2021菏泽高一下学期期末考试英语试题含答案

这是一份2021菏泽高一下学期期末考试英语试题含答案，共14页。试卷主要包含了5分，满分7等内容，欢迎下载使用。
2020-2021学年度第二学期期末考试
高一英语试题（B）
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，请先将答案标在试卷上，听力部分结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. When was the band practice held?
A. On Wednesday. B. On Thursday. C. On Friday.
2. Where can the woman get a brochure about Africa?
A. In a store. B. On the Internet. C. In the post office.
3. What did the man enjoy about the play?
A. The dialogue. B. The set design. C. The performances.
4. What does the man suggest about the computer?
A. Getting a new one. B. Restarting it. C. Having it repaired.
5. Why does the man drink black coffee?
A. It smells sweet.
B. It tastes bitter.
C. It prevents him from falling asleep.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Husband and wife.
B. Brother and sister.
C. Shop assistant and customer.
7. Why does the man choose a green scar?
A. It is his favorite color.
B. It matches his wife’s eyes.
C. It is recommended by the woman.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. Where does the conversation take place?
A. At an office. B. On a train. C. In a police station.
9. How does the woman feel?
A. Ashamed. B. Pleased. C. Angry.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. Who is in the framed photographs?
A. Julie’s nephew.
B. The woman’s grandson.
C. The man’s grandmother.
11. What does the man remove from the package?
A. A sweater.
B. A couple of books.
C. A few chocolate bars.
12. What shipping option does the man choose?
A. Priority. B. Standard. C. Overnight.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Where does the man live?
A. In Atlanta. B. In Springfield. C. At North Haverbrook.
14. Who likes to go shopping?
A. The man. B. The man’s wife. C. The man’s daughters.
15. What is the man afraid of?
A. Leaving the city. B. Going to the theater. C. Losing his community.
16. What is the main topic of the conversation?
A. How colorful city life can be.
B. How the malls will affect the town.
C. How a small town compares with a big city.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. Who can enter the competition?
A. A 15-year-old student.
B. A 20-year-old driver.
C. A 25-year-old cook.
18. Where was the event announced?
A. At a store. B. At a school. C. At a restaurant.
19. How many areas are involved in the competition?
A. Four. B. Five. C. Six.
20. What must you first do if you want to enter?
A. Send a photo. B. Send some food. C. Send a letter
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中选出最佳选项。
A
Still seeking a destination for your holiday? We want to inform you of four best places that are probably a mere walk away from your home.
Highlands
This Scottish destination, only accessible on foot or by boat, is Britain’s last wilderness. Over a week, you’ll hike into the Black Hills, cross the peninsula north to south and set sail for hikes on Skye, Rum and Eigg. Finish each day at a beach-side-lodge（小屋）, with dinner at the award-winning restaurant next door.
Snowdonia
The Snowdonia Way, the only low-level long-distance route, was only created in 2017, and remains unnoticed on the ground. Join the new guided walking trip and you won’t need to concentrate on directions, just the fine views as you pass falls, forests, riversides and Roman roads.
Hadrian’s Wall
Walking along Hadrian’s Wall is like travelling back in time—and even more so if you do it in expert company. Andante’s hike along the ancient brier is accompanied by a historian every step of the way, who will point out every Roman road, fort, milecastle and inscription, and tell you all about Hadrian’s tactics and Roman daily life.
Dorset
The Isle of Purbeck is ideal for families: the walking is relatively gentle; the beaches are beautiful; the range of other attractions varied; and the buses handy, if little legs get tired. Over a few days, mix rambling（漫步）he coast and hills (routes are around five or six mile) with steam train rides and sea swims, playing knights at ruined Corfe Castle and fossil-hunting at Kimmeridge Bay.
