2022年广西来宾市武宣县中考二模英语试题

这是一份2022年广西来宾市武宣县中考二模英语试题，共14页。试卷主要包含了听力测试，单项选择，完形填空，阅读理解，情景交际，综合填空，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。

第Ⅰ卷（共90分）
一、听力测试（共30小题，每小题1分，共30分）
（一）听句子，选图片。（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到五个句子，请在下列六幅图中，选出与所听句子内容相符的图片，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。每个句子读一遍。
1.________ 2.________ 3.________ 4.________ 5.________
（二）听句子，选答语。（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到五个句子，请根据句子内容，选择恰当的答语，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。每个句子读两遍。
( ) 6. A. It’s easy.B. It’s warm.C. It is Sun.
( ) 7. A. Never mind.B. I’m afraid nt.C. Of curse nt.
( ) 8. A. Fr five years.B. My father.C. In Shanghai.
( ) 9. A. Yes, there are.B. Yes, they are.C. Srry t hear that.
( ) 10. A. Gd idea.B. It’s my pleasure.C. All right.
（三）听对话，选择最佳答案。（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
你将听到三段对话，请根据对话内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。每段对话读两遍。
请听第一段对话，回答第11—13小题。
( ) 11. Which bus shuld the wman take?
A. N 2.B. N 12.C. N 20.
( ) 12. What des the wman think f the city?
A. Small and beautiful, but peple here are very friendly.
B. Big and beautiful, but the streets is s small that they are t crwded.
C. Big, beautiful but crwded in sme places.
( ) 13. Wh are the tw speakers?
A. A wman and a bus-driver.
B. A wman and a student.
C. A wman and a pliceman.
请听第二段对话，回答第14—16小题。
( ) 14. What is light fd?
A. Fd with a lt f meal.B. Fd withut any meat.C. Fd withut much meat.
( ) 15. What des the man think f Sichuan fd?
A. T ht.B. Delicius.C. Nt easy t get fat.
( ) 16. What kind f fd is Alice’s favurite?
A. Sichuan fd.B. Seafd.C. Light fd.
请听第三段对话，回答第17—20小题。
( ) 17. Where did the by g this mrning?
A. The library.B. The playgrund.C. The bkshp.
( ) 18. What did the by lse?
A. The grammar bk.B. The Chinese bk.C. The phne.
( ) 19. Wh sat next t the by?
A. Sarah.B. Emily.C. Betty.
( ) 20. What’s Sarah’s phne number?
A. It’s 550-0018.B. It’s 545-1480.C. It’s 558-8018.
（四）听短文，选择最佳答案。（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。短文读两遍。
( ) 21. Where is the shp?
A. Near the speaker’s schl.B. Near the speaker’s hme.C. Nt mentined (提及).
( ) 22. Hw much are the apples?
A. Twenty yuan a kil.B. Ten yuan a kil.C. Fifteen yuan a kil.
( ) 23. What can Yu nt buy in the shp?
A. Schl thingsB. Fd and drinkC. Clthes and shes
( ) 24. What des the bss lk like?
A. Tall and strng.B. Thin and tall.C. Strng and shrt.
( ) 25. Hw lng is the shp pen every day?
A. SixB. SevenC. Eleven
（五）听短文，填信息。（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，将所缺信息填入答题卡对应的横线上，每空一词。短文读两遍。
二、单项选择（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
从下列每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。
( ) 31. —What d yu think f ________ mvie The Battle at Lake Changjin?
—It is ________ exciting film. We all like it very much.
A. a; anB. a; theC. the; an
( ) 32. —Kate, my bk is in the living -rm. Culd yu please ________ it fr me?
—OK, dad.
A. bringB. fetchC. take
( ) 33. If there is ________ pllutin, the air in ur city will be ________ cleaner.
A. less; mreB. mre; muchC. less; much
( ) 34. Nt nly my parents but als I ________ ging t stay at hme this weekend.
A. amB. isC. are
( ) 35. —Must I finish the reprt nw?
—N, yu ________. Yu may have a rest first.
A. can’tB. needn’tC. mustn’t
( ) 36. The Silk Rad has been a bridge ________ the East and the West fr ver 2,000 years.
A. acrssB. amngC. between
( ) 37. Millie is ________ student that she can finish her hmewrk well.
A. SO a cleverB. a such cleverC. such a clever
( ) 38. —Beijing, the capital f China, ________ t hst the 2022 Winter Olympic successfully.
