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    2022年安徽省合肥市瑶海区中考一模英语试题(word版含答案)

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    这是一份2022年安徽省合肥市瑶海区中考一模英语试题(word版含答案),共11页。试卷主要包含了 Hw will Mr等内容,欢迎下载使用。
    2022年初中毕业学业考试模拟试卷
    英语 试题卷
    2022.3
    注意事项:
    1.本试卷共四部分,十大题,满分120分。考试时间为120分钟。
    2.全卷包括“试题卷”和“答题卷”两部分。
    3.请务必在“答题卷”上答题,在“试题卷”上答题无效。
    第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分)
    I. 短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
    1. What did the woman borrow from her friend?
    A. B. C.
    2. Where did they decide to meet?
    A. B. C.
    3. Which color does the woman like best?
    A. Yellow. B. Red. C. Orange.
    4. How will Mr. Smith go to the party?
    A. By bus. B. By underground. C. On foot.
    5. What does the girl think about skating?
    A. Exciting. B. Dangerous. C. Boring.
    II. 长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
    听下面一段对话,回答第6、7题。
    6. Where is the new airport going to be built in the city?
    A. In the south. B. In the north. C. In the west.
    7. When will the airport be finished?
    A. This summer. B. This October. C. Next October.
    听下面一段对话,回答第8至10题。
    8. What is the weather like now?
    A. Cloudy. B. Rainy. C. Sunny.
    9. How did Lisa feel about the weather?
    A. Hopeful. B. Angry. C. Excited.
    10.What's the relationship between the speaker?
    A. Father and daughter. B. Brother and sister.
    C. Teacher and student.
    Ⅲ. 短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
    11. What does Kate want to do in the passage?
    A. To ask for help. B. To show thanks. C. To make friends.
    12. What was life in the village like in the past?
    A. There was almost no road to the outside world.
    B. There was no enough food for people to eat.
    C. There was no clean water for people to drink.
    13. What was Wang Yang's job before?
    A. A business man. B. A chemistry teacher.
    C. A famous scientist.
    14. How did Wang Yang help people in the village to improve crop products?
    A. By creating good natural environment.
    B. By inviting some scientists to give lessons.
    C. By leading people to learn modern technology.
    15. How long has Wang Yang been in the village?
    A. For seven years. B. For six years. C. For five years.
    Ⅳ. 信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
    Choosing a friend: A good friend can help us 16. ________
    Being understanding
    He always tries to understand each other's 17. ________
    He is also a good 18. ________.
    Being 19. ________
    He can notice other's good points.
    Being special
    We can share learning 20. ________ and skills with each other.
    第二部分 英语知识运用(共两大题,满分30分)
    V. 单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
    从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
    21. My mother took those newspapers off the table to make ________ for the new computer.
    A. food B. money C. room D. position
    22. There are so many interesting places in Hefei, ________ Rongchuang Park in Binhu.
    A. generally B. especially C. finally D. suddenly
    23. —Peter got the first place in the National English Speaking Competition. He has prepared for it since three years ago.
    —That's great! Everything comes to him who ________.
    A. loses B. helps C. waits D. forgets
    24. Our city has made great progress in the fight ________ COVID-19 so far.
    A. on B. for C. with D. against
    25. —Steve is the only person that has the ________ to complete the hard task.
    —Yes. He is the bravest man I know.
    A. courage B. guide C. point D. excuse
    26. It's not a good habit to ________ our parents whenever we are in trouble.
    A. pick up B. depend on C. come across D. look after
    27. —Our hometown is becoming more and more beautiful.
    — I agree with you. In fact, it ________ a lot in the past few years.
    A. changed B. will change C. has changed D. was changing
    28. —I don't know ________ I can do it without your help.
    —Take it easy, and I believe you can do it.
    A. whether B. how C. why D. what
    29. —Why is your maths teacher so popular in your school?
    —Because he is always full of ________ problem-solving skills.
    A. pretty B. awful C. stupid D. proper
    30. —Our team failed in the football match again.
    —________. We support you, always have, always will!
    A. Thar's true B. Best wishes C. No way D. Cheer up
    VI. 完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
    阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
    A
    China has put in place a new policy (政策) that young people are not allowed to play online video games more than three hours a week. The new 31 ask those who are under age 18 to play online games for no more than one hour in the evening on Fridays, weekends and public holidays.
