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    2021-2022学年湖北省武汉市钢城第四中学高二下学期期中考试英语试题含答案+听力

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    2021-2022学年湖北省武汉市钢城第四中学高二下学期期中考试英语试题含答案+听力

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    这是一份2021-2022学年湖北省武汉市钢城第四中学高二下学期期中考试英语试题含答案+听力,共11页。试卷主要包含了5分,满分7等内容,欢迎下载使用。
    钢城四中2021—2022(下)期中考试卷
    学科
    英语
    年级
    高二
    命题

    审核
    杨隆
    时间
    120
    分值
    150’

    第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
    第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
    听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
    1. Where is the closest ATM?
    A. In a bank. B. Beside a building. C. On his right.
    2. What will the man probably do next?
    A. Ask the woman for help. B. Fill up the car himself. C. Pay for the gas first.
    3. What are the speakers talking about?
    A. The final exam. B. A sport. C. Computer games.
    4. What is the man doing?
    A. Asking for advice. B. Seeing a doctor. C. Working at home.
    5. What does the woman think of the mountain?
    A. Distant. B. High. C. Attractive.

    第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
    听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
    6. Why does the woman call?
    A. Her TV doesn’t work.
    B. Her TV service is due.
    C. Her TV service bill is wrong.
    7. How much should the bill be actually?
    A. $65. B. $85. C. $45.
    听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
    8. What does Jessica need to use the library?
    A. Her credit card. B. Her student ID. C. Her driver license.
    9. What can Jessica borrow?
    A. Magazines. B. Newspapers. C. Novels.

    听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
    10. What will Linda take for the meal?
    A. Beef. B. Vegetables. C. Fried fish.
    11. How does Mark like the fish to be cooked?
    A. With some cabbage.
    B. With a little more salt.
    C. In sweet and sour sauce.
    12. Who will pay for the bill?
    A. Mark. B. Linda. C. They’ll go Dutch.

    听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
    13. How does the man’s family deal with the garbage?
    A. It’s sorted. B. It’s sold. C. It’s buried.
    14. Where will the man’s wife place the waste food?
    A. Into the garbage can.
    B. Into different containers.
    C. Into the soil in the garden.
    15. What does the man think of living a zero-waste lifestyle now?
    A. Stressful. B. Natural. C. Difficult.
    16. What’s the possible relationship between the speakers?
    A. Host and guest. B. Husband and wife. C. Grandson and grandmother.

    听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
    17. What are the activities aimed at?
    A. Mixing with colleagues. B. Developing team spirit. C. Electing group leaders.
    18. What’s in the backpack?
    A. Water and food. B. Meal tickets. C. Lists of tasks.
    19. What should they do once they find a hidden box?
    A. Hand it in. B. Finish the task. C. Come back here.
    20. Where does the announcement take place?
    A. At a gym. B. At a shop. C. At a cafeteria.

    第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
    第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
    阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
    A
    The process of finding your best fit in a retirement community has improved dramatically over the past decade. Below are some options that will have you get going on a retirement lifestyle that makes every day seem like a vacation.
    Saddle Brooke
    Saddle Brooke is an Active Lifestyle Community with excellent restaurants and a MountainView course for golfers. Saddle Brooke’s Arts Center offers various shows and performances. Fitness centers, basketball and volleyball courts, and swimming pools are just around the corner!
    Lakewood Ranch
    Lakewood Ranch comprises residential villages, parks, educational institutions, town centers, and a center specializing in brain research and cancer care. For three years running, it’s been the fastest-selling, all-ages community in America.
    Dataw Island
    Dataw Island provides beautiful mansions (大厦), independent shops and restaurants. There are two golf courses, eight tennis courts, world-class grasslands, and plentiful social clubs. Residents can also enjoy deep sea fishing in minutes.
    The Forest at Duke
    In the covid-19 era, it’s easy to get lost in separation. But that’s hardly the case at The Forest at Duke, where residents continue to enjoy socially distanced chats with neighbors, the satisfaction of activity in nature, and find belonging in their new home.

