湖南省永州市宁远县2021-2022学年七年级下学期期中质量监测英语试题（含答案）

这是一份湖南省永州市宁远县2021-2022学年七年级下学期期中质量监测英语试题（含答案），共10页。试卷主要包含了 B. $3，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。

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考号 姓名 学校 班级
宁远县2022年上期期中质量监测
七年级英语（试题卷）


温馨提示：
1．本试卷包括试题卷和答题卡，考试结束后，将试题卷和答题卡一并交回。
2．考生作答时，选择题和非选择题均须按答题卡中注意事项的要求答题，在试题卷上作答无效。
3． 本试卷满分120分，考试时量90分钟。由听力技能、阅读技能、知识运用和写作技能四个部分组成，其中听力材料朗读两遍。
4. 本试卷共8页。如有缺页，请申明。

第一部分 听力技能（共两节，满分20分）
第一节（共5分，每小题1分）听下面5段材料。每段材料后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案，并划或写在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
1. What animals does Peter like?

A. B. C.
2. What can Bob do?

A. B. C.
3. What are they talking about?

A. B. C.
4. How does Jane get to school?

A. B. C.

5. What time does Rick have breakfast?
A. B. C.

第二节（共15分，每小题1分）听下面6段材料，每段材料后各有几个小题，从各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
听第一段材料，回答第6~7小题。
6. Can Tony play baseball?
A. Yes, he can’t. B. Yes, he can. C. No, he can’t.
7. What club does Tony want to join?
A. Art club. B. Music club. C. Sports club.
听第二段材料，回答第8~9小题。
8. What time is it?
A. It’s 7:30 am B. It’s 6:30 pm. C. It’s 7:30 pm.
9. What is Bill doing?
A. He’s doing his homework.
B. He’s doing his housework.
C. He’ s reading a newspaper.
听第三段材料，回答第10~11小题。
10. What does Alice have to do?
A. She has to wear a hat.
B. She has to do her homework.
C. She has to wear a school uniform.
11. Can Alice eat in the dining hall?
A. Yes, she can. B. Yes, she does. C. No, she can’t.
听第四段材料，回答第12~14小题。
12. What day is tomorrow?
A. Friday. B. Saturday. C. Sunday.
13. Does Alan like koalas?
A. Yes, he can. B. No, he doesn’t . C. Yes, he does.
14. Why does Alan like them?
A. Because they’re friendly.
B. Because they’re smart.
C. Because they’re beautiful
听第五段材料，回答第15~17小题。
15. Is Amy’s home far from the library?
A. Yes, it is. B. No, it is. C. No, it isn’t.

16. How far is it from Amy’ s home to the library?
A. About 20 kilometers. B. About 22 kilometers. C. About 12 kilometers.
17. How long does it take Amy to get to the library by bus?
A. About 14 minutes. B. About 15 minutes. C. About 25 minutes.

听下面的独白，回答第18~20小题。
18. Where is Mrs. Brown from?
A. China. B. Australia. C. Africa.
19. Is Mrs. Brown good at swimming?
A. Yes, she is. B. No, she isn’t. C. Yes, she isn’t.
20.What does Dave like to do?
A. Dance. B. Swim. C. Play basketball.

第二部分 阅读技能（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 阅读选择（共40分，每小题2分）阅读下面的材料，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳答案，并在答题卡上将该编号字母涂黑。
(A)
Jane's Day

A.M.
7:40-8:10
Go to work by subway
8:30-11:50
Sell clothes

P.M.

12:00-1:00
Have lunch
1:10-5:00
Sell clothes
5:30-6:30
Play the violin in a misic club
6:35-7:00
Go home by bike
21. How does Jane go to work?
A. By car. B. By bike. C. By subway.
22.What is Jane doing at 6:00 p.m.?
A. Having dinner. B. Playing the violin. C. Playing the guitar.

Hi,I'm Bruce. I'm from South Africa. I'm good at sports and I can run very fast. Many people are afraid of me because I look scary.

Hello,I'm Peter. I'm from Thailand. I'm friendly. Do you want to make friends with me? I can play soccer with you. I'm good at it.

