2022年湖北省武汉市江汉区中考英语模拟试卷(二)（无听力含答案）

这是一份2022年湖北省武汉市江汉区中考英语模拟试卷(二)（无听力含答案），共15页。试卷主要包含了听力测试，选择填空，完形填空，阅读理解，词与短语填空，阅读理解填词，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。

第I卷 (选择题共85分)
第一部分听力部分
一、听力测试 (共三节)
第一节 (共4小题，每小题1分，满分4分)
听下面4个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. Once a week. B. Once. C. Three.
2. A. On May 30th. B. At schl. C. Teenagers.
3. A. A Bing DwenDwen. B. The day befre yesterday. C. Kind f exciting.
4. A. They’re funny. B. In China. C. 2 miles.
第二节 (共8小题，每小题1分，满分8分)
听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来作答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
5. What are the tw speakers talking abut?
A. Eating habits. B. Favrite fruits. C. Table manners.
6. Where is the man ging?
A. A service center. B. A supermarket. C. A pst ffice.
7. What des Mike like nw?
A. Singing. B. Dancing. C. Drawing.
8. Hw ften des Lucy eat dumplings fr dinner?
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
9. Where will Mr. Green g n vacatin?
A. Singapre. B. Malaysia. C. China.
10. When is Jenny’s birthday?
A. On August 9th. B. On August 10th. C. On August 11th.
11. Hw will the man help the wman?
A. By lking fr the key. B. By carrying the bag. C. By pening the dr.
12. What is the relatinship between the speakers?
A. A cuple. B. Teacher and student. C. Bss and wrker.
第三节 (共13小题，每小题1分，满分13分)
听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答13至15三个小题。
13. Where des the cnversatin prbably take place?
A. In the htel. B. In the shp. C. At hme.
14. What time des the dining rm clse?
A. At11: 30p. m. B. At11: 00p. m. C. At10: 30p. m.
15. What will the man d next?
A. Buy smething t eat. B. Call Rm Service. C. G t a restaurant.
听下面一段对话，回答16至18三个小题。
16. What prblem des the man have?
A. He has put n much weight.
B. He has nt been sleeping well.
C. He has truble with his cmputer screen.
17. What is the wrst abut the wman’s jb?
A. The lng wrking hurs. B. The changeable schedule. C. The great stress.
18. Where will the speakers g this weekend?
A. T a park. B. T a muntain. C. T a gym.
听下面一段对话，回答19至22三个小题
19. Hw did the man feel at first?
A. Angry. B. Cld. C. Surprised.
20. Hw des the man usually exercise?
A. By bicycling. B. By playing sccer. C. By jgging.
21. Where des the man usually d exercise?
A. In the schl. B. In the park. C. In the gym.
22. What will the speakers prbably d next?
A. Study tgether. B. G t the gym. C. Shw their mves.
一2听下面一段独白，回答23至25三个小题。
23. Hw lng will the activity last?
A. Nine mnths. B. Six mnths. C. Fur mnths.
24. Hw much d the tickets cst fr an adult and a kid?
A. $12. B. $18. C. $20.
25. When des the Wild West shw end?
A. At 4: 30 p. m. n weekends. B. At 4: 00 p. m. every day. C. At 2: 00 a. m. n weekdays.
第二部分笔试部分
二、选择填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。将代表该答案的字母在答题卡上相应的位置涂黑。
26. —I’m afraid yu have the wrng number.
— __________. I hpe I didn’t bther yu.
A. Excuse me B. I’m srry C. Of curse D. Thank yu
27. —The cncert starts at 8: 30, and we can have a quick bite befre we g.
—__________. See yu at 8: 10.
A. I hpe s B. Never mind C. Sunds nice D. See yu then
28. —Are yu sure yu’re ready fr the entrance examinatin?
—__________. I’m well prepared fr it.
A. Nthing much B. It’s nthingC. N way D. N prblem
29. Because f the rapid develpment f subway, Wuhan __________ a lt in the last ten years.
A. changed B. changes C. has changedD. will change
30. —I think we are suppsed t shw ur health cde first befre entering.