    21. For whom is this text written?
    A. Officials. B. Teachers. C. Retirees. D. Travelers.
    22. Which community has a medical research centre?
    A. Saddle Brooke. B. Lakewood Ranch.
    C. Dataw Island. D. The Forest at Duke.
    23. What do Saddle Brooke and Dataw Island have in common?
    A. They suit shopping convenience. B. They offer art performance.
    C. They feature nature activities. D. They provide sports facilities.
    B
    Born Hedwig Eva Maria Kiesler Nov.9,1914, the Austria native took an early interest in the performing arts, but seemed equally fascinated with science and engineering. In 1937, she signed a contract with Hollywood’s Metro-Goldwyn-Mayer studio under the name Hedy Lamarr. Her first film was a great success and soon Lamarr was a household name.
    During her Hollywood years, Lamarr was known for her knowledge on aviation (航空) design and theory. But it wasn’t until 1942 that Lamarr’s innovative thinking inspired a creative invention. In cooperation with composer George Antheil, Lamarr came up with a frequency-hopping (跳频) system that minimized the jamming of radio signals.
    During World War II, Hedy’s mother was trapped in Vienna. It was hard for Hedy to help her mother to get to America because every American ship was getting blown up by the Nazis. So she worked on inventing a remote controlled torpedo (鱼雷) so advanced that it would be able to hunt down and blow up every Nazi submarine in the Atlantic, thus securing safe passage to the US. To make sure the Nazis couldn’t detect the radio signal for her torpedo, she created a “secret communication system” that couldn’t be detected.
    The “secret communication system” employed changing radio frequencies to prevent enemies from interpreting messages. Multiple radio frequencies were used to broadcast a radio signal, which changed frequencies in an apparently random manner. To anyone listening, it would just sound like noise. But the signal would be clear if both the sender and receiver hopped frequencies at the same time.
    Although the technology was never used in wartime, it ended up playing a critical role in communication methods throughout the decades. Many believe that Lamarr’s invention made technology like Wi-Fi, GPS and Bluetooth, as well as devices like cellphones, possible.

    24. What does the underlined words “the jamming of radio signals” in paragraph 2 refer to?
    A. Sending the radio signals. B. Detecting the radio signals.
    C. Receiving the radio signals. D. Boosting the radio signals.
    25. What led Lamarr to invent a new communication system?
    A. Her desire to help her mother out. B. Her interest in performing.
    C. Her contract with a studio. D. Her passion for science.
    26. What does paragraph 4 focus on?
    A. Showing the application of the system. B. Explaining how the system was invented.
    C. Stressing the significance of the system. D. Interpreting how the system functioned.
    27. What can we infer about Hedy Lamarr from the text?
    A. She was very ambitious. B. She promoted communication technology.
    C. She was completely devoted to science. D. She was a productive actress.

    C
    As data and identity theft becomes more and more common, the market is growing for biometric (生物测量) technologies — like fingerprint scans — to keep others out of private e-spaces. At present, these technologies are still expensive, though.
    Researchers from Georgia Tech say that they have come up with a low-cost device that gets around this problem: a smart keyboard. This smart keyboard precisely measures the cadence (节奏) with which one types and the pressure fingers apply to each key. The keyboard could offer a strong layer of security by analyzing things like the force of a user’s typing and the time between key presses. These patterns are unique to each person. Thus, the keyboard can determine people’s identities, and by extension, whether they should be given access to the computer it’s connected to — regardless of whether someone gets the password right.
    It also doesn’t require a new type of technology that people aren’t already familiar with. Everybody uses a keyboard and everybody types differently.
    In a study describing the technology, the researchers had 100 volunteers type the word “touch” four times using the smart keyboard. Data collected from the device could be used to recognize different participants based on how they typed, with very low error rates. The researchers say that the keyboard should be pretty straightforward to commercialize and is mostly made of inexpensive, plastic-like parts. The team hopes to make it to market in the near future.