I'm Buzz. I'm from Australia,but now I live in a zoo in the USA. I'm shy and quiet. I like listening to music. And I can dance.

(B)
23. What is Bruce good at?
A. Art. B. Music. C. Sports.
24. What is Peter like?
A. Shy. B. Scary. C. Friendly.
25 . The three animals don't tell us_ .
A. how old they are B. what they can do C. what they are like

(C)
Hi! I'm Susan. At school, we can't arrive late for class. Punctuality is important.We can’t use phones in class. But we can read storybooks after class.
I have English and Chinese classes at school. I like our Chinese teacher, Mr. Smith. His classes are interesting. Mrs. Black is our English teacher, and she is strict. In her elass. we must speak English, and we can't use a dictionary.
My parents are really nice. I can eat in my room. But I must keep my room clean. I can watch TV on school nights, but I must go to bed early. On weekends, I usually go out to play with my friends.
26.文中划线单词“Punctuality”的中字意思是“ ”。
A. 守时 B. 守信 C. 诚实
27. Susan thinks her Chinese classes are .
A. useful B. difficult C. interesting
28. Mrs. Black asks the students not to .
A. talk in class
B. use a dictionary in class
C. read storybooks after class
29. What family rule does Susan have to follow?
A. Go to bed early.
B. Don't eat in her room.
C. Don’t watch TV on school nights.
30.On weekends,Susan and her friends usually .
A. read books B. play outside C. talk on the phone
(D)

Dear Miss Wang，
My name is Simon．I am good at my lessons in my new school．But I have no friends here．I always spend the school day on my own(独自)．I feel very lonely．Can you help me?
I am the only child in my family．I have no brother or sister．My parents have no time to stay with me．I often see other students in our class to go to school together．And they chat(聊天) with their friends happily after lunch。They also do after-school activities together．But I have no friends to talk with me. I want to make friends with my new classmates．But I just don’t know how to have fun with them．
Can you tell me what I should do? Thank you very much!
Yours，
Simon
31. How does Simon spend the school day?
A. Chatting with his friends．
B. On his own．
C. Playing with brothers．
32. The word “lonely” means “________” in Chinese．
A. 疲倦的 B. 伤心的 C. 孤单的
33. Which of the following is true?
A. He isn’t good at his lessons
B. He has no brother or sister．
C. His parents are not busy．
34. What do Simon’s classmates NOT do together?
A. Going to school． B. Chatting after lunch． C. Going to the movies.
35. Why does Simon write this letter to Miss Wang?
A. To tell her his family． B. To tell her his school． C. To ask her for help．

(E)
Come and see the Indian elephants and the new tigers from America．The bears(熊)are waiting to meet you，and the monkeys from China are waiting to throw things at you．The lovely dogs from Australia are waiting to laugh at you，and the giraffes from Africa are waiting to look down on you.
Tickets：
Grown—ups（成年人）：$2
Children：Over 12，$1
Under 12：Free
Opening time：
Monday—Friday：10：00 a．m．一3：OO p．m．
Saturday and Sunday 9：00 a．m．一4：00 p．m．
Keep the zoo clean!
Do not touch，give food or go near the animals．
36. How many kinds of animals are there in the passage?
A. Four． B. Five． C. Six．
37. Now Mr．Smith is in the zoo with his two sons,one is 14 and the other is l0, how much are the tickets together?
A. $4． B. $3． C. $2．
38. Which is the visiting time?
A. 8：30 am Monday． B. 9：30 am Friday. C. 3：00 pm Sunday．
39. From the passage we can guess the animal“giraffe”must be very ________
A. tall B. long C. strong
40. Which can we do in the zoo?
A. To give some food to the animals．
B. To go near the animals．
C. To take many nice photos．

第二节 阅读匹配（共10分，每小题2分）阅读下面的短文，从所给的A～F六个选项中，选出正确的答案填空，使短文通顺，内容完整，并在答题卡上将该编号字母涂黑，其中选项中有一项是多余的。
My name is Kate. 41. I think these rules are important for me. At home, I can't play computer games for more than(超过)half an hour. I think it is good for my study(学习) because I can have more time to study. I must make the bed after I get up. And I must clean my room every day.42. My mother says keeping the room tidy is good for my health.
I study at Fuxing Middle School. At our school, we also have some rules. 43.______ So we must arrive at school on time. We must get to school before half past seven in the morning. We need to wear the school uniform every day. In class, we have to be quiet. We can't listen to music. 44. We must eat in the dining hall. After class, we can't run in the hallways.
Do you have rules in your life? 45.