—I __________. That’s very imprtant nw.
A. agree B. agreed C. will agree D. had agreed
31. A large number f freigners frm different cuntries __________ n the streets f Chang’anduring the Tang Dynasty.
A. wuld be fund B. has been fund C. is fund D. culd be fund
32. Only __________ hard wrk can we make ur dreams cme true.
A. abve B. acrss C. belw D. thrugh
33. —The __________ f living is much higher nw than it was befre.
—I can’t agree mre.
A. value B. price C. cst D. wrth
34. —Which d yu like?
—Neither. I think they’re __________ ugly.
A. all B. either C. nne D. bth
35. —Wu didn’t shw up at yesterday’s meeting. Did yu knw that?
—Yeah. He used his wife’s birthday as a __________ excuse fr nt ging t the meeting.
A. prper B. usual C. available D. cnvenient
36. —It’s nt easy t get a jb. What can I d in an interview?
—Yu need t __________ yurself better.
A. keep B. present C. dress D. press
37. —Can I pay the bill by check?
—Srry, but it is the rule f ur restaurant that payment __________ be made in cash.
A. need B. will C. shall D. can
38. —What d yu think f the by wh is talented in music?
—Very intelligent. And I knw his best music was __________ by the memry f his mther.
A. inspired B. impressed C. intrduced D. invited
39. —Can we finish the task this mrning?
—Nt yet. Yu culdn’t predict everything. Often things dn’t __________ as yu expect.
A. run ut B. break ut C. wrk ut D. find ut
40. —Excuse me. I wnder if yu culd tell me __________.
—Sure. It will stp fr 15minutes.
A. when the train arrived at the statin B. where can I find the ticket t Shanghai
C. hw lng the train will stay at the statin D. why the train will arrive at the statin
三、完形填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四各选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
Steph was lking at Instagram. There were blessed yga phts and Sunday Breakfast pictures. She saw phts f fresh bread and cffee with 41 in the milk.
On the ther 42 f the city, Matt was ding the 43 thing. His Instagram was full f FitBdy gym selfies (自拍) and beach life hliday phts.
Steph put sme flwers next t her breakfast and tk a pht f it. Her eggs and cffee were cld nw, but the plate lked 44 . The plate was frm an expensive art market. She had ‘ 45 ’ the flwers frm her neighbr’s garden. 46 nly ten peple a day walked past ld Mrs. Rbinsn’s garden. Flwers are fr everyne t 47 , aren’t they? She thught. If she put the picture n Instagram, mre peple wuld see the flwers. Steph changed the clurs n her picture t make the range juice mre range and the pink rses 48 . She was 49 an Instagram filter (滤镜) when she nticed TrueBeauty. She had dwnladed it the day befre and then 50 abut it. Her picture lked 51 with that filter. She psted the pht fr her 15k fllwers. She hped sme f them wuld feel jealus f her life. Then she 52 the fd n her plate int the bin. She didn’t want t eat it nw that it was cld.
Matt was ready t give up. He had 53 fr an hur and he had put cking il n his skin s that it wuld lk shiny. But the phts still didn’t lk gd. He nly wanted t be fit s that he culd put phts n scial media. He lked at his Instagram again. He hped t see sme ideas he culd 54 . Then he nticed an ad fr TrueBeauty. “Pictures as beautiful as yu are. See the 55 yu with TrueBeauty. Available in yur app stre fr ￡0. Because true beauty is free.”
41. A. bubble B. hearts C. smell D. sugar
42. A. end B. area C. side D. part
43. A. same B. similar C. cmmn D. different
44. A. fair B. well C. gd D. fine
45. A. lent B. brrwed C. brke D. bught
46. A. Gradually B. Prbably C. Finally D. Accidentally
47. A. share B. smell C. enjy D. see
48. A. brighter B. redder C. bigger D. smaller
49. A. thinking B. changing C. chsing D. making
50. A. regretted B. wrried C. satisfied D. frgtten
51. A. beautiful B. perfect C. meaningful D. hpeful
52. A. put B. threw C. placed D. cut
53. A. carried ut B. set ut C. wrked ut D. run ut
54. A. learn B. feel C. study D. cpy
55. A. specialB. real C. cute D. best
四、阅读理解 (共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料，从每题所给A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳选项。
A
Over the past year, COVID-19 has frced peple t give up mst f their travel plans. Nw in a wrld with scial distancing and limited flights, what will travel be like? Airbnb, a US-based hme-sharing cmpany, has used surveys t predict trends (预测趋势).
