山西省孝义市2021-2022学年七年级下学期期中英语试题（有答案）

这是一份山西省孝义市2021-2022学年七年级下学期期中英语试题（有答案），共10页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。


说明：1. 本试卷满分为 100 分，考试时间为 90 分钟。
2. 书写认真，字迹工整，答题规范，卷面整洁不扣分。否则，将酌情扣分， 书写与卷面扣分最多不得超 10 分。
听力部分（共 20 分）
一、情景反应（每小题 1 分，共 5 分）
本题共 5 个小题，每小题你将听到一句话。请你从每小题所给的 A、B、C 三幅图片中，选出与所听到的信息相关联的一项，并将其字母标号填入题前括号内。
（）1．A.B.C.
（）2．A.B.C.
（）3．A.B.C.
（）4．A.B.C.
（）5．A.B.C.
题 号
一
二
三
四
五
六
七
八
九
十
十一
书写与卷面
总分
等级
评价
得 分
二、对话理解（每小题 1 分，共 5 分）
本题共 5 个小题，每小题你将听到一组对话和一个问题。请你从每小题所给的
A、B、C 三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项，并将其字母标号填入题前括号内。
() 6. A. She can tell stries t them.B. She can play games with them.
C. She can teach them hw t use the Internet.
() 7. A. A bk.B. A flag.C. A clr.
() 8. A. Because it’s a lng trip.B. Because she can’t drive a car.
C. Because her grandparents’ hme is ld.
() 9. A. She is studying.B. She is listening t music.
C. She is eating in the hallway.
()10. A. In the supermarket.B. In the kitchen.C. In the living rm.
三、语篇理解（每小题 1 分，共 5 分）
本题你将听到一篇短文。请你根据短文内容和所提出的 5 个问题，从每小题所给的A、B、C 三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项，并将其字母标号填入题前括号内。( ) 11. Mary takes a shwer at .
A. 7:00B. 7:15C. 7:40
() 12. She t schl.
A. rides a bikeB. takes the busC. walks () 13. She has fr lunch.
A. milk and breadB. fruit and vegetablesC. ice-cream () 14. She jins the club at schl.
A. musicB. artC. sprts () 15. She takes a walk with her after dinner.
A. friendsB. brtherC. parents
四、听力填空（每小题 1 分，共 5 分）
本题你将听到一篇短文。请你根据所听内容，将获取的信息填到相应的位置上。每空一词。

Tm’s Family Rules
Keep healthy
Tm’s family play sprts fr 16. minutes every day.
Tm’s parents run every mrning.
Tm is in the schl 17. club.
Enjy the evening time
Evening time is very 18. fr the family.
They can’t watch TV r play cmputer games after dinner.
The family 19. sit n the sfa and talk.
Say “lve yu” and “thank yu”
The family 20. their lve and thanks all the time.
Tm says “I lve yu” t his parents every day.
When Tm helps his parents, they say “Thank yu”.
笔试部分（共 70 分）
五、单项选择（每小题 1 分，共 8 分）
请你从每小题所给的A、B、C 三个选项中，选出一个能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将其字母标号填入题前括号内。
() 21.—D yu knw the ? Teachers can’t use We Chat r QQ t give hmewrk.
—Yes, and they can’t take phnes t classrms, either.
A. stryB. ruleC. jb () 22.—Hi, Li Wen. Hw d yu speak English s well?
—I it with my classmates every mrning.
A. practiceB. fllwC. leave () 23.—Dn’t be , Sally. Yu need t clean yur rm nw.
—Srry, Mm. I’ll d it right nw.
A. lateB. shyC. lazy () 24.—D yu sing English sngs?
—N, I d that. I think it’s very difficult fr me.
A. alwaysB. smetimesC. never () 25.—Cindy, can yu cme t help me sme husewrk?
—Srry, Dad. I am ding my hmewrk.
A. withB. tC. fr () 26.—D yu want t g t the z n Saturday Sunday?
—On Sunday. Our schl has an art festival n Saturday.