    China is the world's 32 video game market. The survey reported that about 63% of young people often play online games. And some of the 33 are believed to play them for more than two hours a day on weekdays. Parents have 34 for years about their children becoming crazy about video games. In 2020, the government also paid more attention to this because of the 35 problems about the eyes among young people.
    The technology company Tencent Holdings begins to take action for young people now. Online game companies must 36 they have necessary ways about the game time. And those who break the rules will be 37 .
    Many young Chinese gamers are not 38 with the new rules. Parents, however, 39 them. A hotel manager Li Tong believes the new policy will be a good thing for his 14-year-old daughter. "My daughter uses her phone after dinner every day for one to two hours and it's difficult for me or her mother to 40 her," Li said. "We are happy that our country really does something for our children."
    31. A. pages B. problems C. rules D. habits
    32. A. largest B. simplest C. smallest D. least
    33. A. readers B. passengers C. guests D. gamers
    34. A. accepted B. worried C. escaped D. compared
    35. A. falling B. missing C. rising D. moving
    36. A. draw B. refuse C. consider D. show
    37. A. ordered B. praised C. beaten D. punished
    38. A. similar B. pleased C. patient D. careful
    39. A. choose B. change C. support D. require
    40. A. stop B. leave C. check D. encourage
    B
    What do you think of the pizza prepared by a robot? Will it have a different taste? Will robots cook in the future instead of people?
    These are questions that people are asking as some 41 teat food-preparation robots. A company in America called Zone is 42 machines that make pizza. The pizza comes out the same each time. Zone says the robots work 43 . It saves a lot of time. And more money can be spent on many kinds of foods 44 the company does not need to pay the robots. And it 45 that they are successful.
    The 46 part for the company's success is: How does the pizza taste? Some customers have bought the robot-made pizza. Most of them like its 47 . "It's delicious. It's always hot and fresh when it comes. I think it's great that they are making it."
    The company says the scientists are 48 developing robots, so people can get better food faster. But what about the 49 the robots are taking from humans? Alex Carden, the boss of Zone, thinks there will be more 50 jobs for humans to do when the robots begin doing some of the boring work.
    41. A. cooks B. workers C. scientists D. managers
    42. A. repairing B. testing C. breaking D. washing
    43. A. slowly B. wisely C. quickly D. helpfully
    44. A. because B. so C. while D. although
    45. A. makes up B. turns out C. calls on D. puts of
    46. A. first B. last C. real D. key
    47. A. taste B. shape C. color D. size
    48. A. sometimes B. hardly C. still D. seldom
    49. A. secrets B. jobs C. tools D. prizes
    50. A. tiring B. interesting C. surprising D. moving
    第三部分 阅读理解(共两大题,满分45分)
    VII. 补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    根据对话内容,从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。
    A: Hi, Lucy. Where were you at lunchtime? I was looking for you in the dining hall.
    B: Oh, sorry. I missed you. 51._________
    A: I see. Because the exams are coming up.
    B: Yes. After class there is always a group of students around the teacher. 52. _________
    A: No. 53. _________
    B: Don't worry, Tom. 54. _________ You have enough time to work them out.
    A: Luckily, I don't need to spend much time on other subjects. I can pay more attention to maths.
    B: 55. _________ Li Lei does well in maths but his English is poor. We can work together!
    A: Good idea! Let's go and find him.
    A. Why not join a team?
    B. Are you ready for the exams?
    C. I can't wait to read the book.
    D. Can you borrow me the notebooks?
    E. I was in the teacher's office asking questions.
    F. There's still one month to go before the exam.
    G. My maths problems are really giving me a big headache.
    VIII. 阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
    阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
    A
    The Little Mermaid
    The little Mermaid is a symbol (象征) of Copenhagen, Denmark. It sits on a rock in the harbor (海湾). It is a character (人物) in the story The Little Mermaid by Hans Andersen. It was presented to public on 23 August, 1913. And there are many tourists taking photos with the Little Mermaid every year.
    The Taj Mahal
    As one of the Seven Wonders of the World, the Taj Mahal is a treasure of India. It is considered the finest example of Mughal building style (风格), a mix of Indian, Persian and Islamic styles.