A. We have to follow these rules.
B. There are many rules in my life.
C. Tell me about it.
D. We can't be late for school.
E. We can't eat in class.
F. So my bedroom is always clean and tidy.
第三部分 知识运用（共两节，满分20分）
第一节 词语填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）通读下面的短文，掌握其大意，然后从各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案，并在答题卡上将该编号字母涂黑。
Chris is 12 years old. He  46   in a village in China. The school in his village is not far   47   his home, so Chris often goes to school on foot (步行). Chris usually gets up at about 7:00 in the morning. It is not  48  . So he has a quick breakfast. He  49    home at about 7:50. It takes him about 10 minutes to   50   to school. He gets to school at about   51   o’clock. Sometimes Chris rides his bike to school. School starts at 8:10. His favorite subject is math. He thinks numbers are   52  . Chris has a   53  . He hopes (希望) to go to a big city like Beijing some day (某一天). So he can take the subway. “I   54   take the subway. It must be really fun,” he says. Can his dream   55  ? “Sure, it can,” says Chris.
46. A. lives B. works C. teaches          
47. A. on  B. in C. from                
48. A. late B. early  C. bad                  
49. A. goes B. comes  C. leaves              
50. A. take B. ride C. walk
51. A. six B. eight C. nine             
52. A. quick B. right C. interesting      
53. A. habit B. bridge  C. dream              
54. A. never B. often C. usually              
55. A. have fun B. come true  C. have time         


第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）阅读下面的材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（限1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式，使句子通顺完整。
56. Can your brother ________ (play) basketball?
57. I brush my (tooth) every day.
58.______ ______ (not come) to the zoo at 6 o'clock, please.59. (hundred) of people come to the old village every month.
60. John is never late school.
61. How long does it take you______ ______(walk) to the bus station?
62. I like pandas they’re really cute.
63. He often (relax) for a while after dinner.
64. – does Molly get to the library? – By bike.
65. –What are Tim and Jack doing? – They _____(use) the computer in the study(书房).

第四部分 写作技能（共三节，满分30分）
第一节 回答问题（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）阅读下面的短文，然后根据短文内容回答问题，并将答案填写在答题卡上对应题号的横线上。
The Smiths live at 87 King Street. .In the morning, Mr. Smith goes to work and the children go to school. Their father takes them to school every day .Mrs. Smith stays at home every day. She does the housework(做家务事). She always eats her lunch at noon. In the afternoon, she usually sees her friends. They often drink tea together. In the evening, the children come home from school. They arrive home early. Mr. Smith comes home from work. He arrives home late. At night, the children always do their homework, then they go to bed. Mr. Smith usually reads his newspaper, but sometimes he and his wife（妻子）watch TV.
66. Where do the Smiths live?

67. What does Mrs. Smith do every day?

68. Who does Mrs. Smith see in the afternoon?

69. Do the children arrive home early?

70. What do the children often do at night?


第二节 语篇翻译（共4小题；每小题2分，满分8分）阅读下面的短文，然后将画横线的句子译成汉语或英语，并将答案填写在答题卡上对应题号的横线上。
My friend is Bill.71. He is from Australia.He lives in Sydney.He can speak English.72.他也会说中文。Bill’s favorite sport is basketball and he plays basketball after school every day. It’s very easy for him to play basketball.He is in the school basketball club.He has a pen pal in the United States. Her name is Lisa and she lives in New York. Lisa's favorite sport is baseball.She can't play the guitar.73. But she is good at telling stories.She likes chess a lot.74.她想要加入国际象棋俱乐部。
71.
72.
73.
74.

