2022年湖北省武汉市江汉区中考英语模拟试卷 (二)(word版含答案)

这是一份2022年湖北省武汉市江汉区中考英语模拟试卷 (二)(word版含答案)，共15页。试卷主要包含了听力测试，选择填空，完形填空，阅读理解，词与短语填空，阅读理解填词，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。

江汉区2022年中考英语
模拟试卷 (二)
第I卷 (选择题 共85分)
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试 (共三节)
第一节 (共4小题，每小题1分，满分4分)
听下面4个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. Once a week. B. Once. C. Three.
2. A. On May 30th. B. At school. C. Teenagers.
3. A. A Bing DwenDwen. B. The day before yesterday. C. Kind of exciting.
4. A. They’re funny. B. In China. C. 2 miles.

第二节 (共8小题，每小题1分，满分8分)
听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来作答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
5. What are the two speakers talking about?
A. Eating habits. B. Favorite fruits. C. Table manners.
6. Where is the man going?
A. A service center. B. A supermarket. C. A post office.
7. What does Mike like now?
A. Singing. B. Dancing. C. Drawing.
8. How often does Lucy eat dumplings for dinner?
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
9. Where will Mr. Green go on vacation?
A. Singapore. B. Malaysia. C. China.
10. When is Jenny’s birthday?
A. On August 9th. B. On August 10th. C. On August 11th.
11. How will the man help the woman?
A. By looking for the key. B. By carrying the bag. C. By opening the door.
12. What is the relationship between the speakers?
A. A couple. B. Teacher and student. C. Boss and worker.

第三节 (共13小题，每小题1分，满分13分)
听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答13至15三个小题。
13. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. In the hotel. B. In the shop. C. At home.
14. What time does the dining room close?
A. At11: 30p. m. B. At11: 00p. m. C. At10: 30p. m.
15. What will the man do next?
A. Buy something to eat. B. Call Room Service. C. Go to a restaurant.
听下面一段对话，回答16至18三个小题。
16. What problem does the man have?
A. He has put on much weight.
B. He has not been sleeping well.
C. He has trouble with his computer screen.
17. What is the worst about the woman’s job?
A. The long working hours. B. The changeable schedule. C. The great stress.
18. Where will the speakers go this weekend?
A. To a park. B. To a mountain. C. To a gym.
听下面一段对话，回答19至22三个小题
19. How did the man feel at first?
A. Angry. B. Cold. C. Surprised.
20. How does the man usually exercise?
A. By bicycling. B. By playing soccer. C. By jogging.
21. Where does the man usually do exercise?
A. In the school. B. In the park. C. In the gym.
22. What will the speakers probably do next?
A. Study together. B. Go to the gym. C. Show their moves.
一2听下面一段独白，回答23至25三个小题。
23. How long will the activity last?
A. Nine months. B. Six months. C. Four months.
24. How much do the tickets cost for an adult and a kid?
A. $12. B. $18. C. $20.
25. When does the Wild West show end?
A. At 4: 30 p. m. on weekends. B. At 4: 00 p. m. every day. C. At 2: 00 a. m. on weekdays.

第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。将代表该答案的字母在答题卡上相应的位置涂黑。
26. —I’m afraid you have the wrong number.
— __________. I hope I didn’t bother you.
A. Excuse me B. I’m sorry C. Of course D. Thank you
27. —The concert starts at 8: 30, and we can have a quick bite before we go.
—__________. See you at 8: 10.
A. I hope so B. Never mind C. Sounds nice D. See you then
28. —Are you sure you’re ready for the entrance examination?
—__________. I’m well prepared for it.
A. Nothing much B. It’s nothing C. No way D. No problem
29. Because of the rapid development of subway, Wuhan __________ a lot in the last ten years.
A. changed B. changes C. has changed D. will change
30. —I think we are supposed to show our health code first before entering.
—I __________. That’s very important now.
A. agree B. agreed C. will agree D. had agreed
31. A large number of foreigners from different countries __________ on the streets of Chang’anduring the Tang Dynasty.
A. would be found B. has been found C. is found D. could be found
32. Only __________ hard work can we make our dreams come true.
A. above B. across C. below D. through
33. —The __________ of living is much higher now than it was before.
—I can’t agree more.
A. value B. price C. cost D. worth
34. —Which do you like?
—Neither. I think they’re __________ ugly.
A. all B. either C. none D. both
35. —Wu didn’t show up at yesterday’s meeting. Did you know that?
—Yeah. He used his wife’s birthday as a __________ excuse for not going to the meeting.
A. proper B. usual C. available D. convenient
36. —It’s not easy to get a job. What can I do in an interview?
—You need to __________ yourself better.
A. keep B. present C. dress D. press
37. —Can I pay the bill by check?
—Sorry, but it is the rule of our restaurant that payment __________ be made in cash.
A. need B. will C. shall D. can
38. —What do you think of the boy who is talented in music?
—Very intelligent. And I know his best music was __________ by the memory of his mother.
A. inspired B. impressed C. introduced D. invited
39. —Can we finish the task this morning?
—Not yet. You couldn’t predict everything. Often things don’t __________ as you expect.
A. run out B. break out C. work out D. find out
40. —Excuse me. I wonder if you could tell me __________.
—Sure. It will stop for 15minutes.
A. when the train arrived at the station B. where can I find the ticket to Shanghai
C. how long the train will stay at the station D. why the train will arrive at the station