A. andB. rC. but () 27.—Excuse me, I’m afraid I . Can yu help me?
—Sure. Let’s lk at the map first.
A. get dressedB. get lstC. get up () 28.—Mm, we have a math test tmrrw.
—
A. I’m nt sure.B. Sunds great.C. Gd luck!
六、补全对话（每小题 1 分，共 5 分）
下面是一段手机通话内容，请根据对话内容，从方框内所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将答案写在相应的位置上。选项中有两项为多余项。
Ms Hunt is a teacher. She’s talking with her student Li Yang n the phne.
Ms Hunt: Gd evening, Li Yang! This is Ms Hunt. Li Yang: Gd evening, Ms Hunt.
() Ms Hunt: Li Yang, 29
Li Yang: On Chngwen Street, Ms Hunt.
() Ms Hunt: 30
Li Yang: Abut 5 kilmeters.
Ms Hunt: Hw d yu get t schl every day?
() Li Yang: 31Smetimes I ride an electric (电的) bike.
Ms Hunt: Li Yang, students under 16 years ld can’t ride an electric bike. () Li Yang: 32Maybe I can ride a bike.
Ms Hunt: Hw lng des it take yu t g t schl by bike? Li Yang: Abut 15 minutes.
() Ms Hunt: OK. 33 Li Yang: I will, Ms Hunt.
Srry, Ms Hunt.
where d yu live?
When d yu g t schl?
I smetimes g t schl by bus.
Is it far frm yur hme t schl?
Remember t wear yur helmet (头盔).
Hw far is it frm yur hme t ur schl?
七、完形填空（每小题 1 分，共 8 分）
请阅读下面短文，理解其大意，然后从每小题所给的A、B、C 三个选项中， 选出一个能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将其字母标号填入题前括号内。
“It’s 7:20 a.m. nw. 34 , Dad! Please drive us t schl.” says Cathy.
“I am washing the car nw,” Mr. Brwn says. “Yu g t schl 35 this mrning. OK?”
“But the schl is a little 36 ,” says Betty.
“Walking is gd. Nw get yur schlbags 37 and g!”
Then Betty and Cathy walk t their schl unhappily. After half an hur, they get t schl.
In the evening, Betty and Cathy have a big dinner 38 their grandfather. They tell him they dn’t want t walk t schl. Grandpa says, “When I was a child, I walked five kilmeters t schl every day. It always tk me abut fifty 39 .”
“Really?” Betty says. “But I dn’t like walking.”
Grandpa says, “Children need exercise every day. It 40yur health.” “Oh, I’ll walk every day,” Cathy says. “I’d like t be healthy.”
“I will 41yu, Cathy,” says Betty. “OK. Let’s walk t and frm schl!”
八、阅读理解（42-46 小题每小题 1 分，47-60 小题每小题 2 分，共 25 分）
(A)
请阅读下面关于五个动物家庭的描述，将其与所给的图片相匹配，并将其字母标号填入题前括号内。其中有一项为多余选项。
There are many kinds f animals in the wrld. Let’s learn abut sme animal families. It’s interesting!
ABCDEF
( ) 42. Lk at the family. They cme frm Africa. The mther’s name is Lisa. Lisa has three kids. She lks fr fd fr them and they eat meat. They lk a little scary. Mst peple are afraid f them.
( ) 43. Lk! Three f them are in the picture. They are father, mther and sn. They’re frm Africa. They are black and white. And they’re very tall and beautiful. Their fd is grass. Nw they are eating.
( ) 44. The tw strng animals are mther and daughter. They cme frm Suth Africa. They are really big. They can always remember the ways and places with fd. They lve water and like playing with water.
( ) 45. This is a lvely family. They live in Antarctica (南极洲). They are black and
white. They’re parents and a kid, like mst f ur families. They eat fish. The mther lks fr fd and the father takes care f their kid. They’re very smart animals.
( ) 46. D yu knw the family? They are frm Australia. They are very strng. They dn’t walk. They jump. They can jump 74 kilmeters ne hur. They can run ver nine meters in ne jump! The baby is staying his mthers’ puches(育儿袋) t get milk and keep warm.
