2022.4济南历下英语一模（+）试题（含答案）

这是一份2022.4济南历下英语一模（+）试题（含答案），共12页。试卷主要包含了4），5分）， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
本试题分选择题部分和非选择题部分，共10页，满分为150分。考试用时120分钟。
答题前，请考生务必将自己的姓名、座号和准考证号填写在答题卡上，并同时将考点、姓名、准考证号和座号填写在试卷规定的位置。
答题时，选择题部分每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。非选择题部分，用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡上题号所提示的答题区域作答。直接在试卷上作答无效。
选择题部分 共105分
听力测试（30分）
听录音, 从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。（7.5分）
1. A. Let’s play vlleyball! B. Catch yu n Sunday!C. Sunds like a gd plan!
2. A. Can yu play the guitar? B. Are the seats cmfrtable? C. Des she like watermelns?
3. A. What’s yur favrite subject? B. Where have yu been? C. Hw des he get t wrk?
4. A. He isn’t leaving fr Lndn.B. We shuldn’t eat in class. C. She didn’t stay up late.
5. A.He will help clean the park.B. I must g t the dentist.C. We went bike riding.
B）在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。（7.5分）
6. What des Sue usually d after dinner?
A. Take a walk. B. Read bks.C. Drink tea.
7. What will Helen have t d this afternn?
A. Help with the husewrk.B. Prepare fr a test.C. G t the muntains.
8. Wh used t be shrter?
A. Jenny.B. Betty.C. Kate.
9. Hw much ygurt d they need fr salad?
A. One cup.B. Tw cups. C. Three cups.
10. What des Gina want t be?
A. A reprter.B. A teacher.C. A singer.
C) 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。对话读两遍。(听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间)（7.5分）
11. What is Jack ding at the mment?
A. Shpping. B. Swimming. C. Running.
12. Wh helped Peter take a message?
A. Jack’s mther. B. Jack’s brther.C. Jack’s sister.
13. Why are they leaving fr Hng Kng?
A. T take a vacatin.B. T have a meeting.C. T visit their friend.
14. Hw will they get t Hng Kng?
A. By train.B. By plane. C. By bus.
15. What will the weather be like in Lndn tmrrw?
A. Sunny. B. Windy. C. Rainy.
D) 在录音中, 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。短文读两遍。(听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间)（7.5分）
16. Hw was the gift Lucy wanted t buy?
A. Nice. B. Useless.C. Expensive.
17. Hw lng did Lucy lk fr the gift?
A. Half an hur. B. An hur.C. Tw hurs.
18. What was the clr f the umbrella Lucy bught at last?
A. Brwn.B. Yellw. C. Pink.
19. Where did Lucy leave the umbrella?
A. On the bus. B. In the shp. C. On the train.
20. Hw did Lucy’s mther feel when she received three umbrellas?
A. Surprised. B. Angry. C. Sad.
II．选择填空 从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。（15分）
21. There is _________ ftball behind the dr.
A. aB. anC. theD. /
22. Lisa was n the sfa just nw. The scarf must be _________.
A. she B. herC. hers D. herself
23. Wmen’s Day is ________ March.
A. in B. n C. at D. t
24. —Where did yu buy that nice hat, frm a shp r a supermarket?
—_________. I bught it nline.
A. Neither B. Either C. Nne D. Bth
25. Yu _________ stp smking here. Yu culd smke utside.
A. canB. might C. mayD. must
26. The teacher says reading can _________ a bridge between mind and the wrld.
A. breakB. buildC. takeD. hide
27. —Hw d yu usually get t wrk, Mike?
—By bike, it is a kind f sprt that uses much _________, but it keeps me healthy.
A. stressB. trubleC. energyD. supprt
28. My grandfather is a tea lver. He _________ green tea every day.
A. drinks B. is drinking C. drank D. will drink
29. — Chinese Wmen Ftball Team wn!
—_________ great team!
A. HwB. WhatC. What aD. What an
30. Jhn’s parents always listen t him _________, s he likes sharing his schl life with them.
A. strictlyB. hardlyC. patientlyD. seriusly
31. Why nt ________ the picture in the living rm? It’s s beautiful.
A. put upB. make upC. give up D. dress up
32. —It has taken t much time t slve the prblem.