56. What is Airbnb accrding t the passage?
A. A traveling cmpany. B. An airline cmpany.
C. A car-sharing cmpany. D. A hme-sharing cmpany.
57. All the news abve has smething t d with __________.
A. plan B. travel C. lifestyle D. envirnment
58. The best heading f the first news wuld be __________.
A. Traveling t suburban areasB. Mving t the cuntryside
C. Getting back t nature D. Taking a clser vacatin
59. Which city will peple wh have the chance t wrk frm anywhere bk n Airbnb?
A. Munt Wuyi. B. Hangzhu. C. Shanghai. D. Beijing.
60. Why will Pd travel becme a trend?
A. Because peple can stay safe.
B. Because peple want t be ppular.
C. Because peple want t be different.
D. Because peple lve scializing with thers.
B
It was last January, when I’d just finished a charity and was n the train back hme, that I put dwn my phne and started writing thank-yu ntes t peple wh had helped.
When I gt ff the train, I felt amazingly gd. The next day, I wrte mre thank-yus and the same feeling f happiness hit me again. I suddenly had the idea: Why nt keep n ding this fr every day f the year?
T keep n task, I decided t pick ut a different theme fr each mnth. January was charity. February wuld be neighbrs, I decided. And I thught f a number f names right away: the wner f ur lcal bkstre, wh let me and my little sn in befre the stre pened and ffered t play his favrite sngs; ur babysitter, wh drpped ff a bag f ld bard games fr ur kids t play; …
While writing the ntes, I realized hw ften I had spent my time n the phne mving frm app t app, appreciating ther peple’s lives. Writing thank-yu ntes allwed me the time t d smething different, paying mre attentin t my wn life.
In the fllwing mnths, I wrte t my friends, dctrs, teachers and parenting rle mdels. In July, my “fd” mnth, I wrte t Julie, wh used t ck at my favrite restaurant. It went like this:
Dear Julie,
I’ve been finding myself missing yu lately. Thank yu fr hsting and cking beautiful and thughtful fd. Jake and I will never frget when yu sent ut biscuits shaped int the number VI fr ur sixth anniversary (周年纪念日). We talk abut it every year.
Thank yu. We miss yu.
Lve,
Gina
I was happy t receive a nte back frm her. Julie replied, “I dn’t think I’ve ever received such a tuching letter befre. I’m ging thrugh a hard time right nw, and this helps.”
On December 31, I wrte my last card t Jake, my husband, and ur tw kids. And I tk a picture f us, s I culd remember the feeling welling up inside me. Gratitude.
61. The underlined wrd “this” in Paragraph 2 means __________.
A. writing thank-yu ntes B. putting the phne away
C. taking the train back hme D. raising mney fr charity
62. Hw did Julie mst prbably feel after reading the nte frm Gina?
A. Shy and surprised. B. Pleased and relaxed.
C. Nervus and excited. D. Mved and encuraged.
63. The theme f the December ntes might be __________.
A. phts B. family C. hlidays D. cmmunity
64. What did Gina get by ding her task accrding t the passage?
A. Many thanks frm her neighbrs.
B. Mre time t appreciate her wn life.
C. Mre help frm peple arund her.
D. Happy mments t be with her friends.
65. We can infer that the writer’s writing purpse is t __________.
A. remember t be thankful
B. recall an amazing trip
C. share the happiness with thers
D. remind sme imprtant peple in ur life
C
My challenge fr yu is this: t read a bk fr 15 minutes every single day fr a mnth.