—We’re all lking frward t this great event.
A. expectB. expectedC. is expected
( ) 39. —What kind f nvels d yu like?
—Like many yung peple, I lve nvels ________ was written by Han Han.
A. thatB. whC. whse
( ) 40. —Yur skirt lks nice n yu. Culd yu please tell me ________?
—In Pingdudu.
A. where yu bught itB. where did yu buy itC. when yu bught it
三、完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。
Many peple like t watch TV when they want t relax themselves frm wrk. Sitcms (情景喜剧) are a ppular 41______.
Sitcms, r situatin cmedies, can make us 42______ ut lud. Maybe yu didn’t knw the wrd “sitcm” befre, but yu might have 43______ these shws like Friends, Hw I Met Yur Mther, and Mdern Family, r the Chinese shws I Lve My Family, Hme with kids, r My Own Swrdsman (《武林外传》). These are all sitems.
Sitcms ften take place in the same 44______, such as a living rm r an ffice. The plts (剧情) are ften abut the small prblems 45______ we run int in everyday life. Every character has a 46______ persnality. peple can’t help t 47______ when they talk t each ther.
Peple lve sitcms because they can turn hard situatins int 48______. The characters keep their sense f humr (幽默感), even when they’re having a bad day. They tell us that even when bad things 49______, we can laugh them ff and life 50______.
( ) 41. A. chseB. chiceC. decideD. decisin
( ) 42. A. sayB. tellC. talkD. laugh
( ) 43. A. heard fB. heard frmC. heard frD. heard ut
( ) 44. A. timeB. thingC. placeD. bk
( ) 45. A. whatB. thatC. whereD. why
( ) 46. A. especialB. especiallyC. specialD. specially
( ) 47. A. laughB. laughsC. laughedD. laughing
( ) 48. A. smething funnyB. funny smething
C. anything funnyD. funny anything
( ) 49. A. were happenedB. are happened
C. happenD. happened
( ) 50. A. is g nB. has gne nC. went nD. will g n
四、阅读理解（共20小题，51—55每小题1分，56—70每小题2分，共35分）
A
Here is a bttle f painkillers that are used t treat headaches, muscle pain r the cmmncld. Read the basic infrmatin n the medicine label.
根据短文内容，判断下列句子正误，正确的写“T”，错误的写“F”。
( ) 51. The underlined wrd “painkillers” means in Chinese “减肥药”.
( ) 52. Children aged ver 12 years can take the pills withut asking a dctr.
( ) 53. The medicine shuld be kept in a fridge.
( ) 54. Mre than 5 tablets in ttal are allwed t take in ne day.
( ) 55. The medicine can be taken fur times a day.
B
Sun Ruifeng, a mther in Beijing, changed sme f her plans fr her 8-year-ld sn’s summer vacatin. She lked fr an English tutring curse (辅导课程), but in the end, she had t change it t a swimming training class n August 6, 2021. Sun’s chice is part f the result f the gvernment’s grwing effrts t lighten the study pressure n yung students.
On July 24, 2021, the plicy f duble-lightening the burden carried ut. It is fr primary and junir high schl students. Fr example, hmewrk fr children belw the third grade is nt allwed, while hmewrk fr junir high schl students shuld take n lnger than 90 minutes t finish.
Accrding t the guideline, tutring institutins (辅导机构) cannt teach students n weekends, natinal hlidays r during winter and summer vacatins.
Accrding t Glbal Times, every year mre than 75 percent f Chinese children, frm Grade 1 t Grade 12, are studying in tutring prgrams. Hwever, sme training institutins take part in anxiety marketing, selling unnecessary prgrams that increase the burden n students. This has led t many scial prblems such as students’ falling levels f physical fitness, mre mental health prblems and huge family csts, said Chu Zhahui, a senir researcher with the Natinal Institute f Educatin Sciences.
Many parents shwed their supprt fr the new mves. “Subject learning is enugh at schl and we hpe t imprve the children’s quality f life during hlidays,” a parent in Guangzhu tld Xinhua.
Hwever, sme parents are very cncerns. A parent in Shanxi said that althugh she agreed with the new mves, she wrried abut what her sn wuld d after schl if bth parents have n time t be with him.
Accrding t the guideline, primary and middle schls are asked t ffer after-schl services, including hmewrk tutring, sprts, arts, reading and interest grups.
