2021-2022学年天津市五校联考高二上学期期末(下学期期初)考试英语试题含答案
展开本试卷分为第Ⅰ卷(选择题)和第Ⅱ卷(非选择题)两部分,共 150 分,考试用时120 分钟。
答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号填写在答题卡上。答卷时,考生务必将答案涂写在答题卡上,答在试卷上的无效。
祝各位考生考试顺利!
注意事项:
1.每小题选出答案后,用铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。
2.本卷共 70 小题,共 110 分。
第 I 卷 选择题(共 110 分)
第一部分
听力(共两节,满分 15 分)
第一节(共 5 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 5 分)
听下面五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你将有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例:Hw much is the shirt?
A.£ 19.15.B.£ 9.15.C.£ 9.18.
答案为 B。
1. What des the man want t drink?
A. Ht tea. B. Ice water. C. Ht cffee.
2. Where can the wman find the nearest drugstre?
A. In the supermarket. B. On Furth Street. C. Next t a vegetable market.
3. What des the man advise the wman t d?
A. Wrk hard. B. Take less exercise. C. Have a break.
4. What is the wman ding?
A. Expressing thanks. B. Buying a ticket. C. Seeing the man ff.
5. When will the film end?
A. At 9:45. B. At 9:30. C. At 9:15.
第二节(共 10 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
听下面几段材料。每段材料后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第 6 至第 8 小题。
6. T whm is Mr. James talking?
A. Sandra's mther.B. Sandra's classmate. C. Sandra's teacher.
7. What d we knw abut Sandra?
A. She desn't eat meat at all.
B. She is unwilling t have schl meals.
C. She likes prducts which cntain nuts.
8. What will Sandra d tmrrw?
A. Transfer t anther schl.
B. Try t ask fr sick leave.
C. G t the dentist.
听下面一段对话,回答第 9 至第 11 小题。
9. Why des Jacb call Erica?
A. T make an aplgy.
B. T put ff the appintment.
C. T share the gd news.
10. What des Jacb decide t d this Friday evening?
A. Visit Erica at her hme.
B. G t Mary's superir's party.
C. Wait fr a call frm Erica.
11. What is Erica prbably ging t d next?
A. Talk with Alex.
B. Pick up Alex's parents.
C. Have dinner at Sardi's Restaurant.
听下面一段独白,回答第 12 至第 15 小题。
12. What will the weather be like this afternn?
A. Cludy. B. Rainy. C. Sunny.
13. What will the highest temperature be n Saturday?
A. 10℃. B. 9℃. C. 8℃.
14. What seasn is it?
A. Autumn. B. Winter. C. Spring.
15. Hw des the speaker sund in the end?
A. Serius. B. Wrried. C. Humrus.
第二部分:英语知识运用(共两节,满分 45 分)
第一节:单项选择
(共 15 小题;每小题 1 分;满分 15 分)
从 A、B、C、D 四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
16. — Are yu ging t Tm's birthday party?
— ________ . I might have t get prepared fr mid-term exams.
A. It depends B. Thank yu C. Sunds great D. Dn't mentin it
17. _____ frm the mn, the earth lks like a clrful ball.
A. Seeing B. Seen C. Having seen D. Having been seen
18. She was admitted t Peking University, ________ made her parents very happy.
A. That B. wh C. which D. whm
19. We hurriedly went t the htel, nly t be tld that we were nt able t get a rm because we ________ in advance.
A. didn't bk B. hadn't bked C. hasn't bked D. weren't bking
20. Technlgy makes________ pssible that millins mre peple have been able t experience a digital versin f the wrld-famus painting.
A. it B. this C. that D. ne
21. Yu ________ aplgize because it can happen t anybdy t be late. Cme and sit dwn.
A. can't B. ught nt t C. mustn't D. dn't have t
22. Seeing their daughter s much happier has _____ made Lara's parents mre relaxed.
A. in return B. in turn C. in reply D. in answer
23. _____ t sunlight fr t much time will d harm t yur skin.
A. Expsed B. Having expsed C. After being expsed D. Being expsed
24. Nbdy knew hw he _______ the fashin scene in the early 1980s.
A. burst nt B. burst int C. burst ut D. burst up
25. T my delight, I _____ frm hundreds f applicants t attend the pening ceremny.
A. wuld chse B. was being chsen C. was chsen D. had chsen
26. — Let's g ut fr dinner, OK?