21. What can we know about Highlands?
A. It is a guided trip. B. It is very modern.
C. It can be reached by bus. D. It provides quality dinner.
22. Which of the following is the best choice for families?
A. Highlands. B. Snowdonia. C. Hadrian’s Wall. D. Dorset.
23. What do the four travel routes have in common?
A. They are all high-level routes.
B. They are all walking routes.
C. Their destinations are the same.
D. They are helpful to learn about history.
B
If you are a teenager without a job, you probably do not have much extra money. Sometimes parents will give their children pocket money for doing small housework, but it is often not enough once the children grow into teenagers and want to do things with their friends all of the time. How to make money is an important thing for teens to learn. If you’re wondering how a teenager can make good money, some ideas might be:
Getting a part-time job at a local restaurant or store is always a sure way to make money as a teen. But getting a job somewhere like this might be bard, considering many jobs in local stores are being taken by adults more and more often.
Doing landscaping（绿化）is something that most adults do not like to do, and teens can usually find jobs around their neighborhood doing the landscaping of friends and family.
Some teens are good at something such as writing or photography. These teens can make money by doing things such as writing articles for newspapers or magazines or selling their photos online.
Teens who live in a country area can earn money by helping out on farms, or they can try raising their own animals such as chickens, and selling them or their products.
Looking for jobs can seem hard at first, but if you have a try, it should not be too hard to find a job or way to make money.
24. What problem do teenagers have to face when finding a job in local stores?
A. Heavy work. B. Low pay.
C. Long working hours. D. Competition with adults.
25. What can we learn from the text?
A. Most adults hate doing landscaping.
B. Getting a part-time job is hard for teens.
C. Pocket money from parents is often enough for teens.
D. Teens can’t make money by writing articles for newspapers or magazines.
26. Which is easier for most teens from the country to earn extra money?
A. Writing articles. B. Jobs in stores.
C. Doing landscaping. D. Jobs in restaurants.
27. What is the text mainly about?
A. How important is money to a teenager?
B. How can a teenager make extra money?
C. Teenagers should depend on themselves.
D. The necessary skills to make extra money.
C
Scientists have long known that a crow（乌鸦）native to New Caledonia is able to use tools. The birds use them to remove food from deep holes. Now, American researchers have discovered a second species of crow with the same ability. They reported on their experiments with Alala crows, which are from the Hawaiian Islands.
In the experiment, the researchers placed pieces of food in holes inside the wood. The holes were too deep for the crows to reach with their beaks（鸟喙）. But, by using small pieces of wood held in their beaks, Alala crows quickly got the food. They used small objects as tools, sometimes changing them by shortening too-long sticks. They also made tools from plant materials.
“The crows use their beaks as people use fingers. Tool use is rare in the animal kingdom.” Said Chritian Rutz of University of St. Andrews. “Current evidence strongly suggests that tool use is part of the species’ natural behavioral pattern. These birds had no special training in the study, yet most of them were skilled at handling stick tools.”
Bird experts claim finding out that the crows use tools is important discovery. “It makes us rethink how to look at the whole tool-use idea now and encourages us to go out and look for things that we may have ignored before.”
All the Alala crows left in the world live in Hawaii. There were less than 20 Alalas left in the late 1990s when scientists decided to bring them into a protected area. Now, it is reported that there are over 100 birds living there. Scientists plan to release a small number of the birds back into the wild later.
28. What can Alala crows do according to the study?
A. Storing food in the wood.
B. Making holes in the wood.
C. Processing tools as needed.
D. Working together to get food.
29. What do Chritian Rutz’s words mean?
A. Alala crows’ beaks look like people’s hands.
B. Using stick tools is not easy for Alala crows.
C. Using tools comes naturally to Alala crows.
D. Alala crows won’t use tools without being trained.
30. What do scientists plan to do with Alala crows?
A. Set some of them free in nature. B. Increase the population of them.
C. Move all of them out of Hawaii. D. Build more protected areas for them.
31. Where does the text probably come from?
A. A novel. B. A business report.
C. A research plan. D. A science magazine.
D
A work of art created by artificial intelligence (AI) has been sold by a major at seller for the first time. The print sold for an unexpectedly large amount of $432, 500. The artwork was bought during an auction（拍卖）Thursday at Christie’s, an art house, in New York City. Officials had predicted it would sell for between $7, 000 and $10, 000.