( ) 56. Why did Sun Ruifeng change a swimming training class instead f English fr her sn?
A. Because English is t difficult, her sn desn’t like it.
B. Because her sn likes swimming.
C. Because her sn is t yung t study English well.
D. Because the gvernment’s plicy f duble-lightening the burden.
( ) 57. When did the plicy f duble-lightening the burden carry ut?
A. On August 6, 2020B. On August 6, 2021
C. On July 24, 2020D. On July 24, 2021
( ) 58. Mre than ________ Chinese children wh frm primary schl t junir high schl jin Off-campus remedial. classes (校外辅导班).
A. 350%B. 50%C. 75%D. 90%
( ) 59. What d the underlined wrd “burden” in Paragraph Fur prbably mean?
A. 受伤B. 谋杀C. 负担D. 激励
( ) 60. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the passage?
A. All children in primary schl aren’t allwed t d hmewrk.
B. Hmewrk fr all students shuld take n lnger than 90 minutes t finish.
C. Many parents supprted the new mves.
D. A parent frm Guangzhu wrried abut what her sn didn’t knw t d after schl, if they have n time t be with him.
C
( ) 61. What messages are sme peple trying t send?
A. curage and help.B. Mney and fd.
C. Lve and care.D. Dctrs and nurses.
( ) 62. Hw many letter were wrte in Beijing?
A. 70B. 85C. 75D. 100
( ) 63. Hw were the letters shwn?
A. They were made int a shrt vides and shwn in the frm f sand painting.
B. They were sent t the patients by the pstmen.
C. The dctrs read the letters fr the patients.
D. They were made int a cllectin f CD and were listened t by the radi.
( ) 64. Where can peple pst their messages t the patients?
A. Peple can pst their messages t the patients n “Online Wish Wall”.
B. Peple can pst their messages t the patients n their mbile phne.
C. Peple can talk t the patients n the phne.
D. Peple can write their messages n “Online Wish Wall”.
( ) 65. What influence have the messages prduced n the patients?
A. They stpped the spread f COVID-19.
B. They made the patients feel happy and healthy.
C. Patients feel lnely and wrried
D. They helped the patients t cheer up.
D
Back in April 1939, Clumbia University Teachers Cllege prfessr Frank Cyr traveled arund ten state’s. He fund that students’ transprtatin was pr — many students had n dependable (可靠的) way t get t schl and sme f them ften tk the unsafe buses in the ver 100,000 schl areas. One f the huge differences in schl transprtatin that he saw was bus clr.
Then Cyr rganized a meeting — ne that wuld change the future f schl buses frever. Schl leaders and transprtatin specialists (专家) came tgether t set high standards fr buses, including clr, height, width (宽度) and safety rules that hadn’t been set befre r that were different by state (因州而异).
There were many different bus clrs in the United States befre this meeting, several areas even planned t have red, white, and blue buses as a way f encuraging students t lve their cuntry. Cyr shwed his new plans t educatin leaders, reprting “50 clrs frm lemn yellw t deep range-red”. The matter was slved quickly. Yellw was chsen because it culd be seen clearly and it made clear the big, black writing that wuld be n the side f each bus t stand fr its schl area. And they are imprtant parts fr buses that travel during early mrning and late afternn hurs. Clr has always been imprtant t ur daily life—check ut the reasn, ur traffic lights are red, yellw, and green. Thirty-five states made the changes in time, and every state was n bard (支持) by 1974.
Tday Frank Cyr is knwn as the “father f the yellw schl bus”. His “gift” has surely affected yur life if yu ever tk a schl bus r saw that familiar yellw bus pulling up (使停车) t yur stp n a dusky mrning.
根据短文内容，选择最佳选项，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。
( ) 66. What can we knw abut the students’ transprtatin frm Paragraph 1?
A. Frank Cyr fund that students’ transprtatin in the states was great.
B. Many students had a lt f dependable ways t get t schl.
C. Many students tk the safe buses in the ver 100,000 schl areas.
D. Bus clr was ne f the huge differences in schl transprtatin.
( ) 67. What wuld change the future f schl buses frever?
A. The traffic lights Cry made.B. The university Cyr set up.
C. The meeting Cyr rganized.D. The safety rules Cyr made.
( ) 68. What is the crrect rder t have yellw schl buses used widely frm the passage?
a. Every state was n bard by 1974.
b. Cyr shwed his new plans t educatin leaders.
c. Frank Cyr traveled arund ten states in the 1990s.
d. Schl leaders and transprtatin specialists came tgether.