— _________. I'll just get my cat.
A. I culdn't agree mre B. It culdn't be wrse
C. I have n idea D. It's abslutely hpeless
27. We have every reasn t believe the print media are usually mre ________ and reliable than the Internet.
A. ecnmic B. accurate C. hrrible D. illegal
28. What was Jeff's_______ t the news that he was chsen t be chairman f the students' unin?
A. reactin B. impressin C. permissin D. cnclusin
29. —As we knw, keeping psitive is beneficial t the prcess f ur wrk and study.
—Yu can say that again. Struggle nt t let negative ideas_______.
A. miss ut B. max ut C. take ver D. take up
30. We shuld try ur best t cmplete the prject, _____ the cst.
A. Hwever B. n matter whatever C. whatever D. whichever
第二节:完形填空(共 20 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 30 分)
阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从 31~50 各题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
Jack McCrssan and his three friends mved t the English city f Bristl. There, they were upset t discver that their landlrd(房东)wuldn't 31 them t get a dg. The guys had all grwn up with dgs and missed the 32 f a fur-legged friend. S when they 33 a dg lking at them frm their neighbr's windw ne evening, they had a(n) 34 :write t their neighbr and ffer their 35 as dggy caretakers.
“If yu ever need smene t walk him/her, we'll gladly d s.” they wrte. “If yu ever get 36 (we knw yu never will, but we can dream) we're mre than happy t 37 him/her. If yu want t cme ver and bring him/her t 38 ur day, yu're mre than welcme. If yu 39 t walk past ur balcny windws s we can see him/her, please d.”
They 40 the letter might cme acrss as a bit strng, s they 41 expressed the idea that they missed having a dg arund. “The adult life is a 42 withut ne,” they wrte, signing ff as “the bys frm number 23”.
They sn received a letter back 43 with a paw(爪子)n the back. “What a treat it was t receive yur letter,” began the nte written 44 the dg, Stevie Ticks, by her wner, Sarah Tlman. “I 45 meeting new peple and it'd be great if we can be friends. I must warn yu that the price f my 46 is giving ball thrws whenever I 47 them.”
The letter cntinued, “We understand hw 48 it is t find pet-friendly rentals(出租房), and life just isn't 49 withut a dg in it. We'd lve t hang whenever yu fancy.”
McCrssan psted the whle 50 nline and it sn blew up.
31. A. frbid B. allw C. rder D. frce
32. A. sacrifice B. cmmunicatin C. cmpany D. perfrmance
33. A. imagined B. sensed C. kept D. sptted
34. A. idea B. belief C. gal D. attitude
35. A. recipes B. dnatins C. services D. lessns
36. A. frightened B. embarrassed C. disappinted D. bred
37. A. live n B. lk after C. fight against D. seek fr
38. A. brighten B. cst C. replace D. ccupy
39. A. refuse B. decline C. desire D. pretend
40. A. wished B. guaranteed C. wrried D. cncluded
41. A. rarely B. curiusly C. gradually D. sincerely
42. A. jurney B. dream C. struggle D. destinatin
43. A. apprached B. delivered C. stamped D. predicted
44. A. in celebratin f B. n behalf f C. in search f D. n accunt f
45. A. lve B. admit C. risk D. stand
46. A. invitatin B. friendship C. assistance D. cntributin
47. A. discver B. demand C. remember D. describe
48. A. nrmal B. terrifying C. secret D. hard
49. A. frmal B. full C. changeable D. randm
50. A. interactin B. cnflict C. applicatin D. debate
第三部分:阅读理解(共 20 小题;每小题 2.5 分,满分 50 分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
Student Cmpetitins
BEDTIME STORY
Prize: Other awards
Regin: Asia
Eligibility(报名资格): Open t everyne
Deadline(截止日期): 2021-04-15
We all have grwn up listening t bedtime stries frm ur parents and grandparents. Hwever, due t the digitized mdern lifestyle, tday's children have lst interest in the bedtime stries that were an imprtant part f childhd. StryMirrr presents an pprtunity t share yur bedtime stries thrugh this cntest, which aims t bring back the culture f telling wnderful stries t children. Tp three winners in stry & audi wuld get $500 frm StryMirrr Shp.