第三节 书面表达（1个大题，满分12分）
动物是我们人类的好朋友。我们应该与它们和谐相处。作为一名中学生，我们应该学会善待身边的小动物。请大家以“My Favorite Animal”为题，写一篇文章。提示词必须用上，可适当发挥。字数为80词左右。
提示词： Pangpang panda really smart from China can dance also walk on two legs do kong fu can’t sing swim either like because friendly kind of shy live Beijing Zoo

My Favorite Animal












2022年上期期中质量监测
七年级英语参考答案

第一部分 听力技能（20分）
1-5 BAABA 6-10 CBCAC 11-15 ABCCA 16-20 ABBCC
第二部分 阅读技能 （50分，每小题2分）
21-25 CBCCA 26-30 ACBAB 31-35 BCBCC
36-40 CBCAC 41-45 BFDEC
第三部分 知识运用（20分，每小题1分）
46-50 ACBCC 51-55 BCCAB
56. play 57. teeth 58. Don't come 59. Hundreds 60. for
61. to walk 62. because 63. relaxes 64.How 65. are using

第四部分 写作技能（30分，每小题2分）
第一节 回答问题
66. At 87 King Street.
67. She does the housework.
68. Her friends.
69. Yes, they do.
70. They always do their homework.

第二节 语篇翻译
71. 他来自澳大利亚。
72. He can also speak Chinese./He can speak Chinese,too.
73. 但是她擅长于讲故事。
74. She wants to join the chess club.

第三节 书面表达（12分）
(略）

评分细则

评分标准
1．客观题（选择题）第1~20小题，第46~55小题，每小题1分；第21~45小题，每小题2分。
评分说明：只选唯一正确答案才给分；多选、错选、不选、涂改不清的答案均不给分。
2．主观题（非选择题）第56～65小题（语法填空），每小题1分，满分10分；第66～70小题（回答问题），每小题2分，满分10分；第71～74小题（语篇翻译），每小题2分，满分8分；第75小题（书面表达），满分12分。
评分说明：
（1）语法填空（第56～65小题）：全对记1分；个别单词错误，漏写或多写单词，记0分。
（2）回答问题（第66～70小题）：全对记2分；个别单词错误，漏写或多写单词，有不符合英语表达习惯的省略结构，记1分；不写或有一半以上错误或全错，记0分。
（3）语篇翻译（第71～74小题）：①英译汉：中文信息完全一致，记2分；中文信息个别错误或残缺或多余，记1分；有不影响理解的中文错别字不扣分；中文信息有一半以上错误或全错或不写 ，记0分。②汉译英：全对记2分；个别单词错误，记1分；漏写或多写单词，记1分；句子整体结构性错误或有一半以上错误或全错或不写，记0分。
75．书面表达：（12分）
第一档：（10-12分）
完全符合题目要求，完成了试题规定的任务，覆盖所有内容要点，准确使用丰富的词汇和语言结构。语言通顺，语意连贯，具有逻辑性。全文结构紧凑，有效地使用了语句间的连接成份，符合英语交际习惯，允许有个别语言错误。
第二档：（7-9分）
完全完成了试题规定的任务，覆盖所有内容要点。恰当使用较丰富的词汇和语言结构，适当运用了语句间的连接成份，较好地达到了交际的目的。语言基本通顺，有少量语言错误，但不影响整体理解。
第三档：（3-6分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务，未能覆盖所有内容要点。词汇和语言结构不能完全满足写作任务的要求。文章不够连贯，影响对写作内容的理解。
第四档：（0-2分）
未完成试题规定的任务，漏掉较多内容要点或写的内容与规定任务无关。词汇和语言结构错误较多，内容不连贯，无法传达有效信息。
a. 无词或有主题不相关的语句，记0分。
b. 无可读句，但有较多与主题相关词汇，记1～3分。
c. 有可读句，但有较多不影响理解的错误，记4～6分。
d. 基本可读，主题明确，有部分不影响理解的错误，记7～9分。
e. 语句完整，意思连贯，主题明确，语法正确，字数足够，句式多样，记10～12分。
f. 没有达到规定词数，或书写潦草、涂改且看不清楚的，酌情扣1～2分。