三、完形填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四各选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
Steph was looking at Instagram. There were blessed yoga photos and Sunday Breakfast pictures. She saw photos of fresh bread and coffee with 41 in the milk.
On the other 42 of the city, Matt was doing the 43 thing. His Instagram was full of FitBody gym selfies (自拍) and beach life holiday photos.
Steph put some flowers next to her breakfast and took a photo of it. Her eggs and coffee were cold now, but the plate looked 44 . The plate was from an expensive art market. She had ‘ 45 ’ the flowers from her neighbor’s garden. 46 only ten people a day walked past old Mrs. Robinson’s garden. Flowers are for everyone to 47 , aren’t they? She thought. If she put the picture on Instagram, more people would see the flowers. Steph changed the colours on her picture to make the orange juice more orange and the pink roses 48 . She was 49 an Instagram filter (滤镜) when she noticed TrueBeauty. She had downloaded it the day before and then 50 about it. Her picture looked 51 with that filter. She posted the photo for her 15k followers. She hoped some of them would feel jealous of her life. Then she 52 the food on her plate into the bin. She didn’t want to eat it now that it was cold.
Matt was ready to give up. He had 53 for an hour and he had put cooking oil on his skin so that it would look shiny. But the photos still didn’t look good. He only wanted to be fit so that he could put photos on social media. He looked at his Instagram again. He hoped to see some ideas he could 54 . Then he noticed an ad for TrueBeauty. “Pictures as beautiful as you are. See the 55 you with TrueBeauty. Available in your app store for ￡0. Because true beauty is free.”
41. A. bubble B. hearts C. smell D. sugar
42. A. end B. area C. side D. part
43. A. same B. similar C. common D. different
44. A. fair B. well C. good D. fine
45. A. lent B. borrowed C. broke D. bought
46. A. Gradually B. Probably C. Finally D. Accidentally
47. A. share B. smell C. enjoy D. see
48. A. brighter B. redder C. bigger D. smaller
49. A. thinking B. changing C. choosing D. making
50. A. regretted B. worried C. satisfied D. forgotten
51. A. beautiful B. perfect C. meaningful D. hopeful
52. A. put B. threw C. placed D. cut
53. A. carried out B. set out C. worked out D. run out
54. A. learn B. feel C. study D. copy
55. A. special B. real C. cute D. best

四、阅读理解 (共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料，从每题所给A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳选项。
A
Over the past year, COVID-19 has forced people to give up most of their travel plans. Now in a world with social distancing and limited flights, what will travel be like? Airbnb, a US-based home-sharing company, has used surveys to predict trends (预测趋势).
___________________
In China, 76 percent of those surveyed want to “travel to suburban (近郊的) areas” or even “move to the countryside” in the coming year. In the US, 62 percent expressed interest in taking a vacation that is closer to home in a more natural environment, such as a tree house or cottage (乡间小屋).
Remote (远程的) working and traveling
Because of COVID-19, remote working and schooling became a lifestyle for many people in 2020. Airbnb says this will blur (模糊) the line between working and traveling.
On Airbnb, people who have the chance to work from anywhere are actively booking longer stays (two week-plus trips). They prefer small-to-mid-size cities with natural environments and more open spaces. In China, 64 percent of people are considering “going to a new place to live and work remotely”, or “traveling while on a business trip”.
Staying more connected
Pod travel, in which people choose to travel together as a family or a group of friends, will become a trend. This way, people can stay safe and reduce the risk of socializing with others.
On Airbnb, more than half of the trips that are being planned for 2021 include three or more travelers.
56. What is Airbnb according to the passage?
A. A traveling company. B. An airline company.
C. A car-sharing company. D. A home-sharing company.
57. All the news above has something to do with __________.
A. plan B. travel C. lifestyle D. environment
58. The best heading of the first news would be __________.
A. Traveling to suburban areas B. Moving to the countryside
C. Getting back to nature D. Taking a closer vacation
59. Which city will people who have the chance to work from anywhere book on Airbnb?
A. Mount Wuyi. B. Hangzhou. C. Shanghai. D. Beijing.
60. Why will Pod travel become a trend?
A. Because people can stay safe.
B. Because people want to be popular.
C. Because people want to be different.
D. Because people love socializing with others.