— Yes. _________. We may make it sn.
Keep tryingB. Excuse me C. N prblem D. Hpe nt
33. —Is everyne here tday?
—N. Paul is _________ because he is ill.
A. creativeB. absentC. activeD. nrmal
34. —Hell. May I speak t Mr. Green?
—Srry. He _________ the bkshp. Yu can call again at 4:00 .
A. was ging t B. has gne t C. has been t D. has been in
35. —S culd yu tell us _________?
—The peple and the delicius fd.
A. what yu like mst abut YunnanB. hw yu went t Yunnan
C. when yu went t YunnanD. hw lng yu stayed in Yunnan
III．完形填空 阅读短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能填入文章中相应空
白处的最佳答案。（15分）
It just hadn’t been a very gd week. On Tuesday, Sam’s father 36 his jb. Then n Wednesday, Sam’s mther annunced that the rent(房租) n their apartment was ging up. Nw it was Friday, and Sam received an 37 frm Rsa t her birthday party.
Sam knew Rsa frm the Climbing Club. He knew he wuld enjy Rsa’s party, but he didn’t want t g 38 a gift. What culd he pssibly buy her with the little bit f mney he had?
Later that afternn, Sam nticed a secnd-hand bk sale ging n. He went there and had a quick lk. Tw bks caught his 39 . The first was a 40 , and the secnd was a bk abut wmen explrers(探险家). “Rsa wuld like these,” Sam thught, “ 41 wuld it be embarrassing t give her secnd-hand bks fr her birthday?”
Sam finally decided that a secnd-hand gift was 42 than n gift at all. Besides, Rsa 43 recycling in a big way. S, she wuld prbably like it. With his last dllar, Sam bught the bks and went hme. He felt a little better.
The party was n Saturday. Rsa pened all her gifts and 44 everyne fr the nice things they had given her. She paused(停顿)when she pened Sam’s gift, which made him wnder if she liked the bks, but 45 was said.
When Sam gt hme, he pened his 46 and fund this nte frm Rsa.
Dear Sam,
47 all the gifts I received tday, yurs was the nicest. Hw did yu knw I wuld lve a bk abut wmen explrers? Nw I have smething t read that will 48 me t fllw my dream f becming an adventurer(冒险家). And I als have a bk that I can share with my 49 . She is getting ld and wants t be sure her granddaughter knws hw t make the wnderful fds. Thank yu s much.
Lve
Rsa
The week turned ut t be a 50 ne after all.
36. A. lst B. fund C. raised D. imprved
37. A. interest B. infrmatin C. invitatin D. inventin
38. A. after B. under C. withut D. thrugh
39. A. arm B. eyes C. hands D. hair
40. A. wrkbk B. strybk C. guidebk D. ckbk
41. A. but B. and C. as D. s
42. A. better B. wrse C. smarter D. cheaper
43. A. shared B. refused C. supprted D. disliked
44. A. nticed B. thanked C. laughed D. remembered
45. A. smething B. anything C. nthing D. everything
46. A. desk B. email C. clck D. kitchen
47. A. Of B. Beside C. Between D. T
48. A. rder B. cntrl C. encurage D. praise
49. A. mther B. child C. teacher D. grandmther
50. A. cld B. gd C. cmmn D. bring
IV．补全对话 阅读对话，从每题A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。（5分）
Amy：Hey, Nick, 51
Nick：It's a famus painting by Picass.
Amy：Ww! 52 Let me take a pht f it.
Nick：Please dn't take phts, Amy.
Amy： 53
Nick：Lk at the sign. It says ‘N phts’. We shuldn't take phts here.
Amy：Srry, 54
Nick：Cme and see, Amy. I've seen this painting befre.
Amy：OK. I'm cming. But I think we shuldn't shut in the museum, Nick.
Nick： 55
51. A. what’s this? B. wh’s that?
C. where is he? D. hw’s it ging?
52. A. It’s s bring. B. It’s nt exciting.
C. It’s excellent. D. It’s meaningless.
53. A. When is it? B. Wh’re yu talking t?
C. Why nt? D. Hw is the weather?
54. A. It let me dwn. B. I didn’t ntice that sign just nw.
C. I had n interest. D. I dn’t want t cme here again.
55. A. Never mind.B. Thank yu.
C. I’m afraid nt. D. Srry, I wn’t.
V．阅读理解 阅读下列短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。（40分）
A
“Late again, Mavis! Hw many times I have tld yu t cme back in time t help me ck dinner?” asked Mrs. Muntari.