    Niagara Falls State Park
    The oldest state park in America, open year-round, brings you closer than you ever thought possible to the power of the Falls. The best area to see the American Falls and Rapids is the Prospect Point. It is also home to the Visitors Service Center, Niagara Adventure Theater, the Observation Tower and the Maid of the Mist.
    56. What can you do when you visit the Little Mermaid?
    A. Take photos with it. B. Swim in the harbor.
    C. Enjoy ancient buildings. D. Listen to a story.
    57. Which is the best place to see the American Falls and Rapids?
    A. The Maid of the Mist.
    B. The Prospect Point.
    C. The Niagara Adventure Theater.
    D. The Observation Tower.
    58. What can we learn from the text?
    A. Tourists can see the Taj Mahal from the outside.
    B. The Taj Mahal is the finest example of Islamic styles.
    C. Niagara Falls State Park is the oldest park in the world.
    D. The character of the little Mermaid was created by Hans Andersen.
    B
    Last year in April, a group of elephants started to walk north from their home in the wild in Yunnan. They quickly became stars and got a lot of attention from around the world.
    A team of eight people were following the elephants. They worked 24 hours a day, both on the ground and with drones (无人机).
    The team shared online some interesting moments of the elephants' trip. The moments made people smile. For example, two baby elephants once fell down, and an adult (成年的) elephant had to use its long nose to help babies stand. It was so cute! At another point, a sleeping baby elephant was on its mother's back. It moved its body and legs in the air. It seemed the baby elephant was dreaming about something funny.
    These elephants were so cute. Some reporters from other countries even came to Yunnan. They got to know more about the elephants as well as the friendly people there.
    No one knew why the elephants left home. Maybe they were looking for better food. Maybe they were lost. Maybe they were just having a good time.
    59. What direction did the elephants go for?
    A. East. B. South. C. West. D. North.
    60. How did people get information about the elephants' trip according to the passage?
    A. By reading the latest newspapers.
    B. By following the elephants all the time.
    C. By watching the moments shared online.
    D. By using drones to take photos of the elephants.
    61. What can we learn about the elephants?
    A. The adult elephants took care of baby ones.
    B. There were more baby elephants in the group.
    C. The elephants left home for a better place to live.
    D. These elephants kept walking without sleeping.
    62. What's the best title of the passage?
    A. A Wonderful Trip B. Elephants in the Wild
    C. Travelling Elephants D. Reasons for Travelling
    C
    In China, there are 24 solar terms (节气) in a year. And there are six of them in winter. They are Beginning of Winter, Light Snow, Heavy Snow, Winter Solstice (冬至), Lesser Cold(小寒) and Greater Cold.
    Beginning of Winter usually falls on November 7th or 8th. After Beginning of Winter, most parts of the country can start to expect cold weather. On this day, after a year of hard work, people are happy to have a rest and spend time with family. The northern China celebrates Beginning of Winter as the "Small Spring Festival". People usually have dumplings on that day.
    Light Snow usually falls on November 22nd or 23rd and heavy snow usually falls on December 7th or 8th. When Winter Solstice comes, it brings the shortest days of the year and the longest nights. Many places around the country can expect the coldest weather yet. People often start counting "nine cold periods" starting from winter solstice. Every cold period has nine days. People believe that after 81 cold days, spring will come.
    Greater Cold comes after Lesser Cold. And all Chinese are ready to welcome the Spring Festival after it. Of course, a new round of solar terms will start.
    63. How many solar terms are there in winter?
    A. 6. B. 12 C. 18. D. 24.
    64. What do people do on the Beginning of Winter in the northern China?
    A. They get up early and go to work early.
    B. They usually have dumplings on that day.
    C. They welcome a new round of solar terms.
    D. They spend most of their time with friends.
    65. What happens when Winter Solstice comes?
    A. Many places can expect the warm weather.
    B. It brings the shortest days and the longest nights.
    C. All Chinese are ready to celebrate Spring Festival.
    D. There is usually heavy snow in most parts of China.
    66. What does the underlined word "it" mean in the last paragraph (段落)?
    A. Light Snow. B. Heavy Snow. C. Lesser Cold. D. Greater Cold.
    D
    On a Sunday morning, some parents and their special-needs children enjoyed a time of dancing. Although they didn't dance well, everyone wore a big smile. These families are part of Family of Luck. It's a support group for families with special-needs children.
    Family of Luck started in 2000 in Taiwan, China. It has given help to more than 150 families. When parents look alter their special-needs children, they'll meet a lot of difficulties and they may feel sad sometimes. The group helps them a lot.