In a website post, Christie’s said the AI-created work was the first ever sold by a major auction house. It praised the sale as a signal of “the arrival of AI art on the world auction stage.”
The artwork, called “Portrait（肖像）of Edmond Belamy,” was made by a machine learning algorithm（算法）. The AI system was created by members of an art group called Obvious in Paris, France. It shows the portrait of a man, looking similar to subjects shown in historical paintings. Christie’s described some differences of the AI-created work compared to other art it sells. For example, it said some parts of the face were not as clearly drawn as those painted by artists. Also some parts of the print were left empty. However, Christie’s sale organizer Richard Lloyd said the piece was very similar to many others sold over many years.
Three creators from the art group Obvious cooperated on the process that made the print. First they put a collection of 15,000 portraits into a machine learning system. The portraits were painted by artists from the time period between the 14th and 20th centuries. Then a tool called the “Generator” made a new image based on the information entered into the system. After that, another tool, called a “Discriminator”, attempted to find differences between the human-made image and the one created by the Generator. Then the image was improved. “The aim is to fool the Discriminator into thinking that the new images are real-life portraits. Then we have a result.” Obvious group member Hugo Caselles-dupre said in a statement.
32. What can be inferred from the text?
A. The AI portrait received much recognition.
B. There is little true artistic value in AI artwork.
C. Technology will one day replace human artists.
D. There is no similar AI system for art at present.
33. What does the underlined word “subjects” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Artists. B. Figures.
C. Machines. D. Techniques.
34. What is the final purpose of a “Discriminator”?
A. To help the portrait more like a human made one.
B. To select useful information from real-life portraits.
C. To create a portrait based on paintings by human artists.
D. To put human portraits into the machine learning system.
35. What can be a suitable title for the text?
A. The Secret of AI B. AI Portrait Sold
C. Artwork and AI D. AI Art at Christie’s
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
The success of any group will largely depend upon the ability of the members to get along. 36 Therefore, it is a good idea to practice a few basic communication skills, the most important of which is listening.
37 Hearing is simply having sound waves enter our cars and be translated as noise to our brain. Listening is the act of translating that noise as something meaningful.
“Active listening” refers to making an effort to listen to一and understand 一someone who is speaking to us. 38 Feedback can be verbal or nonverbal. We might nod our head or say something such as “yes, absolutely” to show our understanding. Keeping eye contact（交流）is also to show we’re paying attention. This feedback serves to make the speakers more comfortable. 39
One of the most important things: putting down your phone and avoiding other distractions 40 That’s the only way you’ll be able to truly listen and understand what’s being said. You need to be present in the conversation. Avoid interrupting the speaker. Focus on what they are saying and how they are saying it. So you can translate the full meaning.
A. Give the other person your full attention.
B. One way of active listening is giving feedback.
C. There is a difference between hearing and listening.
D. It makes sense that there are so many misunderstandings.
E. That actually will not happen without good communication.
F. Listening is the mental act of translating that sound into thoughts.
G. As a result, they might tell us more than they’d originally planned.
第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
The books in David’s schoolbag felt like bricks as he ran down the street. What he wanted to do was play basketball with Eric, 41 his mother told him he would have to return his sister’s books to the library first.
He went into the building; only a few minutes 42 closing time. He put the books into the return box. And after a brief 43 in the toilet, he would be on his way to the playground to 44 Eric.
David stepped out of the toilet and stopped in 45 —the library lights were off. The place was 46 . The doors had been shut. They 47 be opened from the inside: he was trapped—in a library!
He tried to 48 a telephone call but was unable to 49 . As the sun began to set, he searched for a light and found it.
50 he could see. David wrote on a piece of paper: “ 51 ! I’m TRAPPED inside!” and stuck it to the glass door. Surely, someone passing by would see it.
He was surprised to discover that this place was not so unpleasant, 52 . Rows and rows of shelves held books, videos and music. He saw a book about Michael Jordan and took it off the shelf. He settled into a chair and started to 53 .
