2021武汉钢城四中高一下学期期中考试英语试卷含答案

这是一份2021武汉钢城四中高一下学期期中考试英语试卷含答案，共11页。试卷主要包含了5分，满分7等内容，欢迎下载使用。

钢城四中2020—2021（下）期中考试试卷
第一部分　听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. How will the speakers go to the cinema?
A. By bus. B. By bike.  C. On foot.
2.  Why didn't the man do well in the competition?
A. He was tired. B. He was thirsty. C. He was hungry.
3.  Where is the boy's book now?
A. In his school bag. B. On his desk. C. On his bed.
4. What are the speakers talking about in general?
A. A quiz. B. A magazine. C. An advertisement. 
5. What does the woman think of her new neighbors?
A. They are noisy. B. They are unfriendly. C. They are untidy.
第二节(共15小题;每小题15分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、 B、 C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。
6.  How long is Mabel's Cafe open?
  A. For 7 hours. B. For 9 hours.   C. For 10 hours.
7.  Where is Mabel's Cafe?
  A. Beside the Windsor Diner.
  B. Opposite Garden underground station.
  C. Next to Pyramids Mexican Restaurant.
听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。
8. What does the new editor think the speakers should do?
A. Have fewer meetings.
B. Balance work and family life.
C. Have more freedom to choose subjects.
9. How has the work of journalists changed over years?
A. They are more likely to express their own views.
B. They find it easier to check the truth of the stories.
C. They treat the reporting of news stories more seriously.

听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. Where does the conversation probably take place?
  A. At home. B. At a clinic. C. At a chemist's.
11. What problem does the woman have?
  A. She has a headache. B. She has an earache. C. She has a sore throat.
12. What will the woman do? 
A. See a dentist. B. Ask for some medicine.  C. Make an appointment with Mr. Brown.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13.  For whom is the party held?
A. Jane. B. Tom. C. Tom's sister.
14. At what time does the party start?
A.7:15. B. 8:00. C.12:30.
15. What does the man suggest the girl do?
  A. Ask Jane's dad for a ride.  B. Watch a film together. C. Invite some friends home.
16. What is the girl going to do next?
  A. Visit her cousins. B. Telephone Jane. C. Study at home.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. Where is the Britain at War Experience?
  A. At Westminster.
B. A short walk from Tooley Street.
C. Near London Bridge main-line station.
18. What was Churchill War Rooms used for during the wartime?
A. A living place for Churchill and his family.
B. A hiding place for Churchill and his government.
C. A working place for Churchill to have meetings. 
19. What did the speaker do in St. James's Park?
  A. He went boating on the lake.
B. He took photos of the scenery.
C. He spent some time on a bridge. 
20. What can we learn about the speaker?
 A. He visited some places free of charge.
B. He failed to visit Buckingham Palace.
C. He spent £14.50 for the entry to the attractions.

第二部分　阅读理解(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
POETRY CHALLENGE
Write a poem about how courage, determination, and strength have helped you face challenges in your life.
Prizes
3 Grand Prizes: Trip to Washington, D.C. for each of three winners, a parent and one other person of the winner’s choice. Trip includes round-trip air tickets, hotel stay for two nights, and tours of the National Air and Space Museum and the office of National Geographic World.
6 First Prizes: The book Sky Pioneer: A Photobiography of Amelia Earhart signed by author Corinne Szabo and pilot Linda Finch.
50 Honorable Mentions: Judges will choose up to 50 honorable mention winners, who will each receive a T-shirt in memory of Earhart’s final flight.
Rules
Follow all rules carefully to prevent disqualification.
■ Write a poem using 100 words or fewer. Your poem can be any format, any number of lines.
■ Write by hand or type on a single sheet of paper. You may use both the front and back of the paper.
■ On the same sheet of paper, write or type your name, address, telephone number, and birth date.
■ Mail your entry to us by October 31 this year.

21. How many people can each grand prize winner take on the free trip?
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Six.
22. What will each of the honorable mention winners get?
A. A plane ticket.
B. A special T-shirt.
C. A book by Corinne Szabo.
D. A photo of Amelia Earhart.
23. Which of the following will result in disqualification?
A. Typing your poem out.
B. Mailing your entry on October 30.
C. Using both sides of the paper.
D. Writing a poem of 120 words.