EUROPEAN FASHION AWARD FASH 2021
Prize: Cash
Regin: Eurpe
Eligibility: Students
Deadline: 2021-04-20
The Eurpean Fashin Award FASH 2021 is awarded with £5,000, the special award with £1,000 frm ne f the spnsrs(赞助者). The Eurpe-wide cmpetitin is aimed at particularly talented students frm all design majrs in the three categries f students, bachelr, master and dctr. In additin t designers, graduates (frm May 1st, 2020) frm the fields f garment(服装) technlgy, prduct develpment r design engineering can apply.
ONLINE ART COMPETITION
Prize: Other awards
Regin: Glbal
Eligibility: Open t everyne
Deadline: 2021-04-25
GLAD(Glbal Learners Academy f Develpment) is rganizing an Online Art Cmpetitin n the theme--Crna Virus( 冠 状 病 毒 ) fr Children frm 6 years t 18 years.The children frm 6 years and abve can participate by sending any picture alng with the details such as Name, Class and Schl, City, and Cuntry. Each student can send nly ne entry(参赛作品) per cmpetitin. Paintings must be the student's riginal creative wrk and shuld be clsely related t the theme.
BIEA STUDENT STEM COMPETITION
Prize: Cash
Regin: Glbal
Eligibility: High schl Students
Deadline: 2021-04-30
The cmpetitin theme is n develping slutins t cllecting plastic waste frm waterways. One winning team will receive 5000 punds fr their schl science lab. The Stem Cmpetitin is rganized by the British Internatinal Educatin Assciatin, and is an annual cmpetitin fr students under the age f 18. It aims t develp talent in science, technlgy, engineering, and maths(STEM).
51. What is the purpse f the StryMirrr stry cntest?
A. T raise kids' ability t listen t stries.
B. T let kids learn t write stries themselves.
C. T establish the habit f strytelling again.
D. T memrize the wnderful childhd days.
52. Which cmpetitin ffers a special prize?
A. The nline art cmpetitin.
B. The Eurpean fashin award FASH 2021.
C. BIEA student STEM cmpetitin.
D. The bedtime stry cmpetitin.
53. Wh can apply fr the Eurpean Fashin Award FASH 2021?
A. Fresh university graduates wh majr in design.
B. Any bachelr, master and dctr.
C. Peple wh have never studied design.
D. High schl students.
54. What is NOT allwed in the nline art cmpetitin?
A. The participant hands in nly ne painting.
B. The participant sends his/her wrk earlier than April 25th, 2021.
C. The participant's artwrk is abut Crna Virus.
D. Parents d the painting n behalf f their children.
55. In the STEM cmpetitin, ___________.
A. nly applicants frm the UK are allwed t participate
B. Participants' technical knwledge will be put t gd use
C. the winner will win 5000 punds fr himself/herself
D. the participants will g t pick up garbage in the river
B
Nrmally, a phne cnversatin with my lder sister Jenna wuld end with sisterly jkes. But this time, we bth said, “I lve yu.” Days later, aged 28, Jenna died f a serius disease.
Lsing Jenna was the mst terrible thing I'd ever experienced, but five years n I can see that it als shaped wh I am tday. Jenna encuraged me t find humr at the darkest f times, and her death gave me a sense f fearlessness - which led t me becming a stand-up cmedian.
At 31, I nw see that life's t shrt t wrry abut my wn insecurities. Grwing up tgether, the tw f us were incredibly clse. We stuck tgether and even shared a rm. Lying in ur beds at night, Jenna wuld sing Sleeping Satellite by Tasmin Archer t me when I gt scared f the dark.
I was studying at university when I was tld that Jenna had a serius disease. I had n idea what t d, hw t react r what t say. But when I gt t the hspital, Jenna tk my hand and said, “Jayde, can yu make everyne laugh? They're all lking at me like I'm abut t die and it's getting n my nerves.”
Frm that pint n, during Jenna's regular hspital stays, I'd jke arund and try t lighten the md. I wanted t make everyne arund her stp acting like she was abut t die - because we didn't knw that she was.
When she did die tw years later, it was a cmplete shck. Seeing her in hspital in the end, cnnected t machines, was awful - as was seeing my parents' sadness. But I still jked arund, making fun f her fr nt taking care f her eyebrws. She died that same day.
Nthing can prepare yu fr lsing yur sister. I felt like I didn't knw what t d withut her. It tk tw years fr the sadness t start t lift, but when it did, I began seeing life differently.
