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2021河南省六市高三下学期4月第二次联合调研检测英语试题含答案
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这是一份2021河南省六市高三下学期4月第二次联合调研检测英语试题含答案，共13页。试卷主要包含了保持卡面清洁，不折叠，不破垓，考试结束，将答题卡交回等内容，欢迎下载使用。
2021年河南省六市高三第二次联考
英 语
注意事项：
1.答题前，考生务必将本人的姓名、准考证号等考生信息填写在答题卡上，并将条形码 准确粘贴在条为玛区域内.考试时间：120分许，满分：150分。
2.选择题零案使用2B铅笔填涂，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号；非 选择题答案使用0.5毫米的黑色墨水签字笔书写，字体工整、笔迹清楚。
3.请按照题号在各题的答题区域（黑色线框）内作答.超出答题区域书写的答案无效。
4.保持卡面清洁，不折叠，不破垓。
5.考试结束，将答题卡交回.
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案 转涂到各题卡上.
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7. 5分）
听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题.从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳 选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题.每段对话 仅读一遍。
1. What will the speakers do tonight?
A. Visit Mary. B. Go out of town. C. Host a dinner.
2. How does the woman go to work this week?
A. By car. B. By bike. C. On foot.
3. What time does Dave's meeting start?
A. At 8,30. B. At 9：00. C. At 10：00.
4. What is Helen going to do?
A. Buy some books. B. Study in the library. C. Attend a history class.
5. What is the woman's feeling now?
A. Relief. B. Regret. C. Embarrassment.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1. 5分，满分々2. 5分）
听下面5段对话或独白.每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选 项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟，听完 后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间.每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题.
6. What is Tom busy doing?
A. Raising money. B. Writing a lab report. C. Giving classes to children.
7, Who might be able to help Tom this week?
A. Mike. B. Cathy C. Jane.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题.
8. Why is Jack leaving early?
A. To avoid getting stuck in traffic.
B. To enjoy the scenery on the way.
C. To buy some gifts for his family.
9, What does Judy often do at the railway station?
A. Read books. B. Call some friends. C. Look around the shops.
10. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. What to do next year.
B. Where to go for vacations.
C. How to pass the waiting time.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11, Why does Bill look troubled?
A. He is short of money.
B. He has made a big mistake.
C. He is facing a tough choice.
12. What is Bill now?
A. A college student. B. An army officer. C. A computer engineer.
13. What does the woman seem to suggest Bill do?
A. Learn to repair cars. B. Decline the job offer. C. Ask his uncle for advice.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14. What is the woman recommending to the man?
A. A writer. B. A club. C. A course.
15. What is the woman reading now?
A. The Beautiful Mind. B. The Great Gatsby. C. The Kite Runner.
16. How much time does the man have to read the book?
A. Two weeks. B. Three weeks. C. Four weeks.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What is the speaker doing?
A. Reporting a study. B. Chairing a meeting. C. Teaching a class.
18. What should you pay most attention to when taking notes?
A. Listening. B. Reading. C. Writing.
19. What is an advantage of using symbols in note-taking?
A. It keeps information secret.
B. It leaves space for future use.
C. It makes key words noticeable.
20. What will the speaker do next?
A. Ask a few questions. B. Show some notes. C. Make a summary.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小愿2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上 将该项涂黑。
A
We found and researched top - rated alarm clocks. Over the duration of one month, here are all the tests we ran：
■ Performance
Readability： We took note of how visible the numbers or analog （长短针的）hands on the clock were, both in the day and night.
Ease of setting： We noted how difficult it was to set the alarm on each clock, and the time it took.
Wake —up experience： We tested the alarm and noted the volume （音量）.tone, harsh ness （剌耳）and general experience of waking up to the alarm.
Dimmability ： We tested how dimmable （可调光的）each clock was in the light and the dark.
Snooze （打盹）： We tested how easy it was to snooze the alarm, and took note if it was customizable and easy to set.
Power： We noted if the clock needed batteries, a power cord or both. If it needed a power cord, we measured the cord.
• Build
Materials： We felt each alarm clock and judged how nice or cheap it felt, including buttons and dials.