    28. Why do the researchers develop the smart keyboard?
    A. To cut the cost of e-space protection. B. To improve accuracy in typing.
    C. To replace the password system. D. To reduce pressure on keys.
    29. What makes the invention of the smart keyboard possible?
    A. Computers are much easier to operate.
    B. Fingerprint scanning techniques develop fast.
    C. Data security measures are guaranteed.
    D. Typing patterns vary from person to person.
    30. What do the researchers expect of the smart keyboard?
    A. It’ll be environment-friendly. B. It’ll be made of plastics.
    C. It’ll reach consumers soon. D. It’ll help speed up typing.
    31. Where is this text most likely from?
    A. A diary B. A guidebook. C. A magazine. D. A novel.


    D
    No more wet towels on the bathroom floor, and no more empty juice plastic boxes. No more doors closing at 3 a.m., and no more coming home to a noisy crowd of strangers around the kitchen table. There’s nothing so quiet, says a friend whose youngest has just moved out.
    But if adjusting to an empty nest can be tough, it seems there is one thing tougher: a formerly empty nest that suddenly fills back up again. According to a research from the London School of Economics (LSE), parents whose grown-up children don’t actually manage to leave — who move out, only to bounce right back again — are actually less happy than those whose fledglings (幼鸟) heartlessly fly off without a backward glance. The quality of life for parents of boomerang kids fell on average by about 0.8 points on the LSE researchers’ scale.
    A quarter of young British adults now live with their parents, more than at anytime since records began in 1966. But more shockingly, this is no longer just about the young. Around a quarter of a million people aged between 35 and 44 still live at home with their parents and the idea that that can all be blamed on helicopter parents making it too easy for their little darlings not to grow up isn’t logical. Midlife divorce, insecure gig economy work and straightforward poverty all play their part in driving what were once perfectly functioning grown-ups back to their teenage bedrooms.
    These kids are admittedly luckier than those for whom going back home is sadly not an option. But when choosing to live with your mum is the only way of coping with an insecure job, or with the costs of renting in the city, then that’s not much of a choice. Home is still the place where, when you have to go there, they have to take you in. But a healthy and successful society shouldn’t be sending quite many overgrown children hurrying back for shelter, and nor should it leave quite many parents feeling bad about it.

    32. What can we know from the first two paragraphs?
    A. More youngsters are leaving their parents. 
    B. Parents expect their children to live together.
    C. The quality of life for those parents is declining.
    D. Adults dislike returning to their original home.
    33. Why do these boomerang kids circle back home?
    A. To accompany elderly parents. B. To avoid their life pressure.
    C. To recall their childhood memory. D. To help parents adapt to the empty nest.
    34. What is the author’s attitude to this trend?
    A. Disapproving. B. Confused. C. Tolerant. D. Favorable.
    35. What’s the best title for the text?
    A. How do parents help their kids? B. What concerns grown-ups?
    C. Does the empty nest matter? D. Is the nest really empty?

    第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
    阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
    If anyone had told me three years ago that I would be spending most of my weekends camping, I would have laughed heartily. Campers, in my eyes, were people who enjoyed insect bites, ill-cooked meals, and uncomfortable sleeping bags. They had nothing in common with me. 36   
    The friends who introduced me to camping thought that it meant to be a pioneer. 37    We slept in a tent, cooked over an open fire, and walked a long distance to take the shower and use the bathroom. This brief visit with Mother Nature cost me two days off from work, recovering from a bad case of sunburn and the doctor’s bill for my son’s food poisoning.
    I was, nevertheless, talked into going on another fun-filled holiday in the wilderness. __38  Instead, we had a pop-up camper with comfortable beds and an air conditioner. My nature-loving friends had remembered to bring all the necessities of life.
    39  We have done a lot of it since. Recently, we bought a twenty-eight-foot travel trailer (房车) complete with a bathroom and a built-in TV set. There is a separate bedroom, a modern kitchen with a refrigerator. The trailer even has matching carpet and curtains.
    40   It must be true that sooner or later, everyone finds his or her way back to nature. I recommend that you find your way in style.
    A. Things are going to be improved.
    B. This time there was no tent.
    C. The trip they took me on was a rough one.
    D. I must say that I have certainly come to enjoy camping.
    E. I was to learn a lot about camping since then, however.
    F. There was no shade as the trees were no more than 3 feet tall.
    G. After the trip, my family became quite interested in camping.