B
I first met Paul Newman in 1968, when George Roy Hill, the director of Butch Cassidy and the Sundance Kid, introduced us in New York City. When the studio didn’t want me for the film — it wanted somebody as well known as Paul — he stood up for me. I don’t know how many people would have done that; they would have listened to their agents or the studio powers.
The friendship that grew out of the experience of making that film and The Sting four years later had its root in the fact that although there was an age difference, we both came from a tradition of theater and live TV. We were respectful of craft（技艺）and focused on digging into the characters we were going to play. Both of us had the qualities and virtues that are typical of American actors: humorous, aggressive, and making fun of each other — but always with an underlying affection. Those were also at the core（核心）of our relationship off the screen.
We shared the belief that if you’re fortunate enough to have success, you should put something back - he with his Newman’s Own food and his Hole in the Wall camps for kids who are seriously ill, and me with Sundance and the institute and the festival. Paul and I didn’t see each other all that regularly, but sharing that brought us together. We supported each other financially and by showing up at events.
I last saw him a few months ago. He’d been in and out of the hospital. He and I both knew what the deal was, and we didn’t talk about it. Ours was a relationship that didn’t need a lot of words.

24. Why was the studio unwilling to give the role to author at first?
A. Paul Newman wanted it.
B. The studio powers didn’t like his agent.
C. He wasn’t famous enough.
D. The director recommended someone else.
25. Why did Paul and the author have a lasting friendship?
A. They have similar features.
B. They worked in the same theater.
C. They were both good actors.
D. They were of the same age.
26. What does the underlined word “that” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Their success.
B. Their care for children.
C. Their belief.
D. Their support for each other.
27. What is the author’s purpose in writing the text?
A. To show his love of films. B. To share his acting experience.
C. To introduce a new movie. D. To remember a friend.

C
In the mid-1990s, Tom Bissell taught English as a volunteer in Uzbekistan. He left after seven months, physically broken and having lost his mind. A few years later, still attracted to the country, he returned to Uzbekistan to write an article about the disappearance of the Aral Sea.
His visit, however, ended up involving a lot more than that. Hence this book, Chasing the Sea: Lost Among the Ghosts of Empire in Central Asia, which talks about a road trip from Tashkent to Karakalpakstan, where millions of lives have been destroyed by the slow drying up of the sea. It is the story of an American travelling to a strange land, and of the people he meets on his way: Rustam, his translator, a lovely 24-year-old who picked up his colorful English in California, Oleg and Natasha, his hosts in Tashkent, and a string of foreign aid workers.
This is a quick look at life in Uzbekistan, made of friendliness and warmth, but also its darker side of society. In Samarkand, Mr Bissell admires the architectural wonders, while on his way to Bukhara he gets a taste of police methods when suspected of drug dealing. In Ferghana, he attends a mountain funeral (葬礼) followed by a strange drinking party. And in Karakalpakstan, he is saddened by the dust storms, diseases and fishing boats stuck miles from the sea.
Mr Bissell skillfully organizes historical insights and cultural references, making his tale a well-rounded picture of Uzbekistan, seen from Western eyes. His judgment and references are decidedly American, as well as his delicate stomach. As the author explains, this is neither a travel nor a history book, or even a piece of reportage. Whatever it is, the result is a fine and vivid description of the purest of Central Asian traditions.

28. What made Mr Bissell return to Uzbekistan?
A. His friends’ invitation.
B. His interest in the country.
C. His love for teaching.
D. His desire to regain health.
29. What does the underlined word “that” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Writing an article about the Aral Sea.
B. Taking a guided tour in Central Asia.
C. Working as a volunteer in Uzbekistan.
D. Developing a serious mental disease.
30. Which of the following best describes Mr Bissell’s road trip in Uzbekistan?
A. Romantic. B. Dangerous.
C. Pleasant. D. Eventful.
31. What is the purpose of this text?
A. To explain a cultural phenomenon.
B. To introduce a book.
C. To remember a writer.
D. To recommend a travel destination.
D
Teens and younger children are reading a lot less for fun, according to a Common Sense Media report published Monday.
While the decline over the past decade is steep for teen readers, some data in the report shows that reading remains a big part of many children’s lives, and indicates how parents might help encourage more reading.
According to the report’s key findings, “the proportion (比例) who say they ‘hardly ever’ read for fun has gone from 8 percent of 13-year-olds and 9 percent of 17-year-olds in 1984 to 22 percent and 27 percent respectively today.”
The report data shows that pleasure reading levels for younger children, ages 2 — 8, remain largely the same. But the amount of time spent in reading each session has declined, from closer to an hour or more to closer to a half hour per session.
When it comes to technology and reading, the report does little to counsel(建议) parents looking for data about the effect of e-readers and tablets on reading. It does point out that many parents still limit electronic reading, mainly due to concerns about increased screen time.
The most hopeful data shared in the report shows clear evidence of parents serving as examples and important guides for their kids when it comes to reading. Data shows that kids and teens who do read frequently, compared to infrequent readers, have more books in the home, more books purchased for them, parents who read more often, and parents who set aside time for them to read.
As the end of school approaches, and school vacation reading lists loom(逼近) ahead, parents might take this chance to step in and make their own summer reading list and plan a family trip to the library or bookstore.

