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    2022年四川省广安市华蓥市中考一模英语卷及答案(文字版)

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    这是一份2022年四川省广安市华蓥市中考一模英语卷及答案(文字版),共19页。
    华蓥市2022年九年级诊断检测题(一)
    英语
    注意事项:
    1. 本试卷分为试题卷 (1-10 页) 和答题卡两部分。考试时间 120 分钟,满分 120 分。
    2. 考生答题前,请先将姓名、准考证号等信息用黑色墨迹签字笔填写在答题卡上的指定位置,待监考员粘贴条形码后,认真核对条形码上的姓名、准考证号与自己的准考证上的信息是否一致。
    3. 请将选择题答案用 2B 铅笔填涂在答题卡上的相应位置, 非选择题答案用黑色墨迹签字笔答在答题卡上的相应位置。超出答题区域书写的答案无效,在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。
    4. 考试结束,监考员必须将参考学生和缺考学生的答题卡、试题卷一并收回。
    卷I(共三部分;满分70分 )
    第一部分 听力( 共两节;满分20分 )
    第一节 (共 10 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
    听下面 10 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题后所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳答案。听完每段对话后,你有10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
    1. What will Mary wear to the party? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】

    A. B. C.
    2. Where has the boy put the rubbish? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】

    A. B. C.
    3. How did Karen feel about the talk show? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】

    A. B. C.
    4. Which festival are the speakers talking show? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】

    A. B. C.
    5. Where does the conversation probably take place? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】

    A. B. C.
    6. Why was Paul late for school? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】

    A. He got up late. B. He didin’t catch the bus.. C. He met a car accident.
    7. When did Jim start to learn English? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】

    A. In 1998. B. In 1999. C. In 1989.
    8. What will the weather be like tomorrow? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】

    A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Snowy.
    9. What are the two speakers doing? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】

    A. Saying hello. B. Saying thanks. C. Saying goodbye.
    10. What language can Eric speak? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】

    A. Japanese. B. French. C. English.
    第二节(共 l0 小题;每小题 l 分,满分 l0 分)
    听下面三段对话和一段独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题后所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳答案。听完每段对话或独白后, 你有 15 秒钟的时间来回答有关问题。 每段对话或独白读三遍。
    听对话,回答以下各小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】

    11. What is the man going to play as?
    A. A king. B. A price. C. Herself.
    12. What’s the man’s plan for tonight?
    A To see friends. B. To play in the school’s new play C. To go to a meeting.
    听对话,回答以下各小题【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】

    13. Where does the man want to go?
    A. A bank. B. A post office. C. A library.
    14. How will the man go there?
    A. On foot. B. By bike. C. By bus.
    听对话,回答以下各小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】

    15. What kind of concert would they like to lilsten to?
    A. Pop music. B. Western music. C. Classical music.
    16. Where will they meet?
    A. At the gate of James’. B. At the gate of the theater. C. At the school gate.
    听独白,回答以下各小题【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】