Let me explain a bit, by telling yu where the challenge came frm. I have many things in cmmn with my dad, like music taste and sense f humr, but sadly reading isn’t ne f them. I can happily spend a whle day with a bk, but my dad can’t read a bk fr lnger than abut 5 minutes. He reads emails, websites and papers fr wrk, but nt bks. He’s busy s I think sitting dwn t read fr just 15 minutes a day is a gd way t relax and t intrduce him t reading.
My dad is by n means the nly persn wh avids bks. I knw lts f peple wuld rather relax n their cmputers r in frnt f the TV. Everyne is different and has their wn interests, but I think there’re lts f benefits t reading, which screen-based activities dn’t have.
Firstly, it’s better fr yur eyes. Lking at screens can be very stressful fr yur eye muscles, and clearly yu shuld avid lking at screens fr an hur befre bed, t get a gdnight’s sleep.
One thing I persnally lve reading, is being transprted t anther wrld--I wuld ften frget the time r things arund me! Reading is a great way t switch ff befre yu g t bed, because yu think mre abut the wrld f the bk, rather than the real wrld, s yu can truly relax. I knw yu can be transprted t a different wrld in a film r a TV shw, but I think bks d it better.
I als enjy hearing what peple are ding and finding ut what they think. Reading gives me the chance t get t knw hundreds f new peple! It als teaches yu t see things frm ther peple’s pint f view, and understand ther peple’s decisins r pinins. With a bk, yu can hear everything a character is thinking r feeling--yu really can be inside smene else’s head!
S give it a g! Take 15 minutes when yu’re waking up, ging t bed, eating t much, r having a cffee. If yu read a lt, why nt try 15 minutes f an English bk, r pass the challenge n t smene else? Gd luck, and happy reading!
66. The authr gives the example f his father in the text t shw __________.
A. his father is very busy
B. reading is very imprtant t us
C. his father likes reading
D. many peple have n habit f reading
67. The authr writes the text mainly basing n __________.
A. his persnal experience
B. sme scientific experiments
C. his father’s persnal advice
D. knwledge frm bks
68. The authr lves reading because it can __________.
A. help readers sleep well.
B. make readers feel relaxed
C. transprt readers t a different wrld.
D. remind readers f the real wrld.
69. What’s the authr’s attitude t reading?
A. Stressful. B. Uncertain. C. Supprtive. D. Dubtful.
70. What wuld be the best title fr the passage?
A. Tips fr Reading English Bks
B. 15-Minute Reading Challenge
C. Having a Cffee While Yu Read
D. Ways t Imprve Reading Skills
第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题共35分)
五、词与短语填空 (共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
thirsty / prducts / wn / called in / spread / mved / came in
仔细阅读下面五个句子，然后用下面方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使每个句子在结构、句义和逻辑上正确。 (提示：方框中有二个单词或短语是多余的。)
71. One day, a dctr and a nurse were __________ t examine the queen.
72. What he did t help the ld in the cmmunity these days especially __________ me.
73. China has great experience in making high-tech __________ that peple can buy here and there.
74. As a child, he was s full f energy and __________ fr knwledge.
75. At last Tm __________ a prize frm the Sciety and felt very excited.
六、阅读理解填词 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
Having lived in Israel (以色列) fr three years, I’m impressed with the way they wait in line and play by the r__________ (76).
Whether yu are at the bank, the pst ffice r the bus stp, yu’ll always find a straight line f peple waiting p__________ (77). Sme are drinking cffee and sme are chatting. They almst enjy queuing and take the c__________ (78) t relax a little.
Peple here think rder is very imprtant. I nce saw a yung man try t jump the queue, but an ld Israel man shuted t stp him and thers j__________ (79) in. The pr guy was s ashamed that he left as fast as he culd.
T Israelis, making sure rules are fllwed is everyne’s b__________ (80).