He knew he had to 54 , but now, that didn’t seem to be such a 55 thing.
41. A. or B. because C. but D. since
42. A. before B. after C. over D. during
43. A. rest B. walk C. stop D. break
44. A. visit B. greet C. catch D. meet
45. A. delight B. surprise C. anger D. eagerness
46. A. lonely B. crowded C. noisy D. empty
47. A. wouldn’t B. shouldn’t C. couldn’t D. needn’t
48. A. fix B. make C. use D. pick
49. A. get through B. getup C. get on D. get in
50. A. On time B. At last C. By the way D. Now and then
51. A. Come B. Sorry C. Hello D. Help
52. A. after all B. at most C. in short D. as usual
53. A. watch B. play C. write D. read
54. A. sleep B. shout C. wait D. work
55. A. bad B. cool C. strange D. nice
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
With smiling eyes, a quick wit and a good sense of humor, Jia Ling has long been a well-known female comedian（喜剧演员）for her 56 (extreme) funny performances. But recently, she has gained another title.
Jia starred in and directed the film Hi, Mom, 57 a time-travel story is told. The film was considered as the leading dark horse among the 58 (movie) released（上映）during the seven-day Spring Festival holiday is in memory 59 her late mother Li Huanying, who encouraged Jia to pursue her artistic dreams. By Feb 23, 2021, it had earned more than 4 billion yuan, enabling Jia 60 (become) the top box office grossing female film director in China. Now she is on the path to becoming 61 international name in the filmmaking industry.
So what is the secret behind Jia’s success? One factor may be her passion for comedy. Ever since Jia 62 (admit) to Bejing’s Central Academy of Drama in 2001, she 63 (perform) crosstalk（相声）in various competitions and shows. She has also played comedic roles in many comedies on the big screen. Besides, the approach to 64 (make) the film also makes her work stand out. We’ll wait and see whether Jia will become one of the 65 (popular) directors in China.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假如你是李华，一名高一学生，你的英国笔友John两周前通过电子邮件询问你暑假里的打算，但你因准备期末考试未能及时回复。请给他回封邮件，内容包括：
1. 未及时回信的原因；
2. 你暑假的打算。
注意：
1. 写作词数应为80左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear John,
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
When I was in seventh grade, my parents paid a tutor（家庭教师）forty dollars a week for her coming to my house and helping me with math. It ended up raising my marks from fifty to fifty-five.
I had to admit it was mainly my fault. Maybe I should have concentrated my math from the beginning. But studying math was a tough thing. Sitting on a chair to work on confusing math problems for two hours was a slow and painful process. During the process I would fidget（坐立不安）and have many trips to the refrigerator in an attempt to get off that chair for at least five minutes.
During math tests, my teachers would always stay by my desk. My teachers and friends would frequently ask the question after tests, “How’s your math this time?” So I became extremely afraid of math. While normal people of my age were scared of some insects and adventurous travels, I feared anything to do with numbers. The thought of a teacher picking on me in class made me feel scared. The red marks on the test paper were also terrifying.
My fear of math got worse in ninth grade. Every report card I received from my new math teacher Ms Robbins had the comment to encourage me, “I’m glad to do what I can to help you.” But I couldn’t tell her the real reason why I didn’t ask for help—I didn’t want to be considered stupid. Every question I had was, in my opinion at the time, something that the whole class had understood but I. So instead, I ended up not caring about anything related to math, without working hard on math at al And I concluded everything would work out in the end.
Eventually, my classmates and I took the final test that would lead to our graduation from middle school and stepping into high school. Days after the exam一on a rainy summer morning, Ms. Robbins called me.
注意：
1. 续写的词数应为150左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
With worry and uncertainty, I entered her office.
After I took the courage to tell my parents the bad news, they were silent.


