语给Johnson写一封邮件：
1．向他致歉；
2．说明原因；
3．提出补救的两种方法。
注意：
1. 词数100左右；
2. 可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。

Dear Johnson,
_______________________________________________________________________________
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_______________________________________________________________________________
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Best wishes!
Yours,
Li Hua