I'd watched my sister die, s I knew nthing else culd hurt as much. I fund myself letting g f all the insecurities that had held me back previusly. It was arund then that I entered the Funny Wmen cmpetitin - smething I wuld never have had the cnfidence t d befre Jenna's death.
My win marked a huge turning pint in my career and led t my recent shw at the Sh Theatre in Lndn. I smetimes wnder if I'd be ding all this if Jenna hadn't died. But the thing is, she did - and this is what I've been left with.
56. What inspired the authr t becme a stand-up cmedian?
A. Her sister encuraged her t be humrus and fearless.
B. Her parents were sad, s she wanted t cheer them up.
C. She gt a serius disease and was ging t die.
D. She wanted t delight her sister, wh was seriusly ill.
57. Hw was the relatinship between the authr and her sister?
A. They had their wn rm, but they wuld like t sleep tgether.
B. Even thugh they lved each ther, they ften had cnflicts.
C. The authr had been very clse t her sister since they were yung.
D. Her sister sang sngs t cmfrt the authr n rainy days.
58. Why did Jenna ask the authr t "make everyne laugh"?
A. She wanted ther peple t frget her illness.
B. She did nt believe that she was abut t die.
C. She was fed up with the bring hspital life.
D. She was tired f everyne's anxiety.
59. Which f the fllwing can replace the wrd “lift” (para.7)?
A. Remve B. Disappear C. Raise D. Deepen
60. Hw did the authr change after her sister died?
A. She did nt feel hurt as befre anymre.
B. She became cnfident enugh t d a stand-up shw.
C. She prepared herself fr lsing clse family members.
D. She n lnger wrried abut her insecurities.
C
The United States Department f Agriculture has a prgram called Wildlife Services. Its jb is t help prtect agricultural and ther resurces. Often that means helping farmers deal with unwelcme visitrs. This rganizatin has experts frm different fields and it has set up thusands f inquiry centers all ver the cuntry where farmer can explain their difficulty and get practical help.
One example frm Wildlife Services f its wrk invlved a farmer in Washingtn State in the Pacific Nrthwest. Several years ag, thusands f Canada geese landed n his fields. The geese began t eat his carrt crp. Bilgists frm the prgram suggested that the farmer use nise-making devices and ther measures t scare the large birds away. These effrts succeeded, which made the farmer quite happy. Wildlife Services als has a livestck prtectin prgram. The prgram just ffers suggestins t keep thse unwelcme visitrs away instead f killing them. The Wildlife Services prgram is part f the Animal and Plant Health Inspectin Service, r APHIS. APHIS ffers sme suggestins f ways t keep away predatrs. Fr example, try t keep fd and water safe frm wildlife. Fences may help keep ut wlves, especially if the fences are at least tw meters high.
Experts suggest prviding secure shelter fr chickens, sheep and ther animals that culd be attacked. They als suggest using lights abve places where these animals are kept. And they advise peple wh see wlves t chase them away by shuting, making lud nises r thrwing rcks. And t prtect livestck, cnsider using guard animals such as dgs and dnkeys, which are very effective.
Fr hme gardeners, a tw-meter fence might help keep ut deer. T keep ut rabbits, a wire fence has t be nly abut a half-meter high. It shuld extend fifteen centimeters undergrund t keep rabbits frm digging under it. If snakes are a prblem, remve dead trees and cut high grass t destry their hiding places. Due t its effective wrk, ever since the Wildlife Services was started, it has been well received by farmers all ver the States and neighbring cuntries such as Canada and Mexic.
61. What des wildlife Services aim t help farmer handle?
A. Animals that d harm t crps r livestck. B. Peple wh pllute the farmland.
C. Peple wh dn't care abut wildlife.
D. Animals that attack farmers.
62. It can be inferred frm Paragraph 2 that ______.
A. the cabbage crp was eaten up by Canada geese
B. Wildlife Services invlves sme bilgists in its grup
C. the farmer didn't have a gun t kill thse Canada geese
D. the farmers like t eat Canada geese very much
63. What is mainly discussed in Paragraph 3?
A. Hw t hunt wildlife.
B. Ways t deal with wlves.
C. Hw t prtect crps.
D. Ways t prtect livestck.
64. Why shuld the bttm f the fence extend abut 15 centimeters int the grund?
A. Wlves can climb ver it easily.
B. Rabbits may enter by digging hles under it.
C. Snakes can crss it frm under the grund.
D. The strng wind might blw it away.
65. Where des the passage prbably cme frm?
A. A turist brchure. B. A business reprt.
C. An entertainment prgram. D. A science magazine.
D
It seems that we are ne step clser t finding alien life and maybe a future hme fr humanity. Scientists frm NASA have fund a new slar system filled with planets that lk like the Earth and culd even supprt life.