    Family of Luck doesn't just help parents. It has classes to teach children living skills. Family of Luck wants families with special-needs children to connect with common life. To make that possible, it holds different kinds of activities, like walking at the park and music festivals. It tries to call on more people to love special-needs children.
    Life is not easy both for special-needs children and their parents, but they get help and support from Family of Luck. That makes them keep walking happily.
    67. How did the families feel after dancing?
    A. Tired. B. Happy. C. Sad. D. Bored.
    68. What is Family of Luck?
    A. It tries to teach parents living skills. B. It looks after new babies for parents.
    C. It helps children with special needs. D. It is a family that is always full of luck.
    69. Why does Family of Luck hold different kinds of activities for special-needs children?
    A. To encourage them to love themselves. B. To support them to go for common life.
    C. To help them learn from each other. D. To avoid meeting a lot of difficulties.
    E
    On June 17th, 2021, three Chinese astronauts (宇航员) went into space. They got into Tianhe, the main part of the space station, and began their 3-month stay in space.
    But what did they eat during this time? There were more than 120 kinds of foods on Tianhe, from Chinese dishes, such as gonghao chicken, rice noodles and so on. Food experts (专家) chose those foods carefully. The foods were healthy, delicious and could be kept for a long time.
    Experts also made weekly breakfast, lunch and supper menus for the astronauts. Before the astronauts se out, they did a survey and found out what the astronauts like to eat. The experts asked the astronauts to taste hundreds of foods and drinks and choose their favorites. Then they made the astronauts' everyday menus in space.
    According to the survey, the Chinese astronauts like Sichuan food very much. And apples beat oranges to be their favorite space fruit. In the dining area of Tianbe, there is a fridge! Isn't it cool?
    70. How long did three Chinese astronauts stay in space?
    A. For one month. B. For two months.
    C. For three months. D. For four months.
    71. What is the third paragraph mainly about?
    A. How astronauts' everyday menus in space come out.
    B. How many kinds of foods the astronauts have to taste.
    C. Why experts did a survey on drinks for astronauts.
    D. What astronauts can eat for breakfast, lunch and supper.
    72. What is the purpose of the text?
    A. To get advice for astronauts on foods.
    B. To call for action of being astronauts.
    C. To collect different kinds of space foods.
    D. To introduce the menus for astronauts.
    阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题的词数要求)。
    F
    When I was a student in the university, I was doing a part-time job at my university's Museum of Natural History. One day while working at the cash register (收银台) in the gift shop, I saw an old couple come in with a little girl in a wheelchair.
    When I looked closer ai this girl, I saw that she had no arms or legs. She was almost set on her chair. As the couple wheeled her up to me, I was looking down at the cash register. I turned my head toward the girl and gave her a smile. When I took the money from her grandparents, I looked at the girl again, who was giving me the cutest, largest smile I have ever seen.
    Suddenly, a strong feeling hit me, because her smile gave me a new sense of what life is all about. She took me from a poor, unhappy college student and brought me into her world, a world of smiles and love.
    That was ten years ago, and now I am a successful business man. Whenever I get down and think about the troubles of the world, I always think about the lesson about life that the girl taught me.
    73. What did the writer see when he looked closer at the girl? (不超过10个词)
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    74. Why did the writer think a strong feeling hit him? (不超过15个词)
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    75. What does the writer always think about whenever he gets down? (不超过15个词)
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    第四部分 写(共两大题,满分25分)