“But, mummy, I can’t just walk ut in the middle f a game!” said Mavis.
“Yu shuldn’t be playing the game in the first place.”
“But, mum, why can’t I? Yu never tell Adibe r Senze nt t play ftball. I had t leave the game at half time and rush back, s yu wuldn’t get angry with me,” said Mavis.
“Yu are a girl! It is as simple as that. Bys and girls have different rles t play. I have 11 hungry muths t feed and I need yur help! Yu are the ldest girl nt wrking, s it is yur jb t help me. That’s the way f ur peple. Nw g and fry sme mre chicken.”
At the dinner table, Adibe and Senze were excitedly talking abut tday’s game, while eating the chicken Mavis had fried. They talked abut hw Mavis scred in the first half with a pwer sht frm the halfway line. It was a great gal as their team was lsing by 0-1 at that time.
Dad came hme then and brught the bys a lcal newspaper, in which there was news abut ftball scuts (球探) frm England visiting Ghana (加纳). These scuts had asked t be allwed t visit schls t lk fr players f the future. Adibe and Senze lked at each ther and cheered. “Ww, I’m ging t be like Essien!” And they started arguing which ne wuld make it as a superstar.
Mavis decided t take this chance. She stle ut f hme. When she arrived at the playgrund, ne player happened t get hurt and the cach was wrried. “I can take his place!” Mavis shuted. Thugh it was unbelievable t let a girl play, the cach agreed. During the secnd half, she made an amazing sht!
When the game was ver, the scuts all std up, cheering.
56. Why was Mrs. Muntari unhappy with Mavis?
A. Mavis didn’t like cking.B. Mavis’ team lst the game.
C. Mavis arrived hme late again.D. Mavis left the game at half time.
57. Mavis was nt supprted in playing ftball because _________.
A. she was a girlB. she wasn’t talented
C. she was t ldD. her brthers did better
58. Wh brught a lcal newspaper hme?
A. Adibe B. Senze C. Mm D. Dad
Mavis decided t ________ at the news abut the scuts.
A. take the chanceB. leave her hme
C.becme anther EssienD. take thers’ place
60. What’s the prbable ending f the stry?
A. Mavis had t find a jb.B. Mavis was chsen by the scuts.
C. Mr. Muntari regretted letting her g.D. Mavis felt disappinted at the game.
B
*Yu can enjy dinner at ur restaurant under the water frm 6:00 t 6:30.
*Yu can’t eat anything while yu are watching the sea animals.
*Each tur csts 15 yuan. Yu can buy the tickets at the gate f the aquarium.
*Yu can decide which tur yu will jin after yu arrive at the aquarium.
If yu want t play with the sea turtle, which tur shuld yu chse？
A. Tur A.B. Tur B.C. Tur C. D. Tur D.
62. If yu want t enjy 4 turs, hw much will yu pay fr them？
A. 15 yuan.B. 30 yuan.C. 45 yuan. D. 60 yuan.
63. What can’t yu d while yu are watching the sea animals？
A. Feed the fish. B. Walk with the penguins.
C. Eat fd.D. Take phts.
64. Hw lng can yu enjy the activities at the aquarium at mst in ne night？
A. Half an hur.B. One hur.C. One and a half hur. D. Tw hurs.
65. Which f the fllwing is NOT true accrding t the passage？
A. Yu shuld g t the aquarium n Saturday night.
B. Yu must decide which tur t jin befre arriving.
C. Yu can walk with the penguins at the aquarium.
D. There is nly half an hur t enjy fd there.
C
As a 10-year-ld living in Mumbai, Angad Daryani ften had prblems breathing during ftball matches because f the thick smg(烟雾) arund India’s big cities. “When I used t play utside in Mumbai, India, I’d always be cughing because f the pllutin,” says Daryani, wh is nw 23 years ld.”
India has the wrld’s wrst air pllutin. Hme t 22 f the wrld’s 30 mst plluted cities, India’s bad air kills mre than ne millin peple each year. “In India, yu ntice a big difference in energy levels cmpared t in US cities, which may largely result in the air pllutin,” says Daryani. “Yu get tired as sn as yu wake up because f the pllutin.”