    第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
    第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
    阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
    On a Sunday morning, Tim Abernathy walked off the dance floor at the Barn Dance and sat down in a chair to rest with his wife, Rachel. Then something felt wrong. His  41  got tight, then tighter. He grabbed Rachel’s hand, then 42  to the floor.
    “His eyes had  43  back,” said Rachel. “His lips were getting darker.” The band stopped playing. People started yelling, but nobody  44  to act.
    Someone  45  did. It was Johnny “Digger” Tucker. He swiped (挥动) his fingers through Tim’s mouth, thinking he could be choking. He started beating on Tim’s chest and began mouth-to-mouth. More  46 . More mouth-to-mouth. Then finally, Tim  47  a breath. The paramedics came, and Johnny quietly left.
    “If Johnny hadn’t been there, I would be  48  my husband now, ” said Rachel. Folks say Johnny Tucker is the type of man you’d call at 2 a. m. Maybe it’s because he knows more than most how  49  life is. Every day, he faces  50 .
    Johnny is a gravedigger. He has dug the final resting places for about 20,000 people, each grave  51  a half feet deep in  52 , frozen ground. “I treat everybody as if it were my family I’m burying,” he said. He is so respected that funeral directors arrange their schedules around his  53 .
    So maybe it’s not  54  that Johnny often finds himself in a position to lend a hand. That night Johnny and his wife were  55  when the band played an old song. They turned around for one more slow dance. Minutes later, the gravedigger saved a life.
    41. A. fingers B. muscle C. throat D. stomach
    42. A. landed B. crashed C. jumped D. settled
    43. A. rolled B. narrowed C. dropped D. rubbed
    44. A. backed off B. set out C. moved on D. stepped forward
    45. A. gradually B. instantly C. obviously D. eventually
    46. A. yelling B. pushing C. pounding D. weighing
    47. A. held B. drew C. felt D. heard
    48. A. abandoning B. joining C. burying D. hiding
    49. A. easy B. simple C. extraordinary D. precious
    50. A. trouble B. death C. sadness D. fortune
    51. A. measuring B. covering C. monitoring D. crossing
    52. A. ruined B. vast C. protected D. hard
    53. A. popularity B. availability C. generosity D. responsibility
    54. A. common B. reasonable C. surprising D. desperate
    55. A. leaving B. walking C. dancing D. talking

    第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
    阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
    Anyone who’s visited the Terracotta Warriors will know that they are colorless, looking like they’ve just been unearthed from the ground. But you may be surprised 56 (learn) that they’re not showing their “true colors” at all. An 57 (exhibit) which opened on August 30 in Xi’an displays 121 colored terracotta relics, 58 (date) back from the Qin Dynasty to the Yuan Dynasty.
    The colors on the exhibited sculptures include 59 is known as the “Chinese purple”, which wasn’t a natural paint 60 a man-made compound (化合物). It was expensive to produce the ____61 (mystery) color in large quantities, so the use of Chinese purple 62 (consider) a symbol of luxury and status. And it was most famously used on the terracotta soldiers.
    However, the color had never been successfully preserved on the famous soldiers 63 the 1990s, when a lotion (乳液) was invented to apply to the surface of the sculptures as soon as they were unearthed. Previously, the color faded quickly the minute the statues were exposed to the air.
    The warriors 64 (draw) great attention since they were first displayed to the public, and ____65 (hopeful), more colorful pottery figures will be discovered in the future.
    第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
    第一节 (满分15分)
    你校计划举行一次英文短视频(video clips)展示,你受学生会委托在校英文报上写一则通知,呼吁同学们提交作品,内容包括:
    1. 视频主题:校园生活;
    2. 视频时长:3分钟以内;
    3. 提交邮箱:Englishvideoclips@163.com。
    注意:
    1. 写作词数应为80左右;
    2. 可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
    3. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
    English Video Clips Wanted