    IX. 单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。
    76. Is the ride s________ (安全) enough for a 5-year-old child?
    77. Tom is enjoying his food with a knife and f________ (叉子).
    78. The children l________ (笑) happily when they were watching cartoons.
    79. This job is not as easy as it may a________ (显得).
    80. Wang Yaping set many first r________ (记录) as a Chinese woman astronaut in space.
    X. 书面表达(共1小题;满分20分)
    为了交流学习经验,学校英文报举行了一次以Learn well and wisely为题的征文比赛。假定你是李华,请你用英语写一篇短文向校英文报投稿。内容包括:
    (1)学习方法;
    (2)个人感悟。
    注意:
    (1)词数80~100;
    (2)可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
    (3)文中不能出现真实姓名及学校名称;
    (4)短文开头已为你写好,不计入总词数。
    Learn well and wisely
    It's necessary for us to develop good habits and ways to learn. __________________________________________
    _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    2022年初中毕业学业考试模拟试卷
    2022.3
    九年级英语参考答案及听力材料
    参考答案
    I-Ⅳ. 1-5 CBACB 6-10 ACAAB 11-15 BABCC
    16. grow 17. ideas 18. listener 19. honest 20. methods
    V. 21-25 CBCDA 26-30 BCADD
    VI. 31-35 CADBC 36-40 DDBCA 41-45 CBCAB 46-50 DACBB
    VII. 51-55 EBGFA
    VIII. 56-58 ABD 59-62 DCAC 63-66 ABBD 67-69 BCB 70-72 CAD
    73. He saw that she had no arms or legs.
    74. Because the girl's smile gave him a new sense of what life is all about.
    75. He always thinks about the lesson about life that the girl taught him.
    IX. 76. safe 77. fork 78. laughed 79. appear 80. records
    X. One possible version:
    Learn well and wisely
    It's necessary for us to develop good habits and ways to learn.
    We need to get ready for our lessons before class and always listen carefully in class. Learning in groups and helping each other are two good ways to study. If we meet some problems, we can ask others for help. Many tasks need close teamwork. Nothing will be achieved unless we work well together. What's more, we should do more reading in our spare time to open our eyes. As a student, making good use of time plays an important role in study. And don't forget to do sports and keep healthy.
    I hope all these above will be helpful to us.
    听力材料
    I. 短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    你将听到5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
    1. W: Thank you for lending me the bike. Here is a book for you as a gift.
    M: You are welcome! Wow, this is my favorite writer. Thanks.
    2. W: Would you like to go watching the film Changginhu with me?
    M: Sure. But I have to go to the bank first. Let's meet at the cinema directly.
    3. M: You look great in this red coal.
    W: All right, I will buy this one but yellow is my favorite color.
    4. W: Mr. Smith, will you go to the party by bus or by underground?
    M: Neither, I plan to walk there. It's good for my health.
    5. M: Learning skating is exciting! Jin Boyang is my favorite skating sportsperson.
    W: He is really excellent. But I think skating is dangerous.
    II. 长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
    听下面一段对话,回答第6、7题。
    M: Have you heard the news today?
    W: No. What happened?
    M: A new airport is going to be built in our city.
    W: Wow, that's really fantastic! Where is it going to be built?
    M: In the south of our city. Then we can travel by plane from our own city.
    W: Wonderful. I will fly to Dalian this summer holiday.
    M: I'm afraid not. The airport won't be finished until next October.
    听下面一段对话,回答第8至10题。
    M: Oh, Lisa. Look at the sky! It's starting to get cloudy.
    W: I hope it doesn't rain. I thought it was going to be a fine day today.
    M: That's certainly what our mum was hoping for when she chose today for the picnic.
    W: Hey, did you hear the weather report this morning? Is it supposed to rain?
    M: I don't know. I didn't catch the report. Look at the clouds! Maybe if it rains, it will only be a short shower.
    W: You are right. We can still have a picnic as long as it doesn't rain.
    M: But you can't have a picnic without sunshine.
    W: Let's just wait. Mum hasn't told us to stop preparing for it.
    Ⅲ. 短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
    My name is Kate. I'm from a small village in Anhui. I want to express my thanks to a kind person, Wang Yang.
    Our village was very poor in the past. There was almost no road to the outside world. People stayed home to plant crops. It was he that made great changes to our village. Wang Yang was a chemistry teacher in Shanghai. He came to our village five years ago. He raised money to build a new road which makes it easy for young people in the village to go out to work and do business. Also, he led people to learn modern technology to improve crop products. We became richer and richer. We have a better life now because of him.
    Now he is still in our village. He said he would go back to Shanghai one day, but here is his hometown too!
    Ⅳ. 信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
    Good afternoon, everyone. Today my speech is about choosing a friend. A good friend can help us grow. How do we know when we have found a good friend? Above all else, we look for a person who always tries to understand each other's ideas. He puts himself in the other person's place and he is also a good listener. We can have fun together and make each other happy. At the same time, being honest is important. A friend does not look for mistakes in others. He can notice their good points. What's more, we need a special friend who likes the same things we like. We can share learning methods and skills with each other, That's all, thank you!

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