    17. How does Helen feel before the exam?
    A. Nervous. B. Relaxed. C. Bored.
    18. How long does Helen sleep every night?.
    A. For five hours. B. For six hours. C. For seven hours.
    19. Does Helen do any sports or watch TV during the free time at first?
    A. Yes, he does. B. No, he doesn’t. C. Yes, they are.
    20. What problem is there between the classmates?
    A. They often argue with each other.
    B. They don’t have time to communicate with each other.
    C. They often feel lonely after class.
    第二部分 基础知识运用 (满分 15 分)
    完形填空 (共两篇; 共 15 小题; 每小题 1 分, 满分 15 分)
    先通读下面两篇短文,掌握其大意,然后从各题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项。
    A
    Do you know the poem Song of the Great Wind? Its ____21____ is Liu Bang who was the first emperor of the Han Dynasty (206BC—220AD). Born into a ____22____ farmer’s family, Liu didn’t go to school for long, but he still wanted to do something ____23____. In his thirties, he became a village official. In his forties, he became the leader of an army. In his fifties, he became the emperor. During all these years, he ____24____ many difficulties and won many wars. His life was exciting and successful, just as his poem Song of the Great Wind shows us. Liu wrote this poem when he went back to his Hometown ____25____ an emperor. During a meeting, Liu remembered the old days and felt sad. He read this poem aloud for all to hear.
    21. A. reader B. special C. writer D. reporter
    22. A. big B. poor C. rich D. colorful
    23. A. great B. good C. interesting D. ugly
    24. A. had B. met C. overcame(克服) D. beat
    25. A. like B. as C. for D. with
    B
    Today, the Internet is used in nearly every field of life. Does the Internet play an important part in education? Let us take a look at it in detail.
    School Projects
    The Internet can be most ____26____ for completing projects in schools. As the Internet is an ocean of information, covering ____27____ all subjects known to man. Going through the information on the Internet is much ____28____ than reading a book on the subject. Homework is also made easier with the help of the Internet, ____29____ is also one of the important uses of computers in education.
    News
    All the latest news is often updated on the Internet on news sites. Students learning politics can learn the news ____30____ the Internet at school, at home, or at any other places.
    Online Learning
    With the Internet, you can ____31____ short-term courses online, learn, and give exams. People from any part of the world can gain (获取) ____32____ on different subjects.
    No Age Bracket (档次) for Education
    Online courses can make people of all age groups take up education of their ____33____, according to their liking and wish. You are, now, never too old ____34____ too busy to learn something new.
    With these points, we find that the Internet is so important in education. However, it is only _____35_____ for parents to make students understand what is good and what is not for them, or keep a watch on their surfing.
    26. A. common B. dangerous C. useful D. traditional
    27. A. nearly B. hardly C. already D. simply
    28. A. harder B. worse C. faster D. slower
    29. A. who B. what C. whose D. which
    30. A. across B. through C. without D. beside
    31. A. take up B. pick up C. get up D. put up
    32. A. experience B. pleasure C. money D. knowledge
    33. A. ages B. safety C. choice D. habits
    34. A. and B. or C. but D. so
    35. A. silly B. busy C. wise D. sure
    第三部分 阅读理解和口语运用 (共两节;满分35分)
    第一节 阅读理解 (共 20 小题; 每小题1.5 分, 满分30分)
    阅读下列短文, 从各题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项, 并将其选项转涂到答题卡上的相应位置。
    A
    Toowong Library
    The Toowoug Library provides all kinds of services, as well as plenty of activities and events. This library has meeting rooms available for hire(可供租用的). There are also Chinese, Hindi and Spanish collections available.

    Opening Hours
    Monday: 9:00 a.m—5:30 p.m
    Tuesday: 9:00 a.m—5:30 p.m
    Wednesday: 9:00 a.m—5:30 p.m
    Thursday: 9:00 a.m—8:00 p.m
    Friday: 9:00 a.m—5:30 p.m
    Saturday: 9:00 a.m—4:00 p.m
    Sunday: closed
    Closed on public holidays
    Upcoming Events
    Children’s Storytime
    Maker Space
    Experience the magic of storytime with your child at the library. It includes stories, songs and mark making activities for children aged 2-5 years.
    Date & Time: Tues. Jan 22
    10:00 a.m-10:30 a.m
    Cost: Free
    Come and join us for fun and free craft (手工艺) activities in the Library. For children 2-10 years.
    Date &Time: Tues. Jan 22
    11:00 a.m-2:00 p.m
    Cost: Free
    BuJo Inspo
    Start the new year off ! Learn how to organize your to-do list, track(跟踪) your habits, or just be creative. For those aged 12 years and older.
    Date & Time: Tues. Jan 22
    2:00 p.m-3:30 p.m
    Cost: Free
    English Conversation Group
    Our friendly group meets at the library every Thursday afternoon. Come along to make new friends and improve your English. Learners of all levels are welcome.
    Date & Time: Thur. Jan 24
    1:00 p.m-2:00 p.m
    Cost: Free