高一英语试题（B）参考答案
第一部分 听力（共20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1—5 ABCBC 6—10 CBBAA 11—15 CABCC 16—20 BACBA
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，20小题，每小题2.5分，满分50分）
21—23 DDB 24—27 DACB 28—31 CCAD 32—35 ABAB 36—40 ECBGA
第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41—45 CACDB 46—50 DCBAB 51—55 DADCA
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56. extremely 57. where 58. movies 59. of 60. to become
61. an 62. was admitted 63. has performed 64. making 65. most popular
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 应用文写作（满分15分）
One possible version:
Dear John,
How is everything going? I feel terribly sorry for not answering your letter in time. I’ve been preparing for the final exams these days, so I forgot to write back.
About the summer vocation, a part-time job is my first choice. It can not only bring me money, but also broaden my horizons. Besides, I want to visit some scenic spots with friends. Doing voluntary work is also included in my plan.
I’m interested in your plan too. Looking forward to your reply.
Yours,
Li Hua
应用文写作评分标准
一、评分原则
1． 本题总分为15分，按以下5个档次给分。
2．评分时，应主要从内容组织、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）对内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性。
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3． 评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4． 评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于60或多于100的，从总分中减去2分。
（2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写和词汇用法均可接受。
（3）书写较差以至影响交际的，将分数降低一个档次。
二、内容要点
1． 未及时回信的原因；
2． 你暑假的打算。
三、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档：（13-15分）能写明全部要点；语言基本无误；行文连贯，表达清楚；
第四档：（10-12分）能写明全部或绝大部分要点；语言有少量错误；行文不够连贯，表达基本清楚；
第三档：（7-9分）能写明基本要点；语言虽有较多错误，但基本达意；
第二档：（4-6分）能写出部分要点；语言错误多，影响意思表达；
第一档：（1-3分）只能写出一两个要点；语言错误很多，只有个别句子正确。
第二节 读后续写（满分25分）
One possible version:
Paragraph 1
With worry and uncertainty, I entered her office. After asking me to sit down, she told me that I failed the math test. And she suggested that I should spend another year in middle school if I wanted to be admitted to a relatively good high school. I burst into tears when I heard the news. Seeing that, Ms. Robbins came to comfort and encourage me, and said she’d like to offer any help if necessary. After leaving her office, I was anxious, wondering how to tell the bad news to my parents.
Paragraph 2
After I took the courage to tell my parents the bad news, they were silent. My body shook, waiting for their blame. However, they encouraged me to have another try in ninth grade. It was then that I determined to take math seriously. The following day, I turned to Ms Robbins for help and told her about my determination. Ms. Robbins was happy that I finally decided to work hard on math. Thanks to her patient guidance, I made great progress and was not afraid of math any more. Finally, I made my way to a good high school and a university. Now I’m a doctor and I’ m proud of myself.
读后续写评分标准
一、评分原则
1． 本题总分为25分，按七个档次给分。
2． 评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）续写内容的质量、完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
（2）所使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3． 评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4． 评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于120的，酌情扣分；
（2）书写较差，以至影响交际的，酌情扣分。
（3）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写和词汇用法均可接受。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
档次
描述
第七档
（22-25分）
—创造了新颖、丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高；
—使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达流畅，语言错误少，且完全不影响理解；
—自然有效地使用了段落间、语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，前后呼应，意义连贯。
第六档
（18-21分）
—创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度教高；
—使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达比较流畅，有个别错误，但不影响理解；
—比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第五档
（15-17分）
—创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关；
—使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达方式不够多样性，表达有些许错误，但基本不影响理解；
—使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第四档
（11-14分）
—创造了基本完整的故事内容，但有的情节不够合理或逻辑性不强，与原文情景基本相关；
—使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有部分语言错误和不恰当之处，个别部分影响理解；
—尚有语句衔接的意识，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第三档
（6-10分）
—内容和逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文有一定程度脱节；
—所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误教多且比较低级，影响理解；
—未能有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义欠连贯。
第二档
（1-5分）
—内容和逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情景基本脱节；
—所使用的词汇非常有限，语法结构单调，错误极多，严重影响理解；
—几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不连贯。
第一档
（0分）
未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法判断；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。
听力原文
Text 1
W: Where were you on Wednesday?