A. c—d—b—a.B. c—b—a—d.C. b—a—c—d.D. b—c--d—a.
( ) 69. Why did they chse yellw fr schl buses?
A. Because it was much t beautiful t lk at.
B. Because it was chsen by fficials and specialists.
C. Because it culd encurage students t lve their cuntry.
D. Because it culd made schl buses seen mre clearly.
( ) 70. What is the main idea f the passage?
A. It mainly tells us the develpment histry f yellw schl bus.
B. Frank Cyr is knwn as the “father f the yellw schl bus”
C. It mainly tells us what the high standards fr schl buses are.
D. It mainly tell us why clr is imprtant in ur daily life.
五、情景交际（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
根据对话内容，从下面方框中选出恰当的句子补全对话，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。
A: I’m very glad t shw yu arund ur city—Nanning these days. Are yu satisfied with my service?
B: 71 I had a wnderful time here.
A: Nice t hear that. What d yu think f the peple here?
B: 72 When peple are crssing the rad, the drivers always stp the cars and wait.
A: Yes, we fllw the traffic rules well. What abut the city?
B: Oh, it’s beautiful and clean. 73 That’s great!
A: Thanks a lt. Is there anything else I can d fr yu?
B: Well, I want t buy a especial gift fr my sn. 74
A: Lk! The shp ver there, next t the flwer shp. There are all kinds f gifts in it.
B: 75 Thank yu very much!
A: My pleasure. Welcme t ur city again!
71.________ 72.________ 73.________ 74.________ 75.________
第Ⅱ卷（共30分）
六、综合填空（共20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
（一）单词拼写（每小题1分，共5分）
根据括号内所给的中文提示，正确拼写单词，并将答案填写在答题卡对应的横线上。
76. Daming is interested in maths and he want t be a ________ (科学家) in the future.
77. My ________ (梦想) is t be a excellent dctr like Zhng Nanshan.
78. Mr Li asked his students t finish the cmpsitin befre ________ (星期三).
79. The dctr let Amy pen his ________ (嘴巴), and checked her teeth.
80. Wuld yu please ________ (纠正) my prnunciatin when it is wrng?
（二）词形变换（每小题1分，共5分）随着科学和技术的发展，人民生活水平提高了许多根据句意，用括号中所给单词的正确形式填空，并将答案填写在答题卡对应的横线上。
81. He was s tired that he fell ________ (sleep) at nce.
82. Mr Black has dnated bld many times in his ________ (fifty).
83. La She was named the Peple’s ________ (Art).
84. With the ________ (develp) f science and technlgy, peple’s life has imprved a lt.
85. Their city is mre mdern and busier cmpare with ________ (we).
（三）选词填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
根据短文内容，从方框中选择恰当的单词填空，并将单词填写在下面的横线上。所有单词在填入前不需进行词形转换，每个单词只能用一次，每空一词。
Hw much shuld we walk each day?
Yu may have heard that walking 10,000 steps a day is gd fr yur health. But d we 86.____ need t walk this much t stay healthy?
In fact, dctrs have never said that ne 87.____ t walk 10,000 steps a day. An 88.____ fr a Japanese pedmeter (计步器) first suggested ding this 89.____ the 1960s. They hped that peple wuld walk 90.____ and buy their prducts.
Hwever, 91.____ 10,000 steps a day is definitely (肯定地) gd fr ne’s health, accrding t Live Science. It can help peple reduce their bld pressure and lse 92.____. But it is nt smething that everyne has t d. 93.____ yu can’t walk s many steps, yu dn’t need t.
US dctrs said peple shuld have tw and a half hurs f mderate (中等强度的) 94.____ a week, such 95.____ brisk walking (健步走；快走). One can als walk abut 7,000 t 8,000 steps a day. Everyne has t find what wrks fr them.
七、书面表达（共10分）
同学们，一日之计在于晨，如果我们每天早起一点点，就会有充足的时间安排一天的学习生活。早起是个好习惯，会给我们带来许多好处。请你根据下面图示，以“It's gd t get up early”为题，用英语写篇短文。
要求：1）短文需包含所有提示要点，并适当发挥；
2）80词左右，不包含已给出句子的词数；
3）文中不得出现真实人名与校名；
4）表达清楚，语句通顺，行文连贯，书写规范。
It’s gd t get up early
Getting up early is a gd habit. It’s gd fr us in many ways. ________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Frm nw n, try t get up early and enjy yur beautiful mrning.