    36. The library has the longest opening hours on ________.
    A. Monday B. Wednesday C. Thursday D. Saturday
    37. Children’s Storytime lasts ________.
    A. half an hour B. one hour C. two hours D. three hours
    38. In BuJo Inspo kids ________.
    A. make new friends B. enjoy reading stories
    C. do some craft activities D. prepare for the new year
    39. English Conversation Group is for ________.
    A. beginners B. learners of all levels C. children 2-10 years D. those above 12 years
    40. What do the four events have in common?
    A. They fall on the same day. B. They encourage reading.
    C. They are all free. D. They place in the morning.
    B
    When I was very young, people in our village lived by planting fruit trees. My grandmother always took me to the orchard (果园) on the hill. At that time, they had to carry water from the river at the foot of the hill to halfway up the hill. Even though we worked so hard, the production level of fruit was still low because it was short of water there.
    One day, two young men led a group of workers to our village. They learned about the difficulties we faced, and later, canals and other projects began to be built in my village, “Who are they?” I asked. “They are good men from our government,” my grandma replied.
    Shortly afterwards, I moved to another city for my junior high school. The only reason I ever came back to my hometown was my grandmother.
    One day, my family and I made time to return. We were surprised because everything had changed. The canal ran past every orchard so villagers didn’t have to go up and down the hill anymore. The river was now so clean that fish swam happily in it. When we arrived home, my grandma took out some fresh pears and apples. She told us that after the water conservation project (水利工程) was completed, a policy (政策) was made to encourage more people to increase the fruit production with clean water in the river.
    Thank those good men who have devoted themselves to the development of our countryside.
    Nowadays, people work hard to live in a big city. However, we should not forget our hometowns where we are from.
    41. What troubled the villagers most was that ________.
    A. they had too much work B. it was not convenient to go up the hill
    C. they could only grow fruit trees D. there wasn’t enough water in the orchard
    42. The good men came and offered help probably because of ________.
    A. the villagers’ suggestions B. the government’s support
    C. a school’s practical activity D. a company’s engineering plan
    43. We can infer from the passage that ________.
    A. the grandmother doesn’t like to live in the city
    B. the village is a place of interest for tourists now
    C. there will be more fruit production in the village
    D. more people like to work in the countryside nowadays
    44. The underlined phrase devoted themselves to is closest in meaning to ________.
    A. prepared much for B. donated money to
    C. drawn public attention to D. put much effort into
    45. What can be the best title for the passage?
    A. How is a village improved? B. Who are the good men?
    C. Why do people come back? D. What does a hometown mean?
    C
    The 24th Beijing Winter Olympics will begin on 4th February, 2022. The Winter Paralympics will begin a month later. Let's meet the mascots!
    I'm Bing Dwen Dwen. I'm the mascot(吉祥物)of the 2022 Winter Olympics. I am a black and white panda wearing a full-body "shell" made of ice. The red heart shape in my left palm(手心)means welcoming the friends from other countries. The bright colours of the circles around my face stand for ice and snow sport tracks, meaning connectivity and advanced technologies. I look like an astronaut(宇航员), making full use of new technologies for a future with all kinds of possibilities.
    Shuey Rhon Rhon is here! I'm the mascot of the 2022 Winter Paralympics(残疾人运动 会).What do you think of when you see me? Does a red lantern come into your mind? That's what I look like. Take a look at my head. There are paper cuttings of doves(鸽子). They make up a circle. Follow me. I'll light the way to the Paralympics.
    46. When will the 2022 Winter Paralympics start?