32. What is the Common Sense Media report probably about?
A. Children’s reading habits. B. Quality of children’s books.
C. Children’s after-class activities. D. Parent-child relationships.
33. Where can you find the data that best supports “ children are reading a lot less for fun ” ?
A. In paragraph 2 B. In paragraph 3.
C. In paragraph 4. D. In paragraph 5.
34. Why do many parents limit electronic reading?
A. E-books are of poor quality. B. It could be a waste of time.
C. It may harm children’s health. D. E-readers are expensive.
35. How should parents encourage their children to read more?
A. Act as role models for them. B. Ask then to write book reports.
C. Set up reading groups for them. D. Talk with their reading class teachers.


第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Build your own first aid kit
Emergencies can happen anytime, anywhere, so being prepared for one is important. Having a proper first aid kit in your home is an easy but essential part of good emergency preparation. 36 Instead of getting such one, you can save money and ensure the kit is personalized to suit you and your family’s particular needs by creating your own.
Pick a good container. One good choice is a large, water-resistant, rigid (坚硬的) or flexible plastic container. This makes the materials inside visible for easy identification and safe. 37 A handle is ideal out of consideration for that. Regardless of your container choice, clearly identify it — for example, by writing “FIRST AID” with a permanent marker.
38 One should include all of your basic medical supplies, such as bandages (绷带), gloves and scissors, while the second one includes medicine. Make sure that the important basic medical tools and medicines are contained in it. 39 However, when it comes to bandages, wipes and other lightweight items, the more the merrier. And remember that everything is kept in small sealed plastic bags.
40 When one of your family is crying about a cut on her finger, you don’t want your home kit buried at the back of a cupboard or lost because it’s not being returned to the same spot after each use. Establish a clearly-defined, consistent spot for it. Let small children know where the kit is located, but place it where they cannot reach it.

A. Make your first aid kit safely accessible.
B. Separate the first aid kit into two sections.
C. The ready-made first aid kits in the store are usually expensive.
D. The kit should be easy to transport as needed to the emergency.
E. The number of each item will depend on the size of your family.
F. Having several first aid kits means you can get one of them anytime.
G. First aid kits on the market often lack what you want or have something useless for you.

第三部分　语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Two years ago，my friend and I were at college. With his birthday quickly 41 ，he came to me with an unusual 42 : instead of receiving presents, he wanted to do some acts of kindness.
I was 43 with his idea and asked him how he came up with such a 44 idea. He told me about a TED talk he had watched on generosity, which had 45 him. So we started to 46__ creative things we could do.
Our university employed some security guards to 47 its students. They have to work 48 ，keeping watch on every corner throughout the university. For the most part it's a thankless job as most people grow 49 to seeing the guards around and eventually 50 notice their presence，let alone acknowledging their efforts. How could we show them our appreciation?
We decided to hire a car and ask the driver to take us around the campus where we knew the _51_ would be and we poured them each a cup of hot chocolate. We met with many 52 and appreciative words. It was amazing to see how a 53 act or even an intention of generosity can lift everyone’s spirits.
I now realize that special energy is created when you choose to think bigger than yourself and act in 54 of others. You’ll find it's actually the greatest 55 you’ve never get，especially when it’s your birthday.
41. A. ending B. passing C. advancing D. approaching
42. A. order B. request C. problem D. story
43. A. struck B. blessed C. burdened D. bored
44. A. complex B. novel C. familiar D. traditional
45. A. controlled B. supported C. inspired D. awarded
46. A. plan out B. take over C. watch for D. hold back
47. A. judge B. help C. monitor D. protect
48. A. step by step B. around the clock C. more or less D. now and then
49. A. addicted B. devoted C. attached D. accustomed
50. A. barely B. just C. always D. generally
51. A. workers B. students C. guards D. drivers
52. A. friends B. difficulties C. greetings D. smiles
53. A. similar B. small C. daily D. modest
54. A. service B. place C. charge D. memory
55. A. lesson B. attention C. gift D. care