Fired by his wn experience f the influence f air pllutin n his health, Daryani is ne f a grwing number f entrepreneurs(企业家) hping t clean up India’s skies. “Air pllutin kills seven millin peple wrldwide every year, but we dn’t take it as seriusly as Cvid-19,” he says. Fr Daryani, there is n time t waste — India must urgently reduce pllutin t prtect peple’s health. “Turning all cars int electric will take at least 30 years. During this time, cities will be filled with air pllutin,” he says. “We have t purify(净化) air in a lcal manner.”
His slutin t the prblem is a simple ne — develp a lw-cst system that can capture(捕获) the pllutin s it can be turned int smething useful like building tiles(砖). While studying engineering at the Gergia Institute f Technlgy in the US, Daryani designed an utdr purifying system that remves pllutin frm the air. The system nly sucks the pllutin in and cllects it in a bx, leaving clean air in its place.
Daryani has als started designing a new device that can capture carbn dixide in the hpe it can start t reduce the greenhuse gas frm the air. “Future generatins need t feel like they have a future,” he says.
66. Angad Daryani __________ when he was a kid.
A. lived in a big city in US B. cughed because f the bad air
C. used t play basketball D. have truble breathing at hme
67. Which f the fllwing is NOT true accrding t paragraph 2?
A. India has better energy levels than American cities.
B. The bad air leads t lts f deaths every year in India.
C. Peple feel tired when getting up because f the pllutin.
D. India has mre plluted cities than any ther cuntry.
68. Turning cars int electric can’t help because __________ accrding t the passage.
A. it is t expensiveB. it will take a lng time
C. there are n cars D. India is shrt f electricity
69. What des “sucks” underlined in paragraph 4 mst prbably mean in Chinese?
A. 产生 B. 消除 C. 吸收 D. 替代
70. Frm which is the text mst prbably taken?
A. A chemistry bk.B. A sciety magazine.
C. A sprt newspaper.D. A travel ad.
D
The Silk Rad was actually a netwrk f trade rutes(线路) between China and Eurpe. Traders carrying Chinese silk and ther gds fllwed rutes that crssed Eastern Eurpe, the Middle East, Central Asia, and the Far East. Many traders traveled n camels in grups called caravans. In a caravan, fifty r mre camels might travel in a line .
Traveling the Silk Rad culd be unbearable. Warring sldiers, bandits(土匪), and terribly bad weather such as sandstrms trubled the caravans. Caravanserais eased the way fr tired tradesmen. These were huge guest huses that welcmed traveling traders. Caravanserais are n the Silk Rad frm Turkey t China. At a caravanserai, traders were safe frm harm. There, they culd enjy tasty meals, rest, and ready themselves t jurney n.
A caravanserai was prtected with high, strng walls. The ne dr was tall and wide enugh fr a laded pack animal t enter. Alng the inside f the walls were guest rms fr traders, their servants, and their gds. Sme guest huses prvided stables(马厩) fr animals. Others had pen central curtyards where pack animals—hrses, camels, and elephants—drank frm stne water trughs.
Caravanserais were placed within a day’s jurney f each ther. This allwed traders (with their precius silk and ther trade gds) t avid spending nights under the Silk Rad’s bad cnditin. In many places, there was usually a caravanserai every 20 t 25 miles (abut 30 t 40 kilmeters).
A caravanserai prvided mre than a sale place t rest. There, traders culd exchange gds and pack animals, buy lcal prducts, and scialize with ther trade travelers. Thus, the caravanserais prvided places fr peple f diverse cultures t share knwledge abut arts, crafts, literature, science, and technlgies. Over hundreds f years, trade alng the Silk rad allwed cultures, language and religins(宗教) t influence ne anther.