    A. On 4th March, 2022. B. On 4th January, 2022.
    C. On 4th February, 2022. D. On 4th February, 2023.
    47. What does Bing Dwen Dwen look like?
    A. A child. B. A lantern. C. An astronaut. D. A sports track.
    48. Where is the red heart?
    A. It's on Shuey Rhon Rhon's face. B. It's on Bing Dwen Dwen's neck
    C. It's on Shuey Rhon Rhon's lantern. D. It's on Bing Dwen Dwen's left palm.
    49. What's on Shuey Rhon Rhon's head?
    A. Paper cuttings of doves. B. Paper cuttings of pandas.
    C. Bright colours of the circles. D. Chinese characters of Olympics.
    50. What is the main idea of this passage?
    A. The 2022 Winter Olympic games are coming.
    B. The 2022 Winter Olympic games will be held in Beijing.
    C. Chinese culture will be used in 2022 Winter Olympic games.
    D. Let's see mascots of the 2022 Winter Olympics and Paralympics.
    D
    Space vegetables are grown from seeds (种子) that have been taken to space and brought back to the earth. The seeds are affected by the radiation (辐射) and low gravity in space. When they are brought back to the earth, these seeds produce vegetables that are bigger and healthier than normal vegetables. However, some people worry about eating space vegetables. They think that space vegetables might not be good for us and could make us get sick because of the radiation in space. However, people should not be frightened because space vegetables are very healthy.
    Here are some facts that you should know about space vegetables.
    Space vegetables are grown from seeds that are carefully chosen. When seeds are brought back from space, they are tested to make sure that they will be safe to eat.
    Space vegetables are better for you than normal vegetables. For example space tomatoes stay fresh for twenty days, which is one week longer than normal tomatoes.
    After genetically modified (转基因) food appeared in the market, people worried that they were eating unknown things. For example, if nut genes (坚果基因) are put inside potatoes, people allergic to nuts might get sick from eating these potatoes because they do not know they are also eating nuts. Unlike genetically modified food, space vegetables have not been genetically changed. This means that no new genes are put into the vegetables. Therefore, there are no dangers of eating something unknown.
    51. The seeds brought back from space produce ______ vegetables according to the passage.
    A. more delicious B. healthier and bigger
    C. more dangerous D. cheaper and healthier
    52. Genetically modified food is different from space vegetables because it ______.
    A. is grown in space
    B. has nothing unknown
    C. has been genetically changed
    D. has no new genes
    53. According to the passage, normal tomatoes can stay fresh for about ______ days.
    A. seven B. thirteen
    C. twenty D. twenty-seven
    54. The underlined word “allergic” means “______” in Chinese.
    A. 过敏 B. 种植
    C. 发现 D. 出售
    55. The writer wants to tell us that ______.
    A. space vegetables are grown in space
    B. everybody worries about eating space vegetables
    C. space vegetables are safe and good for people to eat
    D. space vegetables may bring illness to us because of the radiation in space
    第二节 口语运用(共 5 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 5 分)
    Tom: Hello, Kate! We’ll have a long summer vacation after finishing middle school. ____56____
    Kate: Yes, I plan to visit my grandparents with my father. ____57____ I miss them a lot. What about you?
    Tom: I just want to keep healthy. You know, nothing is more important than health.
    Kate: ____58____ How are you going to do that?
    Tom: I am going to run in the park for 20 minutes every morning. What’s more, ____59____
    Kate: Junk food? Sounds difficult for you.
    Tom: Maybe you are right. ____60____ Wait and see.
    Kate: Well, I hope your dream can come true.
    A. I agree with you.
    B I haven’t seen them for half a year.
    C. How are your parents?
    D. Do you have any plans?
    E. But I believe I can make it.
    F. I will stop eating junk food.
    II卷(共四部分;满分 50 分)
    第一部分 单词拼写(共 20 题;每小题 1 分,满分 20 分)