B
It was last January, when I’d just finished a charity and was on the train back home, that I put down my phone and started writing thank-you notes to people who had helped.
When I got off the train, I felt amazingly good. The next day, I wrote more thank-yous and the same feeling of happiness hit me again. I suddenly had the idea: Why not keep on doing this for every day of the year?
To keep on task, I decided to pick out a different theme for each month. January was charity. February would be neighbors, I decided. And I thought of a number of names right away: the owner of our local bookstore, who let me and my little son in before the store opened and offered to play his favorite songs; our babysitter, who dropped off a bag of old board games for our kids to play; …
While writing the notes, I realized how often I had spent my time on the phone moving from app to app, appreciating other people’s lives. Writing thank-you notes allowed me the time to do something different, paying more attention to my own life.
In the following months, I wrote to my friends, doctors, teachers and parenting role models. In July, my “food” month, I wrote to Julie, who used to cook at my favorite restaurant. It went like this:
Dear Julie,
I’ve been finding myself missing you lately. Thank you for hosting and cooking beautiful and thoughtful food. Jake and I will never forget when you sent out biscuits shaped into the number VI for our sixth anniversary (周年纪念日). We talk about it every year.
Thank you. We miss you.
Love,
Gina
I was happy to receive a note back from her. Julie replied, “I don’t think I’ve ever received such a touching letter before. I’m going through a hard time right now, and this helps.”
On December 31, I wrote my last card to Jake, my husband, and our two kids. And I took a picture of us, so I could remember the feeling welling up inside me. Gratitude.
61. The underlined word “this” in Paragraph 2 means __________.
A. writing thank-you notes B. putting the phone away
C. taking the train back home D. raising money for charity
62. How did Julie most probably feel after reading the note from Gina?
A. Shy and surprised. B. Pleased and relaxed.
C. Nervous and excited. D. Moved and encouraged.
63. The theme of the December notes might be __________.
A. photos B. family C. holidays D. community
64. What did Gina get by doing her task according to the passage?
A. Many thanks from her neighbors.
B. More time to appreciate her own life.
C. More help from people around her.
D. Happy moments to be with her friends.
65. We can infer that the writer’s writing purpose is to __________.
A. remember to be thankful
B. recall an amazing trip
C. share the happiness with others
D. remind some important people in our life

C
My challenge for you is this: to read a book for 15 minutes every single day for a month.
Let me explain a bit, by telling you where the challenge came from. I have many things in common with my dad, like music taste and sense of humor, but sadly reading isn’t one of them. I can happily spend a whole day with a book, but my dad can’t read a book for longer than about 5 minutes. He reads emails, websites and papers for work, but not books. He’s busy so I think sitting down to read for just 15 minutes a day is a good way to relax and to introduce him to reading.
My dad is by no means the only person who avoids books. I know lots of people would rather relax on their computers or in front of the TV. Everyone is different and has their own interests, but I think there’re lots of benefits to reading, which screen-based activities don’t have.
Firstly, it’s better for your eyes. Looking at screens can be very stressful for your eye muscles, and clearly you should avoid looking at screens for an hour before bed, to get a goodnight’s sleep.
One thing I personally love reading, is being transported to another world--I would often forget the time or things around me! Reading is a great way to switch off before you go to bed, because you think more about the world of the book, rather than the real world, so you can truly relax. I know you can be transported to a different world in a film or a TV show, but I think books do it better.
I also enjoy hearing what people are doing and finding out what they think. Reading gives me the chance to get to know hundreds of new people! It also teaches you to see things from other people’s point of view, and understand other people’s decisions or opinions. With a book, you can hear everything a character is thinking or feeling--you really can be inside someone else’s head!
So give it a go! Take 15 minutes when you’re waking up, going to bed, eating too much, or having a coffee. If you read a lot, why not try 15 minutes of an English book, or pass the challenge on to someone else? Good luck, and happy reading!
66. The author gives the example of his father in the text to show __________.
A. his father is very busy
B. reading is very important to us
C. his father likes reading
D. many people have no habit of reading
67. The author writes the text mainly basing on __________.
A. his personal experience
B. some scientific experiments
C. his father’s personal advice
D. knowledge from books
68. The author loves reading because it can __________.
A. help readers sleep well.
B. make readers feel relaxed
C. transport readers to a different world.
D. remind readers of the real world.
69. What’s the author’s attitude to reading?
A. Stressful. B. Uncertain. C. Supportive. D. Doubtful.
70. What would be the best title for the passage?
A. Tips for Reading English Books
B. 15-Minute Reading Challenge
C. Having a Coffee While You Read
D. Ways to Improve Reading Skills