71. Accrding t the text, __________ was nt n the Silk Rad.
A. Eastern Eurpe B. Central Asia C. Far East D. West Eurpe
72. Traders n the Silk Rad may nt meet __________.
A. warring sldiers B. sandstrms C. Caravanserais D. rainstrms
73. What des paragraph 4 mainly tell us?
A. The size f a caravanserais. B. The lcatin f caravanserais.
C. The envirnment f caravanserais.D. The changes f caravanserais.
74. What can we learn abut caravanserais accrding t the passage?
A. There were small huses fr traders t have a shrt rest.
B. The animals were nt allwed t enter the caravanserais.
C. There were high and strng walls prtecting the animals.
D. Caravanserais were imprtant places fr cultural exchange.
75. What is the writer’s purpse t write this article?
A. T describe the bad cnditin n the Silk Rad.
B. T tell what prducts were traded n the Silk Rad.
C. T describe the caravanserais n the Silk Rad.
D. T shw us the histry f the caravanserais.
非选择题部分 共45分
VI．选词填空（10分）
secnd it early when clr
A．阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的单词填空 (每词限用一次)。
Des yur schl have schl buses? Or perhaps yu’ve seen schl buses frm ther schls. Have yu ever nticed that mst schl buses are yellw? Why are they this (76) __________?
First, bright yellw gets ur attentin faster than any ther clr. Many schl buses bring children t schl in the (77) __________mrning hurs. At this time f day, it may still be a little dark. Yellw makes (78) __________easier fr peple t ntice the schl bus.
The (79) __________reasn is abut ur ability t lk ut f the crner f ur eyes. Even when we are lking straight ahead, we can see things t ur left r right. Yellw makes it mre pssible fr peple t be seen than any ther clr. We are 1.24 times mre likely t ntice smething yellw, even (80) __________we’re nt lking straight at it.
B．阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的动词，并用其适当形式填空。有的需要加助动词或不定式符号(每
词限用一次)。
influence like shw be excite
We ften say that dgs are ur best friends. But d they think s t?
D dgs really lve humans? In ne study in 1990, scientists made several dgs smell peple and dgs. Then they tested hw the dgs’ brains (81) __________ by these smells. The study fund that dgs preferred the smell f humans t the smell f ther dgs. The smell f their wners wuld (82) __________ the dgs the mst.
D dgs lve us nly because we feed them? The test turned ut that mst dgs saw praise as imprtant as fd. Sme even (83) __________ praise better than fd. A smile r a “gd by” frm their wner wuld make them happier. In fact, Dgs are happy (84) __________ their feelings abut lve. Here are sme signs f their lve such as wagging（摇） their tails, sleeping in yur bed, bringing yu tys.
Please take gd care f dgs. Perhaps they (85) __________ thankful t us frever!
VII．阅读理解七选五 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。(5分)
We have always been interested in the mn. 2000 years ag peple already knew it mved arund the earth and where it wuld be in the sky at different times f the year. 86.__________
When scientists culd use telescpes(望远镜) t study the mn mre clsely, their ideas began t change.They culd see the mn was made f rcks. 87.__________This was because they believed the mn had nce been a planet that had been caught in the earth’s gravity (引力) millins f years earlier.
88.__________ Much t their surprise, scientists fund that, except fr water, the mn and the earth were made f the same things. Once again new ideas were needed fr this new infrmatin.
89.__________ They believe very early in its histry, maybe 4 millin years ag, smething abut the size f Mars(火星) hit the earth. This sent billins f rcks int space arund ur planet. 90.__________
In the future, even thugh ur ideas abut the mn may change again, we will still be interested in it.
A. In 1969, mn rcks were finally brught t the earth and studied.
B. At that time, everything abut the mn was learned by watching it carefully with eyes.
C. If the mn were as big as the earth, everything wuld be different.
D. After years f study, mst scientists nw think the mn was nce part f the earth.
E. Watching the mn makes yu miss yur hmetwn.
F. These rcks slwly jined tgether and after many years became the mn.
G. Mst scientists thught mn rcks wuld be different frm thse n the earth.
VIII．书面表达（30分）
第一部分 情境运用 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。

91. 92. 93. 94. 95.
91. A: Hw many eggs d we need t make a pie?
B:________________________________________________________.
92. A: What is the man ding?
B: _______________________________________________________.
93. A: Hi, Frank. _______________________________________________?
B: Once a mnth.
94. A: What was the matter with Nick yesterday?
B: _______________________________________________________.
95. A: Is Lucy’s hair as shrt as Lily’s?
B: N.____________________________________________________.