第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Decorating with Plants, Fruits and Flowers for Chinese New Year
Chinese New Year is a 56 (celebrate) marking the end of the winter season and the beginning of spring. This is why decorating with plants, fruits and flowers 57 (carry) special significance. They represent the earth 58 (come) back to life and best wishes for new beginnings.
These are some of the most popular in many parts of the country:
Oranges: Orange trees are more 59 decoration; they are a symbol of good fortune and wealth. They make great gifts and you see them many times 60 (decorate) with red envelopes and messages of good fortune.
Bamboo: Chinese love their “Lucky Bamboo” plants and you will see them often in their homes and offices. 61 (certain) during the holiday period, this plant is a must. Bamboo plants are related 62 health, abundance and a happy home. They are easy 63 (care) for and make great presents.
Branches of Plum Blossoms (梅花): The 64 (beauty) long branches covered with pink-colored buds (蓓蕾) make fantastic decorations. The plum trees are 65 first to flower even as the snow is melting(融化). They represent the promise of spring and a renewal of life.

第四部分　写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节 (满分15分)
假定你是李华，作为一名交换生正在伦敦学习，听说你所在学校将成立学生足球队，你想要加入，请你根据以下要点给负责人 Mr. Smith写一封信:
1. 写信目的；
2. 个人优势及申请理由；
3. 表达期待。
注意：1. 词数80词左右；
2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。

第二节 (满分25分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
One pleasant New Year morning, Edward rose, washed and dressed himself very quickly. He wanted to be the first to wish everyone a happy New Year. He looked in every room, and shouted the words of welcome. He ran into the street to repeat them to those he might meet. When he came back, his father gave him two bright new silver dollars. His face lighted up as he took them. He had wished for a long time to buy some pretty books that he had seen at the bookstore.
He left the house with a light heart, intending to buy the books. As he ran down the street, he saw a poor German family, the father, the mother, and three children shivering (发抖) with cold.
“I wish you a happy New Year,” said Edward, as he was happily passing by. The man shook his head. “You do not belong to this country?” said Edward. The man again shook his head, for he could not understand or speak the English language. But he pointed to his mouth, and to the children, as if to say, “These little ones have had nothing to eat for a long time.” Edward quickly understood that these poor people were in a very difficult situation and required some help. He took out his dollars, and gave one to the man, and the other to his wife.
How their eyes sparkled (闪耀) with gratitude! They said something in their language, which doubtless meant, “We thank you a thousand times, and will remember you in our prayers.”
When Edward came home, his father asked what book he had bought. He hung his head a moment, but quickly looked up. “I have bought no books,” said he, “I gave my money to some poor people, who seemed to be very hungry.”
注意：
1. 续写词数应为150左右。
2. 续写部分分为两段，每段的开头语已经为你写好.
Paragraph 1: “I think I can wait for my books till next New Year, ” continued he.




Paragraph 2: The next day, Edward was stopped by his father.







2020-2021学年度下学期期中考试高一英语答案

一．听力
1-5 CABAC 6-10 BACAB 11-15 BACBA 16-20 BCBCA
二．阅读
A篇 ABD B篇 CACD C篇 BADB D篇 ABCA
七选五 GDBEA
C. 完形
41-45 DBABC 46-50 ADBDA 51-55 CDBAC
D. 语法填空
56. celebration 57. carries 58. coming 59. than 60. decorated
61. Certainly 62. to 63. to care 64. beautiful 65. the
E. 作文
第一节
Dear Mr. Smith,
I’m Li Hua, an exchange student from China. Knowing that a football team will be set up in your school, I can’t wait to join it.
Initially, I am good at playing football and have participated in many football matches in my country. Besides, I can also get a good chance to make more friends in the football team. What’s more, playing football will improve my confidence and develop my team spirit, which is very important to my future.
I would be grateful if you could take my application into account. I’m looking forward to your early reply.
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua

第二节
Paragraph1:
“I think I can wait for my books till next New Year,” continued he. His father looked at him with a blank look. “What happened, my son?” Edward explained, “I saw a poor German family with three young children who were in great need of help. They were hungry and didn't have enough clothes to wear. I just couldn’t walk away without helping them.” Hearing this, Edward’s father felt proud of his son. In fact, he couldn't agree more with Edward. “You are a good boy. Never can we turn a blind eye to those in need. What you have done will make a happy New Year." his father said.
Paragraph 2:
The next day, Edward was stopped by his father. “I have a present for you, my boy.” “Oh, my goodness! It’s the pretty books that I loved. Thank you, Dad!” Edward’s face lighted up and he couldn’t help jumping happily. Holding the books in his arms, Edward felt he was the happiest boy in the world. He hugged his father and gave him a big kiss. A few days later, Edward met the poor German family again, and they still thanked him a thousand times. He understood the sweetness of helping others.