    第一节 根据汉语提示,用单词的正确形式填空,每空一词。
    61. I’m very hungry. I haven’t ________ (吃) anything since 7:00 this morning.
    62. It takes me 45 ________(分钟)to get to school by bike every morning.
    63. December is the ________(第十二)month in a year.
    64. This isn’t her jacket, ________(她的) is green.
    65. This kind of silk feel much ________ (柔软)than that one.
    66. Online libraries are ________ (广泛地)used for learning in the information age.
    67. To be safe, students should ________(避免)going out alone at night.
    68. Miss Li has ________(教)us English for 3 years. She is kind to us.
    69. The soldier stopped suddenly and ________ (射击) at the enemy at once.
    70. It’s never too late to make a ________ (决定) to work hard.
    根据短文内容用方框内所给单词的正确形式填空,每空一词,每词一次。
    star good rest up how pollution stop small see towards
    Look up at the sky at night. What can you see? Before electric lights, people could often see about 2500 different stars. Now, light fills the skies over our cities. This is called light ____71____. Because of it, people in cities can often only see about ten ____72____!
    Most of the time, light helps us. We can ____73____ because of it. It gives plants energy. But light isn’t always ____74____. We need times of dark to ____75____. One hundred years ago, we had those times of dark. Now the night is like day. Some scientists are worried about ____76____ this light affects (影响) our health. These scientists are studying the effects of light pollution.
    Other scientists are finding ways to ____77____ light pollution and make our lives better. For example, many streetlights now have covers. The covers focus the light ____78____ the ground. They stop the light from going ____79____ into the sky. They also save energy. The covers are a _____80_____ change, but they can still have a positive (正面的) effect。
    第二部分 短文改错(共 10 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
    下面短文中的画线部分是错误的,请改正,但不得改变原文意思,并将答案写在答题卡上。
    I like seasons, but my favourite seasons is spring.
    It’s warm and sunny. I can go outside to play to my ___81___
    friends. Summer is my brother Tim favourite season. ___82___
    Swim is his favourite sport and he likes going to the ___83___
    wonderful beach who is not far from our home. Mom ___84___
    likes autumn a lot of. This season makes the countryside ___85___
    different. Leaf become brown, red or yellow. Mom says ___86___
    they are as beautifully as flowers. On sunny days, I may ___87___
    go for a picnic with she. The weather is cool and dry in autumn. ___88___
    Dad says he likes winter best. He likes snow. When snow covers the field,
    it’s just like a thick quilt And Dad is good for making ___89___
    a snowman. Tim and I all like skiing in the snow. _____90_____
    第三部分 任务型阅读(共 5 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 10 分)
    阅读短文,然后根据文章内容简要回答文后各小题。
    Many countries have their own special New Year’s Eve traditions because of different native cultures, and we should show respect for them. Here are some interesting New Year’s Eve traditions around the world.
    Russia
    On December 31, Russians write their wishes down on a piece of paper, burn it with a candle, and drink the ashes(灰烬)in a glass of champagne. Also, there must be oranges on the table of every Russian family. They think the smell of oranges is an important part of winter vacation.
    Spain
    Spanish celebrate New Year’s Eve with 12 grapes. Every grape means one month of the year. If you can finish all 12, you’re believed to have great luck in the coming year. What’s more, they take their suitcases out for a walk in order to have more travel chances in the coming year. And they also pour a bucket of water on the street which represents the bad luck.
    Brazil
    White is considered the purest color, so Brazilians wear white on New Year’s Eve. They also throw white flowers into the ocean as an offering(贡品)to the Goddess of the Sea.
    Denmark
    How many friends do you have? In Denmark you would know that on New Year’s Day. It is a sign of good luck to throw plates against others’ doors on New Year’s Eve. The more pieces of broken plates you have on your doorstep, the more popular you are!