() 34. A. Have fun
() 35. A. by car
B. See yu
B. n ft
C. Cme n
C. by bike
() 36. A. far
B. dirty
C. terrible
() 37. A. easily
B. quickly
C. nisily
() 38. A. fr
B. abut
C. with
() 39. A. minutes
B. hurs
C. days
() 40. A. is gd at
B. is gd with
C. is gd fr
() 41. A. frget
B. jin
C. tell
(B)
I’m Sctt. My grandpa ges t hspital. Mum says he desn’t feel very well. We are very srry t hear that. Dad and Mum g t the hspital every day. My brther Mike and I g there n Saturdays. After a few days grandpa is a lt better. The dctr says he can g hme but it’s difficult fr him t live alne (独自). S Dad and Mum ask Grandpa t live with us. Mum can ck healthy dinner and wash clthes fr him every day. Grandpa likes playing chess. Dad can play chess with him. I can make the bed and clean Grandpa’s rm. Mike can sing and dance t make Grandpa happy. Tday, grandpa is ging t live with us. Mum asks me t mve t Mike’s rm. Then Mike helps me t take my things t his rm. Nw we can d hmewrk, play and g t bed tgether.
请阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项， 并将其字母标号填入题前括号内。
() 47. Why d Sctt’s mm and dad g t the hspital every day?
Because his grandpa is in hspital.
Because his mm and dad are dctrs.
Because his brther desn’t feel very well. () 48. What can Dad d t help Grandpa?
A. He can ck dinner fr Grandpa.B. He can play chess with Grandpa.
C. He can help clean Grandpa’s rm. () 49. Whse rm des Grandpa live in?
A. Mike’s rm.B. Sctt’s rm.C. Dad and Mm’s rm. () 50. What des the underlined (划线的) wrds “mve t” mean in Chinese?
A. 清理B. 装修C. 搬到
() 51. Which is TRUE (正确的)?
Grandpa is welcme in Sctt’s hme.
Grandpa lives alne after leaving hspital.
Grandpa can ck dinner and wash clthes himself.
(C)
I dn’t like rules. At hme my parents always ask me t d this and nt t d that. 在学校，我们也有许多规则 。 Sme f the rules are bring fr me. We have t be in the classrm five minutes befre the classes start. After class, we can’t talk ludly in the classrm. But it’s really difficult t keep quiet. My friends and I like t play basketball, but we can’t run at schl. I really dn’t knw why. I think ur schl rules are t strict.
请阅读下面短文，按要求完成所给任务，并将答案写在相应的位置上。
There are sme rules in my family. I think they are helpful. I always get up at 6:30. S I have much time t eat a gd breakfast. And I never arrive late fr schl. After dinner, I must d my hmewrk first. Because f that, I always d well at schl. And I must clean my rm and help my parents take care f my little sister n weekends. Nw I can ck sme easy fd. I can’t g ut at night. It’s very dangerus.
AndrewDaniel
Des Andrew like his family rules?
When des Andrew clean his rm?
Why desn’t Daniel like the schl rules?
Please translate the underlined sentence int English. (请将划线的句子翻译成英语)
Please write dwn ne rule at yur hme r schl.
九、语音（每小题 1 分，共 6 分）
请选出句子中画线字母或字母组合读音不同的选项，将其字母标号填入题前括号内。

() 57. The girl takes sme vegetables ut f the bag. ABC
() 58. The cat is crssing the center f the park.
ABC
() 59. We must cut hair and wear unifrms here.
ABC
() 60. The ld man with hat tells me the name f his village.
ABC
() 61. My 3-year-ld brther desn’t knw hw t take a shwer.
ABC
() 62. It’s a quarter past nine, and a by is playing the guitar in the park. ABC
十、词语运用（每小题 1 分，共 8 分）
theyseelifemissearlywritenisyteach
请根据语篇内容，用方框中所给词的正确形式填空，使短文通顺、连贯，并将答案填写在相应的位置上。每词限用一次。
Dear Mm and Dad,
It is my secnd mnth in Australia. Nw it is 5 p.m., and I 63 t yu. I think yu are sleeping.