    第二节 (满分25分)
    阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
    No Time
    With a broad smile on her lips, 15-year old Lily rushed to her mom to show off her new painting. But mom raised her eyebrows with eyes wide open, and spoke in an impatient tone, “No time, baby. Right now I am busy with an important talk. Just wait for some time, OK?”
    Holding her oil painting, she frowned, and then searched for her dad.
    “Dad, see what I have done,” Lily announced aloud in a thrilling voice. Her dad turned around while adjusting his tie, grinned at her, and showed his thumbs up!
    Immediately, blowing her two cheeks, Lily replied angrily, “Dad, you haven’t seen it yet.”
    He smiled at her saying, “No time, baby. I will see it later.” He just patted her back lovingly, kissed her forehead, and rushed for his office.
    She was not a kid to be pleased with simple gesture or smile. She stood there for a few seconds, and then stormed off to her own bedroom. Hot air was blowing from her nostrils (鼻孔); her face turned into apple red. She threw the painting on the table, slammed (把……砰地关上) the door and threw herself on her bed.
    “Why is everybody so busy?” She recalled thousands of incidents that hurt her in pre-school, middle school and even in high school too! She assumed at least her own family members would give some values to her thoughts, but they were no exception. Unconsciously, her eyes were filled with tears.
    The knocking sound on the door put a sudden brake to her thought. Her mom was calling her for dinner. Lily deliberately came late to join them. She kept silent and didn’t look at anyone, scratching the table mat with her nail. Her mom was puzzled at the unusual behavior. Suddenly, the morning incident clicked in her mind. Softly, she asked, “Honey, did I do anything wrong?”
    注意:
    1. 续写词数应为150左右;
    2. 续写部分分为两段,每段的开头语已为你写好。
    3. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
    Paragraph 1:
    At this very moment, Lily could no longer resist her anger.








    Paragraph 2:
    When back from school the next day, Lily was surprised to see her beautifully-decorated paining on the wall.








    高二英语期中答案
    第一部分 听力
    1-5 BBAAC 6-10 CABCC 11-15 CAACB 16-20 ABABC

    第二部分 阅读
    第一节 21-23 CBD 24-27 BADB 28-31 ADCC 32-35 CBAD
    第二节 36-40 ECBGD

    第三部分 语言运用
    第一节 41-45 CBADD 46-50 CBCDB 51-55 ADBCA
    第二节
    56. to learn 57. exhibition 58. dating 59. what 60. but
    61. mysterious 62. was considered 63. until/before 64. have drawn 65. hopefully

    第四部分 写作
    第一节
    English Video Clips Wanted
    In an effort to raise students’ interest in learning English and enrich the campus life, the school is going to launch an English video clip exhibition. Whoever is interested is welcome to participate.
    The video clip is supposed to mainly focus on the colorful campus life. The contents may range from the sharing of campus life moments to campus landscape sightseeing. Meanwhile, participants must see to it that every clip is no longer than 3 minutes. If interested, please submit your video clips to Englishvideoclips@163. com.
    Your works are urgently wanted. Looking forward to your active participation!

    第二节
    At this very moment, Lily could no longer resist her anger. “Why is everybody so busy?” she roared, tears streaming down. She assumed that her mom and dad would be proud of her great talent and would appreciate her painting but... She was deeply hurt with everybody having “no time” for her. “I hate you!” She screamed, nearly choked. Out of great anger, she grabbed the painting on the table and tore it in half. Shocked, mom quickly rose to her feet. She wrapped her arms around her tightly, comforting her with care and patience, “Baby, I am so sorry! I promise we will try our best to make it right.”
    When back from school the next day, Lily was surprised to see her beautifully-decorated painting on the wall. It was beautifully framed, accompanied by the touching words “We are so proud of you, our little angle!” On seeing it, she burst out crying. She ran to her mom and hugged her tightly and was fully aware of her mom’s love. Her dad stood there, nodding with a big smile. Recalling her mom’s stress from work and daily life, she was regretting her previous behavior. She looked up with watery eyes, apologizing, “Sorry, mom!Sorry, Dad!” It dawned on them that in a family, it was proper attention and mutual understanding that help build a strong bond.

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