The grup f seven planets, which rbits a star called Trappist-1, is 39 light years away frm the Earth in the cnstellatin f Aquarius(水瓶座). And three f them are in the “habitable zne” - the area arund a star where water is mst likely t be fund. This is imprtant because water is necessary fr life.
“This is an amazing planetary(行星的) system - nt nly because we have fund s many planets, but because they are all surprisingly similar in size t the Earth”, astrnmer Michael Gilln frm the University f Liege in Belgium tld The Independent.
Trappist-1 is a “dwarf star(矮星)” which is clder and shines dimmer than ur sun. If a persn were n ne f the seven planets, everything wuld lk a lt darker than usual. The amunt f light heading tward ur eyes wuld be abut 200 times less than we get frm the sun, accrding t The Independent.
Because f that, Trappist-1, tgether with many ther dwarf stars, was never n the list f places where scientists lked fr alien life. But Michael Gilln, lead researcher behind the discvery, decided t give dwarf stars a chance. He built a telescpe in Chile t bserve 60 f the clsest dwarf stars, and it turned ut that Trappist-1 was wrthy f the effrt.
The researchers hpe that they can spend mre time watching the newly fund planets t learn mre abut them. Even thugh mre research is needed befre determining whether these planets culd really supprt life, the discvery is still encuraging. It shws just hw many Earth-size planets culd be ut there.
“[The discvery] gives us a hint that finding a secnd Earth is nt just a matter f if, but when,” NASA scientist Thmas Zurbuchen tld The Telegraph.
66. What can be learned abut the new slar system frm the text?
A. It cntains a sun and planets like the Earth.
B. Seven planets mve arund Trappist-1.
C. Water can be fund n all f the planets.
D. There are aliens n the planets.
67. Why is this new planetary system amazing?
A. The size f the planets is similar t that f the Earth.
B. It has the same number f planets as ur slar system.
C. Scientists have fund alien life in the new slar system.
D. The planets are mre suitable fr humans t live than the Earth.
68. Why didn't ther scientists bserve dwarf stars?
A. It is impssible t find alien life n the planets f Trappist-1 and ther dwarf stars.
B. Scientists did nt find a gd place t bserve dwarf stars accrding t the passage.
C. Trappist-1 and ther dwarf stars dn't prvide as much heat and light as ur sun can.
D. Scientists have bserved dwarf stars, but they failed t find the pssibility f survival.
69. What des the underlined wrd “dimmer” mean?
A. Strnger B. Mre pwerful C. Less bright D. Less beautiful.
70. What is the main idea f this text?
A. Scientists have fund a secnd Earth.
B. Peple will mve t anther Earth sn.
C. Scientists are planning t explre anther planet.
D. A new slar system may becme hme fr humans.
第Ⅱ卷
注意事项:
1.用黑色墨水的钢笔或签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。
2.本卷共 11 小题,共 40 分。
第四部分:写作
第一节:单词拼写(共 5 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 5 分)
71. I can see hw much f my time had been _____ with checking my phne.
72. I knew there was a party happening that evening, but withut a_____ t scial media I culdn't remember where it was.
73. Edgar Snw was an American jurnalist wh wrte _____(有影响力的) bks abut China.
74. I am here t participate in the prgramme t _____(处理) this very prblem.
75. It's imprtant that we get a better understanding f and even learn t _____(欣赏) ur wild neighburs.
第二节:阅读表达(共 5 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 10 分)
阅读短文,按照题目要求用英语回答问题。
Many parents wh welcme the idea f turning ff the TV and spending mre time with the family are still wrried that withut TV they will cnstantly be n call as entertainers fr their children. They remember thinking up all srts f things t d when they were kids. But their wn kids seem different, less resurceful, smehw. When there's nthing t d, these parents bserve regretfully, their kids seem unable t cme up with anything t d besides turning n the TV.
One father, fr example, says. “When I was a kid, I was always thinking up things t d, prjects and games. We certainly never cmplained in an annying way t ur parents, 'I have nthing t d!'” He cmpares this with his wn children tday: “They're simply lazy. If smene desn't entertain them, they'll happily sit there watching TV all day.”