Australia is a beautiful cuntry. But I dn’t like the 64 here. The huses are t cld in winter and t ht in summer. It gets dark ( 黑 暗 的 ) by 9 p.m. in summer. I 65 the lng summer nights in Beijing. I dn’t like the teachers here, either. 66 are very strict with me. Luckily, the hst family sister is nice. She smetimes 67 me t swim. Anther terrible thing is that I have t get up 68 . I can’t sleep at 5 a.m. Because abut a hundred birds sing utside my windw every mrning. They are very 69 .
I wish 70yu sn. Yur lving daughter, Alice
十一、书面表达（共 10 分）
Appearance (外貌)
一只熊猫
像一名航天员(astrnaut)
Abilities
会跳舞
会滑冰(skate)
能帮助人
冰墩墩（Bing Dwen Dwen）是 2022 年北京冬奥会吉祥物，奥运会期间它受到各国运动员和记者的喜欢。请你根据下面的提示，向大家介绍它吧！请将介绍内容规范地写在下面的四线三格中，可适当发挥。（词数 50 词左右）
Facts
它来自中国。
人们很喜欢它。
Descriptin wrds
可爱
聪明
友好
有点害羞
Bing Dwen Dwen
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
2021～2022 学年第二学期七年级期中质量监测试题英语参考答案
听力部分
一、情景反应 (每小题 1 分，共 5 分)
1-5 CBB C A
二、情景交际 (每小题 1 分，共 5 分) 6-10 C A A B B
三、语篇理解 (每小题 1 分，共 5 分) 11-15 B A BCC
四、听力填空 (每小题 1 分，共 5 分)
frty /4017. swimming18. imprtant19. usually20. shw
笔试部分
五、单项选择 (每小题 1 分，共 8 分)
21-25 B A C C A26-28 B B C
六、补全对话 (每小题 1 分，共 5 分) 29-33 B G DAF
七、完形填空 (每小题 1 分，共 8 分)
34-38 C B A B C39-41 A C B
八、阅读理解（42-46 小题每小题 1 分，47-60 小题每小题 2 分，共 25 分）
42-46 D F B C A
47-51 A B B C A
52. Yes, he des.
On weekends.
Because sme f the rules are bring fr him. / Because his schl rules are t strict.
At schl, we have many rules, t. / We als have many rules at schl.
略。
评分参考：
只要所给答案符合要求，且表述无误，即可得满分；如果所给答案符合要求， 但表述有误，以五个小题为单位，单词拼写累计三处扣 1 分，语法错误累计两处扣
1 分；如所给答案不符合要求，不可得分。56 小题答案不唯一。
九、语音（每小题 1 分，共 6 分）
57-62 B CCC A A
十、词语运用 (每小题 1 分，共 8 分)
63. am writing64. life65. miss66. They
67. teaches68. early69. nisy70. t see
十一、书面表达 (10 分)
评分参考：
本题总分为 10 分，按五个档次给分。评分时先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整本档次，最后给分。
评分时，应注意的重要内容为：
内容要求、所应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性；
单词拼写累计四处扣 1 分，语法错误累计两处扣 1 分；
词数不符合要求，从总分中酌情减去 1~2 分； 各档次的给分范围和要求:
9~10 分：能按要求适当发挥，内容丰富。应用了较丰富的语言结构和词汇， 用词准确、句子通顺、行文连贯、表达清楚，没有或有个别语言错误，具备较强的语言应用能力。
7~8 分：有一定的发挥，但内容欠丰富。应用的语言结构和词汇能满足任务要求，句子较通顺，表达较清楚，有少量语言错误。
5~6 分：内容不够丰富。语言表达简单，行文不够连贯，句子不够通顺，有部分语言错误。
3~4 分：所写内容过少。语言不规范，句子不条理，行文不连贯，语言错误较多。
0~2 分：所写内容与要求无关，内容杂乱，不知所云。语言很不通顺，用词很不准确，错误过多，几乎难以读懂。