2022来宾市武宜县中考模拟试卷（二）
英语参考答案
第一部分 听力（30分）
（一）听句子，选图片。（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到五个句子，请在下列六幅图中，选出与所听句子内容相符的图片，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。每个句子读一遍。
1. Dn’t talk ludly, my little sister is sleeping.
2. My family are ging t travel t Hainan by ship.
3. Paper cutting is a traditinal art in China.
4. I didn’t get up until 7:00 ’clck this mrning.
5. Thugh hamburgers are unhealthy, I like them very much.
1-5 BFEAC
（二）听句子，选答语。（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到五个句子，请根据句子内容，选择恰当的答语，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。每个句子读两遍。
6. What is the weather like in Nanning in winter?
7. Wuld yu mind if I keep it fr a week?
8. Where is this kind f bike made?
9. Are there any clthes shps in yur twn?
10. It’s very kind f yu t help me find my missing schlbag.
6-10 BCCAB
（三）听对话，选择最佳答案。（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
你将听到三段对话，请根据对话内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。每段对话读两遍。
请听第一段对话，回答第11—13小题。
W: Excuse me, I want t g t Haiyang Park. Which bus shuld I take?
M: N 12 bus. I think it will cme sn.
W: Thank yu. That’s very nice f yu.
M: Is this yur first time here?
W: N. I came here last Octber.
M: S what d yu think f ur city?
W: I like it. It’s big and beautiful. But I als think the traffic is t bad, and sme places are s crwded. By the way, are yu a student?
M: Yes, I’m a junir high schl student. Oh, yur bus is cming.
W: It’s really nice t talk with yu. Thanks a lt.
M: Yu’re welcme.
11-13 BCB
请听第二段对话，回答第14-16小题。
M: Alice, here is the menu. What’s yur favurite fd?
W: Let me see. Generally speaking, it’s gd t have light fd with less meat in it in summer.
M: Yes. Then what kind f fd d yu like in winter?
W: Ht fd, such as Sichuan fd.
M: Ww. Sichuan fd is t ht fr me. What d yu think f seafd?
W: Oh, seafd is gd. It desn’t make yu fat. I lve it all year rund.
M: Hw abut having sme seafd tday?
W: That’s a gd idea.
M: By the way, what d yu want t drink?
W: Beer, please.
14-16 CAB
请听第三段对话，回答第17-20小题。
M: Hey. Emily. I think I left my grammar bk in the playgrund this mrning. I think ne f ur classmates tk it. Uh, yeah, d yu have any f their phne numbers?
W: Yeah, wh d yu want t call?
M: Well, Betty was sitting next t me, s I’ll call her first. What is her number?
W: Hmm. Wait fr a minute. Oh, here it is. It’s 550-0018.
M: OK. Gt it. I’ll call her first. And uh, what abut Jack?
W: Yeah, it’s 545-1480.
M: Oh, OK. And, um, what’s her name? Yu knw the girl, um..
W: Which ne? Yu mean Sarah? Here’s her phne number. It’s 558-8018.
M: Ah, yeah, 8010. Gt it. Bye.
W: N, it is 8018.
17-20 BACC
（四）听短文，选择最佳答案。（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。短文读两遍。
Near my hme, there is a shp. It’s nt big. I can buy a lt f things n my way hme. Smetimes I buy schl things like exercise bks and pencils in it. They are very cheap. My mther ften buys fd and drink there. The apples in it are fifteen yuan a kil. I think they are a little expensive.
There are nly fur peple in the shp, three yung wman and an ld man. They are very friendly. But the bss f the shp is a 18-year-ld girl; she is a student. She lks tall and thin. The shp is clsed at 6:00 in the afternn and yu can’t buy anything befre 7:00 in the mrning.
21-25 BCCBC
（五）听短文，填信息。（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，将所缺信息填入答题卡对应的横线上，每空一词。短文读两遍。
Lear t d husewrk
Ding husewrk is gd fr us. First, it helps us learn and imprve life skills. Secnd, we can help ur parents by ding sme husewrk. S it’s necessary and imprtant.