There is ne wrd fr this father's disappintment: unfair. It is as if he were disappinted in them fr nt reading Greek thugh they have never studied the language. He deplres his children's lack f inventiveness, as if the ability t play were smething innate(天生的)that his children are missing. In fact, while the tendency t play is built int the human species, the actual ability t play, t imagine, t invent and t gain fulfillment frm it are skills that have t be learned and develped.
Such disappintment, hwever, is nt nly unjust, it is als destructive. Sensing their parents' disappintment, children cme t believe that they are, indeed, lacking smething, and that this makes them less wrthy f admiratin and respect. Giving children the pprtunity t develp new resurces, t enlarge their hrizns and discver the pleasures f ding things n their wn is, n the ther hand, a way t help children develp a cnfident feeling abut themselves as capable and interesting peple.
76. Accrding t the passage, what are parents wrried abut if children are nt allwed t watch TV? (N mre than 15 wrds)
___________________________________________________________________________
77. What d many parents think their children shuld d withut TV? (N mre than 10 wrds)
___________________________________________________________________________
78. What des the underlined wrd “deplres” mean? (N mre than 5 wrds)
___________________________________________________________________________
79. Why shuld parents give children the pprtunity t develp new resurces? (N mre than 20 wrds)
___________________________________________________________________________
80. D yu agree that children shuldn't watch TV? Why? (N mre than 20 wrds)
___________________________________________________________________________
81. 假设你是晨光中学的学生李津。你校与美国友好学校通过网络展开跨文化交流活动。友好校的学生 Tm 邀请你就 2022 年北京冬奥会的主题口号(fficial mtt“) 一起向未来(Tgether fr a Shared Future)”谈谈看法,并在跨文化交流活动上发言。
(1)向 Tm 表示感谢;
(2)你对口号的理解(体现奥运精神、同享共创未来、中国发出邀请等);
(3)对 2022 年北京冬奥会表达祝愿。
注意:
(1)词数不少于 100;
(2)可适当加入细节,使内容充实、行文连贯;
(3)开头已给出,不计入总词数。
Hi Tm; Hi everyne,
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Thank yu.
2021~2022 学年度第一学期期末五校联考
高二英语参考答案
第一部分:听力(共两节,满分 15 分)
1-5 BACAA 6-10 CACAB 11-15 ABCBC
第二部分:英语知识运用 (共两节,满分 45 分)
第一节: 单项填空(共 15 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
16-20 ABCBA 21-25 DBDAC 26-30 ABACC
第二节: 完形填空(共 20 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 30 分)
31-35 BCDAC 36-40 DBACC 41-45 DCCBA 46-50 BBDBA
第三部分:阅读理解 (共 20 小题;每小题 2.5 分,满分 50 分)
51-55 CBADB 56-60 ACDBD 61-65 ABDBD 66-70 BACCD
第四部分:写作
第一节: 单词拼写(满分 5 分)
71.ccupied 72. access 73. influential 74. tackle 75. appreciate
第二节: 阅读表达(满分 10 分)
76. They will cnstantly be n call as entertainers fr their children./
Their children will cnstantly ask them t play with them.
77. They shuld think up things t d.
78. Criticizes/ shws disappintment in/ blames/feels srry fr/regrets/dislike/disapprve f
79. T help children develp a cnfident feeling abut themselves as capable and interesting peple.
80. Open
第三节: 作文(
25 分)
Hi Tm; Hi everyne,
It is such a delight fr me t jin in this nline discussin. And thanks fr the sincere invitatin f my friend Tm as well as his highly praise fr the fficial mtt f 2022 Beijing Winter Olympics.
Frm my perspective, the mtt “Tgether fr a Shared Future” thrws light n the cre values and visin f the Olympic. Making its way thrugh a histry f chas and war, the Olympics survived and thrived, thanks t its spirits f being tgether t pursue the faster, the higher and the strnger. Thus, this mtt can be regarded nt nly as an accurate illuminatin f the Olympic spirits, but als as a mst vivid prtrait f Chinese peple’s wishes t develp a cmmunity with shared future. Tday, s cnfident, pen and inclusive is China that it is sending this invitatin t the whle wrld t bring ut the best f this great cuntry.
In the end, I wish the 2022 Beijing Winter Olympics a cmplete success!
Thank yu.
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