One day, I had t pick up a friend at the airprt. I was in a hurry, and I ran t__________ (81) a yellw light n my way. The mment I arrived at the airprt, an Israeli lady r__________ (82) dwn her car windw and tld me, “Yu can’t drive like that. Rules are s__________ (83) t ensure bth yur wn and thers’ safety. Please bey the rules next time.” I realized she had been fllwing me fr s__________ (84) miles just t tell me this!
This was burned int my mind, and nw when I see a traffic light c__________ (85) t yellw, I stp the car and take a mment t relax.
七、书面表达 (本题共15分)
保护环境，从我们身边的小事做起。Wang Lin是一个注重”低碳”生活的中学生，假设你是他，请以”“My Lw-carbn Life”为题，简单描述自己的”低碳生活”。
内容要点如下：
1. 每天步行或骑自行车上学，不坐公交车；
2. 离开教室时，关灯、电视等；
3. 不用水时，记得关水龙头，循环使用；
4. 充分使用纸张，不使用塑料袋；
5. 就此话题补充1-2点个人做法。
注意：
1. 文中不得透露个人姓名和学校名称；
2. 内容连贯，不逐条翻译；
3. 词数60-80，标题已给出，不计总词数。
参考词汇：reuse重复使用，make full use f充分利用，plastic bag塑料袋
My Lw-carbn Life
It’s imprtant fr us t live a lw-carbn life t prtect the envirnment. _____________________________
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江汉区2022年中考英语
模拟试卷 (二) 参考答案
一、听力测试 (共25分，每小题1分)
1-5 AAABC 6-10 BCACB 11-15 BCACB16-20 ACBCB 21-25 BABBA
二、选择填空 (共15分，每小题1分)
26-30 BCDCA31-35 DDCDD36-40 BCACC
三、完形填空 (共15分，每小题1分)
41-45 BCACB46-50 BCACD51-55 BBCDB
四、阅读理解 (共30分，每小题2分)
56-60 DBCAA61-65 ADBBA66-70 DABCB
五、词与短语填空 (共10分，每小题2分)
71. called in72. mved 73. prducts 74. thirsty 75. wn
六、阅读理解填词 (共10分，每小题1分)
76. rules 77. patiently 78. chance 79. jined 80. business
81. thrugh 82. rlled 83. set 84. several 85. change
七、书面表达 (本大题15分) (One Pssible Versin)
It’s imprtant fr us t live a lw-carbn life t prtect the envirnment.
I g t schl n ft r by bike instead f taking the bus every day. I always remember t turn ff the lights and the TV when I leave the classrm. When I am nt using water, I always turn ff the tap. I ften reuse water, fr example, when I finish washing the clthes, I use the water t clean the flr and water flwers. I never use plastic bags. I think saving paper is necessary, s I ften make full use f paper.
2022年中考英语
模拟试卷 (二) 听力稿
一、听力测试 (共三节) 第一节 (共4小题，每小题1分，满分4分)
听下面4个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. Hw ften d yu g t the library?
2. When is the spring schl trip?
3. What d yu want fr yur birthday?
4. Where were the rbts made?
第二节 (共8小题，每小题1分，满分8分)
听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有1秒钟的时间来作答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍
5.
W: Steve, dn’t stick yur chpsticks int yur bwl. It’s implite.
M: Oh, srry, I wn’t.
6.
M: Excuse me, can yu tell me where I can buy sme medicine?
W: Yes. There’s a supermarket in this shpping center.
7.
W: Mike, did yu use t like singing r dancing?
M: Singing, but nw I enjy drawing.
8.
M: What d yu usually have fr dinner, Lucy?
W: I usually have rice and vegetables. But n Friday I usually have dumplings instead f rice.
9.
W: Where will yu g next vacatin, Mr. Green?
M: My friends suggest Singapre r Malaysia, but I plan t g t China.
10.
M: My birthday is n August 9th. What abut yu?
W: It’s n August 11th. And Jenny’s birthday is n August 10th.
11.
W: I’m lking fr the key t the dr. Culd yu please carry the bag fr me?
M: OK. N prblem.
12
W: I’m srry I’m late fr wrk, Mr. Smith, because my alarm clck didn’t wrk this mrning.