第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题 共35分)
五、词与短语填空 (共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
thirsty / products / won / called in / spread / moved / came in
仔细阅读下面五个句子，然后用下面方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使每个句子在结构、句义和逻辑上正确。 (提示：方框中有二个单词或短语是多余的。)


71. One day, a doctor and a nurse were __________ to examine the queen.
72. What he did to help the old in the community these days especially __________ me.
73. China has great experience in making high-tech __________ that people can buy here and there.
74. As a child, he was so full of energy and __________ for knowledge.
75. At last Tom __________ a prize from the Society and felt very excited.

六、阅读理解填词 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
Having lived in Israel (以色列) for three years, I’m impressed with the way they wait in line and play by the r__________ (76).
Whether you are at the bank, the post office or the bus stop, you’ll always find a straight line of people waiting p__________ (77). Some are drinking coffee and some are chatting. They almost enjoy queuing and take the c__________ (78) to relax a little.
People here think order is very important. I once saw a young man try to jump the queue, but an old Israel man shouted to stop him and others j__________ (79) in. The poor guy was so ashamed that he left as fast as he could.
To Israelis, making sure rules are followed is everyone’s b__________ (80).
One day, I had to pick up a friend at the airport. I was in a hurry, and I ran t__________ (81) a yellow light on my way. The moment I arrived at the airport, an Israeli lady r__________ (82) down her car window and told me, “You can’t drive like that. Rules are s__________ (83) to ensure both your own and others’ safety. Please obey the rules next time.” I realized she had been following me for s__________ (84) miles just to tell me this!
This was burned into my mind, and now when I see a traffic light c__________ (85) to yellow, I stop the car and take a moment to relax.

七、书面表达 (本题共15分)
保护环境，从我们身边的小事做起。Wang Lin是一个注重”低碳”生活的中学生，假设你是他，请以”“My Low-carbon Life”为题，简单描述自己的”低碳生活”。
内容要点如下：
1. 每天步行或骑自行车上学，不坐公交车；
2. 离开教室时，关灯、电视等；
3. 不用水时，记得关水龙头，循环使用；
4. 充分使用纸张，不使用塑料袋；
5. 就此话题补充1-2点个人做法。
注意：
1. 文中不得透露个人姓名和学校名称；
2. 内容连贯，不逐条翻译；
3. 词数60-80，标题已给出，不计总词数。
参考词汇：reuse重复使用，make full use of充分利用，plastic bag塑料袋
My Low-carbon Life
It’s important for us to live a low-carbon life to protect the environment. _____________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________


江汉区2022年中考英语
模拟试卷 (二) 参考答案
一、听力测试 (共25分，每小题1分)
1-5 AAABC 6-10 BCACB 11-15 BCACB 16-20 ACBCB 21-25 BABBA

二、选择填空 (共15分，每小题1分)
26-30 BCDCA 31-35 DDCDD 36-40 BCACC

三、完形填空 (共15分，每小题1分)
41-45 BCACB 46-50 BCACD 51-55 BBCDB

四、阅读理解 (共30分，每小题2分)
56-60 DBCAA 61-65 ADBBA 66-70 DABCB

五、词与短语填空 (共10分，每小题2分)
71. called in 72. moved 73. products 74. thirsty 75. won

六、阅读理解填词 (共10分，每小题1分)
76. rules 77. patiently 78. chance 79. joined 80. business
81. through 82. rolled 83. set 84. several 85. change

七、书面表达 (本大题15分) (One Possible Version)
It’s important for us to live a low-carbon life to protect the environment.
I go to school on foot or by bike instead of taking the bus every day. I always remember to turn off the lights and the TV when I leave the classroom. When I am not using water, I always turn off the tap. I often reuse water, for example, when I finish washing the clothes, I use the water to clean the floor and water flowers. I never use plastic bags. I think saving paper is necessary, so I often make full use of paper.