第二部分 写作
孔子云：“三人行必有我师焉。”你的英国笔友Jack不明白这句话的意思，写信向你咨询。假如你是李华，请你向Jack做简单解释并用自己的一个实际经历告诉他这句话的含义。
要求：1. 要点齐全, 并适当发挥；
文中不得出现真实姓名与校名；
100 词左右。开头与结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Jack,
Thanks fr yur letter. I'm very glad t tell yu abut the Chinese saying “Amng any three peple walking, I will find smething t learn fr sure.” _________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
Best wishes
Li Hua
绝密★启用前
2022年九年级学业水平第一次（+）模拟考试
英语试题参考答案（LX 2022.4）
I．1. A2. C 3. C4. B 5.A 6. B 7. A8. B 9. A10. A
11. A 12. C13. B14. B15. C16. A17. A 18. B19. C 20. A
II．21. A22. C23. A24. A25. D 26. B27. C28. A29. C30. C
31. A32. A33. B34. B35. A
III.36. A 37. C 38. C 39. B 40. D 41. A 42. A 43. C44. B45. C
46. B47. A 48. C 49. D 50. B
IV.51. A52. C 53. C54. B55. D
V. 56. C57. A58. D59. A 60. B 61. B 62. D 63. C 64. D65. B
66. B67. A 68. B 69. C 70. B 71. D72. D 73. B 74. D 75. C
VI. 76. clr 77. early 78. it 79. secnd 80. when
81. were influenced 82. excite 83. liked 84. t shw 85. will be
VII．86.B 87. G 88. A 89. D 90. F
VIII．91. We need three eggs (t make a pie).
92.He is reading newspapers/a newspaper.
93. Hw ften d yu play tennis?
94. He had a fever (yesterday).
95. Lucy’s hair is lnger than Lily’s./ Lily’s hair is shrter than Lucy’s. / Lucy has lnger hair than Lily. / Lucy has shrter hair than Lily.
XI．
评分意见：
本试题满分150 分。
第1—20小题，每小题1.5分。凡与答案不同者不给分。
第21—65小题，每小题1分。凡与答案不同者不给分。
第66—80小题，每小题2分。凡与答案不同者不给分。
第VII大题共10分。第81—90小题，每小题1分。凡与答案不同者不给分。
第VIII大题共5分，每空0.5分。符合本答案者给分。如与本答案不同，但语法无错误，改写后的句意符合答题要求，也可给分。
第IX大题共5分，每空0.5分。符合本答案者给分。如与本答案不同，但语法无错误，完成后的句意符合答题要求，也可给分。
第X大题共5分。第101—105小题，每小题1分。凡与答案不同者不给分。
第XI大题 (书面表达) 评分标准：
1）本大题共20分。
2）卷面书写潦草不工整，以至影响交际，可酌情扣1－2分。
3）拼写错误每个扣1分。同样错误不重复计算。
4) 书面表达可分为五个等级:
(1)17－20分：短文内容符合所给提示。语句通顺，语言丰富，书写工整，语法错
误较少（1－2处），字数符合要求。
(2) 13－16分：短文内容基本符合所给提示。语句通顺，语言较丰富，书写工整，
3－4处语法错误，字数基本符合要求。
(3) 9－12分：短文内容基本符合所给提示。语句尚通顺，书写较工整，语法错误
较多，字数在80词左右。
(4) 5－8分：短文内容不太符合所给提示。语句不够通顺，语法错误较多，书写一
般，字数在60词以下。
(5) 4分以下：明显遗漏要点，写了一些无关的内容。语法结构或词汇方面的错误
较多，词不达意。
A WONDERFUL NIGHT AT DA YANG AQUARIUM（海洋馆）
Have yu ever seen sea animals at night? What d they d?
Eat? Sleep? Swim? Let’s g and enjy the happy time. Time: 6:30 p.m.～8:30 p.m. Saturday
Tur A
Tur B
Tur C
Tur D
6:30 p.m.～7:00 p.m.
7:00 p.m.～7:30 p.m.
7:30 p.m.～8:00 p.m.
8:00 p.m.～8:30 p.m.
Walking time
Playing time
Feeding time
Picture﹣taking time
Walking with the
penguins
Playing with the sea turtle
Feeding the fish
Taking pictures with the dlphins