M: This is nt the first time that yu’ve been late.
第三节 (共13小题，每小题1分，满分13分)
听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第13至15三个小题。
W: Can I help yu?
M: Yeah, hi. This is Rm 327. I need smething t eat. I’m hungry. Is yur dining rm still pen?
W: I’m srry, sir. It’s 11 ’clck nw. The dining rm clsed half an hur ag.
M: Oh, n, I really verslept. Well, d yu knw where I can get sme dinner?
W: Just call Rm Service at extensin 121. Yu can rder a light meal frm them. They’ll send it up t yur rm.
M: OK, thanks. I’ll give them a call.
听下面一段对话，回答第16至18三个小题。
M: Yu knw what, I have nticed that I’m 40 punds heavier. That’s terrible.
W: Our jbs require us t be in frnt f cmputer screens fr lng wrkdays.
M: It’s said the average ffice wrker sits in the ffice fr abut 10 hurs.
W: It’s s bad, but t me, the wrst part is that I dn’t knw hw t reduce the pressure frm my wrk. I just can’t fall asleep all night.
M: It’s time t change. What abut finding time t wrk ut in the gym?
W: Well, I prefer utdr exercise, such as running in a park, and climbing in a muntain area.
M: All right. Let’s g climbing this weekend.
听下面一段对话，回答第19至22三个小题。
M: Linda, why are yu dancing? I thught we had t study fr ur math test!
W: Oh, hi, Drake! I was just ding sme exercise. I thught yu wuldn’t get here until later. Let me turn the music ff.
M: Yu exercise by dancing? I thught things like jgging and bicycling were cnsidered exercise.
W: Well, thse are ther gd ways t wrk ut, but I like t dance. D yu like t dance?
M: I smetimes dance at parties, but I am nt a very gd dancer. Fr exercise, I prefer playing sccer. I hpe t make the sccer team in the fall.
W: Cl! I knw yu like t g t the park n the weekends and play sccer. If yu teach me sme f yur sccer mves, I’ll teach yu sme dance mves! Hw des that sund?
M: It’s a deal. If there weren’t the math test tmrrw, we culd definitely g t the gym right nw.
W: Right. N mre fun and games. Let me get my ntebk.
听下面一段独白，回答第23至25三个小题。
Hey, there, cwbys and cwgirls, fr a real exciting day in the Wild West, cme t Cactus City Wild West Park. Yes, bring the children alng t see a real ld-time pineering twn. Sht guns and ride hrses dwn the rad. We’re pen April thrugh September, seven days a week frm 10 a. m. t sundwn. Only twelve dllars fr adults and six dllars fr children. Or buy a family ticket at 24 dllars. What’s mre, every Saturday and Sunday we have a real Wild West shw. Perfrmances start at 2 p. m. and last fr tw and a half hurs. That’s well wrth the mney. There are free buses t the park thrughut the day every Saturday and Sunday frm Cactus City Center. There’s a lt f fun waiting fr all the families at the Cactus City Wild West Park.
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In China, 76 percent f thse surveyed want t “travel t suburban (近郊的) areas” r even “mve t the cuntryside” in the cming year. In the US, 62 percent expressed interest in taking a vacatin that is clser t hme in a mre natural envirnment, such as a tree huse r cttage (乡间小屋).
Remte (远程的) wrking and traveling
Because f COVID-19, remte wrking and schling became a lifestyle fr many peple in 2020. Airbnb says this will blur (模糊) the line between wrking and traveling.
On Airbnb, peple wh have the chance t wrk frm anywhere are actively bking lnger stays (tw week-plus trips). They prefer small-t-mid-size cities with natural envirnments and mre pen spaces. In China, 64 percent f peple are cnsidering “ging t a new place t live and wrk remtely”, r “traveling while n a business trip”.
Staying mre cnnected
Pd travel, in which peple chse t travel tgether as a family r a grup f friends, will becme a trend. This way, peple can stay safe and reduce the risk f scializing with thers.
On Airbnb, mre than half f the trips that are being planned fr 2021 include three r mre travelers.