2022年中考英语
模拟试卷 (二) 听力稿
一、听力测试 (共三节) 第一节 (共4小题，每小题1分，满分4分)
听下面4个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. How often do you go to the library?
2. When is the spring school trip?
3. What do you want for your birthday?
4. Where were the robots made?

第二节 (共8小题，每小题1分，满分8分)
听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有1秒钟的时间来作答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍
5.
W: Steve, don’t stick your chopsticks into your bowl. It’s impolite.
M: Oh, sorry, I won’t.
6.
M: Excuse me, can you tell me where I can buy some medicine?
W: Yes. There’s a supermarket in this shopping center.
7.
W: Mike, did you use to like singing or dancing?
M: Singing, but now I enjoy drawing.
8.
M: What do you usually have for dinner, Lucy?
W: I usually have rice and vegetables. But on Friday I usually have dumplings instead of rice.
9.
W: Where will you go next vacation, Mr. Green?
M: My friends suggest Singapore or Malaysia, but I plan to go to China.
10.
M: My birthday is on August 9th. What about you?
W: It’s on August 11th. And Jenny’s birthday is on August 10th.
11.
W: I’m looking for the key to the door. Could you please carry the bag for me?
M: OK. No problem.
12
W: I’m sorry I’m late for work, Mr. Smith, because my alarm clock didn’t work this morning.
M: This is not the first time that you’ve been late.

第三节 (共13小题，每小题1分，满分13分)
听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第13至15三个小题。
W: Can I help you?
M: Yeah, hi. This is Room 327. I need something to eat. I’m hungry. Is your dining room still open?
W: I’m sorry, sir. It’s 11 o’clock now. The dining room closed half an hour ago.
M: Oh, no, I really overslept. Well, do you know where I can get some dinner?
W: Just call Room Service at extension 121. You can order a light meal from them. They’ll send it up to your room.
M: OK, thanks. I’ll give them a call.
听下面一段对话，回答第16至18三个小题。
M: You know what, I have noticed that I’m 40 pounds heavier. That’s terrible.
W: Our jobs require us to be in front of computer screens for long workdays.
M: It’s said the average office worker sits in the office for about 10 hours.
W: It’s so bad, but to me, the worst part is that I don’t know how to reduce the pressure from my work. I just can’t fall asleep all night.
M: It’s time to change. What about finding time to work out in the gym?
W: Well, I prefer outdoor exercise, such as running in a park, and climbing in a mountain area.
M: All right. Let’s go climbing this weekend.
听下面一段对话，回答第19至22三个小题。
M: Linda, why are you dancing? I thought we had to study for our math test!
W: Oh, hi, Drake! I was just doing some exercise. I thought you wouldn’t get here until later. Let me turn the music off.
M: You exercise by dancing? I thought things like jogging and bicycling were considered exercise.
W: Well, those are other good ways to work out, but I like to dance. Do you like to dance?
M: I sometimes dance at parties, but I am not a very good dancer. For exercise, I prefer playing soccer. I hope to make the soccer team in the fall.
W: Cool! I know you like to go to the park on the weekends and play soccer. If you teach me some of your soccer moves, I’ll teach you some dance moves! How does that sound?
M: It’s a deal. If there weren’t the math test tomorrow, we could definitely go to the gym right now.
W: Right. No more fun and games. Let me get my notebook.
听下面一段独白，回答第23至25三个小题。
Hey, there, cowboys and cowgirls, for a real exciting day in the Wild West, come to Cactus City Wild West Park. Yes, bring the children along to see a real old-time pioneering town. Shoot guns and ride horses down the road. We’re open April through September, seven days a week from 10 a. m. to sundown. Only twelve dollars for adults and six dollars for children. Or buy a family ticket at 24 dollars. What’s more, every Saturday and Sunday we have a real Wild West show. Performances start at 2 p. m. and last for two and a half hours. That’s well worth the money. There are free buses to the park throughout the day every Saturday and Sunday from Cactus City Center. There’s a lot of fun waiting for all the families at the Cactus City Wild West Park.

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