    91. Why do many countries have their own special New Year’s Eve traditions?
    _______________________________________
    92. What will Russians do after they burn the paper with a candle?
    _______________________________________
    93. Who may take their suitcases out for a walk?
    _______________________________________
    94. Where do Brazilians throw white flowers ?
    _______________________________________
    95. How can people in Denmark know how many friends they have?
    _______________________________________
    第四部分 书面表达(满分 10 分)
    96. 假如你是李华,你准备给学校校报英语专栏投稿,记述上周六你和几位同学拜访一位七十岁剪纸艺术家的经历,并简单谈谈感受。
    1.活动安排:
    ①早上9:00从学校出发,下午2:00返回;
    ②骑自行车前往她家;
    ③向她学习剪纸;
    ④教她使用电脑;陪她说话;其他活动(至少谈及两项)。
    2.谈谈本次活动的感受。
    注意:
    1.词数80左右(开头已给出,不计入总词数);
    2.合理增加细节,以使行文连贯;
    3.文中不得出现真实的人名和校名。
    参考词汇: paper cutting 剪纸
    Last Saturday, I went to visit a 70-year-old paper cutting artist with some of my classmates. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    华蓥市2022年九年级诊断检测题(一)
    英语
    注意事项:
    1. 本试卷分为试题卷 (1-10 页) 和答题卡两部分。考试时间 120 分钟,满分 120 分。
    2. 考生答题前,请先将姓名、准考证号等信息用黑色墨迹签字笔填写在答题卡上的指定位置,待监考员粘贴条形码后,认真核对条形码上的姓名、准考证号与自己的准考证上的信息是否一致。
    3. 请将选择题答案用 2B 铅笔填涂在答题卡上的相应位置, 非选择题答案用黑色墨迹签字笔答在答题卡上的相应位置。超出答题区域书写的答案无效,在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。
    4. 考试结束,监考员必须将参考学生和缺考学生的答题卡、试题卷一并收回。
    卷I(共三部分;满分70分 )
    第一部分 听力( 共两节;满分20分 )
    第一节 (共 10 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
    听下面 10 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题后所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳答案。听完每段对话后,你有10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
    【1题答案】
    【答案】C
    【2题答案】
    【答案】C
    【3题答案】
    【答案】A
    【4题答案】
    【答案】C
    【5题答案】
    【答案】B
    【6题答案】
    【答案】C
    【7题答案】
    【答案】B
    【8题答案】
    【答案】C
    【9题答案】
    【答案】A
    【10题答案】
    【答案】B
    第二节(共 l0 小题;每小题 l 分,满分 l0 分)
    听下面三段对话和一段独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题后所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳答案。听完每段对话或独白后, 你有 15 秒钟的时间来回答有关问题。 每段对话或独白读三遍。
    【11~12题答案】
    【答案】11. A 12. B
    【13~14题答案】
    【答案】13. A 14. B
    【15~16题答案】
    【答案】15. C 16. B
    【17~20题答案】
    【答案】17. A 18. C 19. B 20. B
    第二部分 基础知识运用 (满分 15 分)
    完形填空 (共两篇; 共 15 小题; 每小题 1 分, 满分 15 分)
    先通读下面两篇短文,掌握其大意,然后从各题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项。
    A
    【21~25题答案】
    【答案】21. C 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. B
    B
    【26~35题答案】
    【答案】26. C 27. A 28. C 29. D 30. B 31. A 32. D 33. C 34. B 35. C
    第三部分 阅读理解和口语运用 (共两节;满分35分)
    第一节 阅读理解 (共 20 小题; 每小题1.5 分, 满分30分)
    阅读下列短文, 从各题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项, 并将其选项转涂到答题卡上的相应位置。
    A
    【36~40题答案】
    【答案】36. C 37. A 38. D 39. B 40. C
    B
    【41~45题答案】
    【答案】41. D 42. B 43. C 44. D 45. A
    C
    【46~50题答案】
    【答案】46. A 47. C 48. D 49. A 50. D
    D
    【51~55题答案】
    【答案】51. B 52. C 53. B 54. A 55. C
    第二节 口语运用(共 5 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 5 分)
    【56~60题答案】
    【答案】56. D 57. B 58. A 59. F 60. E
    II卷(共四部分;满分 50 分)
    第一部分 单词拼写(共 20 题;每小题 1 分,满分 20 分)
    第一节 根据汉语提示,用单词的正确形式填空,每空一词。
    【61题答案】
    【答案】eaten
    【62题答案】
    【答案】minutes
    【63题答案】
    【答案】twelfth
    【64题答案】
    【答案】hers
    【65题答案】
    【答案】softer
    【66题答案】
    【答案】widely
    【67题答案】
    【答案】avoid
    【68题答案】
    【答案】taught
    【69题答案】
    【答案】shot
    【70题答案】
    【答案】decision
    【71~80题答案】
    【答案】71. pollution
    72. stars 73. see
    74. good 75. rest
    76. how 77. stop
    78. towards
    79. up 80. small
    第二部分 短文改错(共 10 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
    【81~90题答案】
    【答案】81. with
    82. Tim’s 83. Swimming
    84. that/which
    85. 去掉of 86. Leaves
    87. beautiful
    88. her 89. at
    90. both
    第三部分 任务型阅读(共 5 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 10 分)
    【91~95题答案】
    【答案】91. Because of different native cultures.
    92. They drink the ashes in a glass of champagne.
    93. The Spanish people.
    94. The ocean.
    95. The more pieces of broken plates they have on their doorstep, the more popular they are.
    第四部分 书面表达(满分 10 分)
    【96题答案】
    【答案】例文:
    Last Saturday, I went to visit a 70-year-old paper cutting artist with some of my classmates.
    We left school at 9:00 in the morning. We went there by bike. Her home is a little far from school. It took us about an hour to get there. She welcomed us warmly. She taught us how to cut paper. She showed us some beautiful patterns. Some are about plants, some are about animals, and some are about Chinese characters. She told us some paper cutting skills, and we learnt very fast. But she couldn’t use the computer to look through some patterns. We taught her to use the computer and chat with her. At noon, she also cooked us a delicious lunch. We also helped her clean her garden. We were very happy. We came back at 2:00 in the afternoon.
    Although we were tired, we were happy. Because we learned a new skill.


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