Here are sme kinds f husewrk we can d in ur daily life, such as sweeping the flr, making the bed and cking sme meals. T keep ding husewrk, we shuld lve it at first. Then we need t get int the gd habit f ding husewrk. It’s a gd idea t make a plan abut ding husewrk. As a result, we can d it actively. Remember this: Dn’t be lazy. Just d a little husewrk every day.
26. imprve 27. parents 28. sweeping 29. gd 30. lazy
第二部分 笔试（90分）
二、单项选择（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
从下列每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。
31-35 CBCAB36-40 CCCAA
三、完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。
41-45 BDACB 46-50 CDACD
四、阅读理解（共20小题，51—55每小题1分，56—70每小题2分，共35分）
51-55 FTFFT56-60 DDCCC61-65 CBAAD66-70 DCADA
五、情景交际（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
根据对话内容，从下面方框中选出恰当的句子补全对话，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。
71-75 CDEAB
第Ⅱ卷（共30分）
六、综合填空（共20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
（一）单词拼写（每小题1分，共5分）
根据括号内所给的中文提示，正确拼写单词，并将答案填写在答题卡对应的横线上。
76. scientist 77. dream 78. Wednesday 79. muth 80. crrect
（二）词形变换（每小题1分，共5分）随着科学和技术的发展，人民生活水平提高了许多根据句意，用括号中所给单词的正确形式填空，并将答案填写在答题卡对应的横线上。
81. asleep 82. fifties 83. artist 84. develpment 85. urs
（三）选词填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
根据短文内容，从方框中选择恰当的单词填空，并将单词填写在下面的横线上。所有单词在填入前不需进行词形转换，每个单词只能用一次，每空一词。
86. really 87. needed 88. advertisement 89. in 90. mre 91. walking 92. weight 93. if
94. activities 95. as
七、书面表达（共10分）
It’s gd t get up early
Getting up early is a gd habit. It’s gd fr us in many ways. Firstly, we can have enugh time t plan a day. Secndly, ding exercise in the mrning is gd fr ur health. Als, breathing fresh mrning air helps bth ur bdy and ur mind s that we may feel active in the day. Thirdly, if we get up early, we can enjy a nice breakfast, which prvides us with enugh energy fr the mrning.
Finally, ur minds are clear in the mrning, s it’s a gd time t read English and we can remember new wrds r smething imprtant mre easily.
Frm nw n, try t get up early and enjy yur beautiful mrning.
A
B
C
D
E
F
Learn t d husewrk
It is gd fr us
It helps us learn and 26.______ life skills.
Help ur 27.______ by ding sme husewrk.
Sme kinds f husewrk
28.______ the flr, making the bed and cking sme meals.
T keep ding husewrk
Lve it at first.
Then we need t get int the 29.______ habit f ding husewrk.
Remember this
Dn’t be 30.______. Just d a little husewrk every day.
Warnings
Keep at rm temperature. If yu are pregnant r breastfeeding. ask a dctr befre use. If mre than tw tablets are taken at ne time, get medical help immediately.
Hw t take:
Fr adults and children 12 years f age and lder: take 1 tablet every 4 t 6 hurs. If pain is nt better, 2 tablets may be taken. DO nt take mre than 5 tablets in 24 hurs.
Fr children under 12 years f age, ask a dctr.
In the COVID-19 pandemic (新冠肺炎疫情), peple acrss the wrld are paying mre attentin t the health and happiness f each ther. Sme are trying t send messages f lve and care in different ways.
In China, an internatinal cmmunicatin prgram was started t send supprt t ther cuntries. It has cllected eighty-five letters written by students in Beijing t yung peple in pandemic-stricken (疫情重创下的) cuntries. They are full f lve and care. These letters were made int a cllectin f shrt vides called “A Letter t Friends”, They were shwn in the frm f sand painting.
It is reprted that many hspitals abrad refuse all visitrs t patients in rder t stp the spread f COVID-19. Patients feel lnely and wrried, s sme hspitals have created “Online Wish Wall” fr the public. Peple are welcme t pst their messages there t express their lve and care. S far, the hspitals have received a great deal f encuragement frm the public. The messages have helped the patients t cheer up withut their lved nes by their side.
The COVID-19 pandemic may make life difficult fr peple, but lve and care will make life better.
A. Where can I buy it?
B. OK, I will g there later.
C. Yes, yu did a gd jb.
D. They are friendly and plite.
E. The rubbish is divided int grups.
weight in really needed if as walking activities mre advertisement