M: I’m sorry I couldn’t make it to the weekly band practice. I had exams on Thursday and Friday.
W: Oh, I see. Well, I’ll see you next week then.
Text 2
W: My husband and I are thinking of going on a holiday to Africa. Do you have a brochure I could take home?
M: All of our brochures can be found on our website. We used to send them by post but we’ve stopped that now.
Text 3
W: What amused you the most about the play last night? I loved the dialogue.
M: I liked the performances, especially the actress, but the set design needed more work. It was too simple.
Text 4
W: My new computer has frozen. My old one had the same problem before.
M: I find that if I turn mine off and on again, it solves the problem. Try that.
W: OK. I hope it doesn’t need to be repaired.
Text 5
W: I like to drink black coffee because it has such a bitter taste.
M: I hate the taste. I need to add lots of sugar to make it sweet. The only reason I drink it is to stay awake.
Text 6
M: Excuse me. I’m looking for a scarf and glove set for my wife’s birthday.
W: OK, do you have a color or style in mind?
M: She wants it to match her eyes, so green.
W: My favorite color. We have a few.
M: Nothing too long. She lost her last one because it caught in the car door.
W: No. Something similar happened to my sister, but with her jacket. It got dragged along the street and ruined.
M: That’s awful.
W: I know. OK, how about this set?
M: It’s lovely.
W: And not too expensive.
Text 7
M: Can I see your ticket, please?
W: Oh, I left it at the office.
M: Then you will need to buy one.
W: But I have a season ticket.
M: Unless you have it on you, you’re not allowed to travel.
W: I’ve left my purse at home. I didn’t need it today.
M: Then you will have to pay a fine. What is your name, please? If you don’t give me your name, I’ll need to phone the police.
W: Please don’t. It is such a shame. My husband is a police officer. He’ll be angry at me.
Text 8
M: I’d like to send this package to my daughter Julie in Australia.
W: Certainly, sir. You can just place it on the weighing machine there.
M: It’s quite heavy.
W: What does the package contain?
M: Christmas presents from our family.
W: What sort of presents?
M: There’s a sweater her grandmother made, some framed photos of her nephew, a couple of books and a few chocolate bars.
W: I’m afraid you cannot send food items to Australia via the post.
M: OK, let me just take those out.
W: So standard mail will be £30, priority is £50 and overnight is £70.
M: Will standard arrive before Christmas?
W: I couldn’t make sure of it as standard can take up to 14 days. Priority will take 3 to 5 business days, though.
M: Fine, go with the latter one then.
Text 9
W: So William, you have lived in Springfield your entire life. What’s it like growing up here?
M: It’s quiet and peaceful. Everyone knows everyone. It’s a real community, not like big cities like Atlanta.
W: So you don’t like the city?
M: I wouldn’t put it quite like that. My wife likes to go to the theater, and our daughters go shopping there.
W: What did you think when new malls were being built at the edge of your town?
M: I had mixed feelings. On the one hand, it gave a lot of the local people a job building it.
W: And on the other hand?
M: Once it’s built, those big stores will probably put local shops out of business. I’m afraid it will turn Springfield into a ghost town. Just look what happened at North Haverbrook.
W: What happened there?
M: They got a big shopping mall, and then the local people started moving away because they lost their jobs and businesses.
Text 10
Young people aged 6 to 19 have the chance to shine in the kitchen with the Young Cooks competition. The cookery contest is held every year and it aims to find the best young cooking talent in the region. The competition was announced at The Dog Restaurant, at Wingham, where the judges spoke of their pride and excitement at being involved in the event. Schools and families in Kent, Medway, Bexley, Sussex and London can enter the competition. Those taking part are required to create and cook one or two dishes and then take a photograph of the meal. Pictures and details of how to make the food must be uploaded to the Young Cooks website before the January 7 deadline. A £500 prize pot will be shared between the winners of the primary school, family and secondary school categories and one overall champion. For more information and to enter, visit the Young Cooks website.