Durability： We knocked each alarm clock off the same bedside table five times, noting any damage after each drop.
Appearance： We noted its size and color options, and rated its beauty.
■ X factors
Extra features： We noted and tested any and all extra features and how useful they were.
• How we rated
Based on the criteria above, we gave each alarm clock a score for each test, totaling in to a score for each category, which we then added up for a final overall score. Here's a full breakdown：
Performance had a total of 70 points： readability （15 points） , ease of setting （15 points), wake-up experience (15 points), dimmability (10 points), snooze (10 points) and power (5 points).
Build had a total of 30 points： materials (10 points)« durability (10 points) and ap pearance (10 points).
X factors had a total of 5 points： extra features (5 points).
21. What can you do when testing the clock's dimmability?
A. Note its colour. B. Change its brightness.
C. Check its battery. D. Estimate it's value. 、
22. Which of the following belongs to the clock's build?
A. Readability. B. Snooze. C. Durability. D. Power.
23. Which of the items is given the lowest score?
A. Appearance. B. Wake—up experience.
C. Ease of setting. D. Extra features.
B
After two nights of staying in her apartment in Houston without power, Felicia Maten had no running water , her fingers and toes hurting from the cold. She huddled under blan kets with her mother and daughter, together using their breath to warm themselves against freezing temperatures that weren't letting up.
She drove around looking for a hotel. But she couldn't find an available room, and the roads were dangerous. Finally, a neighbor suggested she go to Gallery Furniture. The owner, Jim "Mattress Mack" Mclngvale, opened one of his local stores as a shelter for Texas residents displaced by the winter storms.
During the three days the makeshift shelter was open, thousands of people came in for food and warmth and hundreds slept over. "It meant so much to have somebody who doesn't even know us care that much," Maten said. "That man is full of love."
This isn't the first time Mclngvale has opened his doors to people in weather emergen cies. He did so during Hurricanes Katrina in 2005 and Harvey in 2017.
Mclngvale began preparing for the winter storm a week in advance by buying 15 , 000 gallons of diesel to power the store's generator for a week or so. He took Covid -19 pre cautions by providing security hand sanitization (杀菌)and masks.
Mclngvale got the word out about the shelter through the business' social media fol lowing and news coverage. He and his employees made specific accommodations for peo ple, such as those with babies who need bottles warmed or senior citizens who need oxygen tanks plugged in.
"He was serving food, handing out water, going around checking on people, said Ja- cy Wadhams, another Texas resident living in the area for 15 years. "He really takes pride in what he does. He's an amazing person.”
"We believe that we all have responsibility for the wellbeing of the community and when times get tough we try to open our doors and let people come in and regroup," said Mclngvale.
24. What does the underlined word "huddled" in paragraph 1 mean?
A. Warmed up. B. Stayed hidden. C. Kept calm. D. Crowded together.
25. Why did Maten drive to find a hotel in spite of danger?
A. She had power failure and no running water at home.
B. The extreme freezing weather would continue.
C. Gallery Furniture opened for the residents.
D. Her mother and daughter asked her to find one.
26. What can we infer from the sixth paragraph about Mclngvale?
A. He is always ready, to help others.
B. He has a talent for managing.
C. He is a very considerate man.
D. He is a low-key person.
27. What can we learn from Mclngvale according to the text?
A. To be a businessman with conscience.
B. To be a loving and responsible person.
C. To create a well-known brand of product.
D. To fight bravely against bad weather.
C
When it comes to being fit and healthy, were often reminded to aim to walk 10,000 steps per day. This can be a frustrating target to achieve, especially when were busy with work and other commitments.
The 10,000 steps a day target seems to have come about from a trade name pedometer sold in 1965 by Yamasa Clock in Japan. The device was called "Manpo--kei", which trans lates to ”10,000 steps meter". This was a marketing tool for the device and has seemed to have stuck across the world as the daily step target. It’s even included in daily activity tar gets by popular smartwatches , such as Fitbit.
In ancient Rome, distances were actually measured by counting steps. In fact, the word " mile" originated from the Latin phrase mila passum, which means about 2,000 steps. Its suggested the average person walks about 100 steps per minute - which would mean it would take a little under 20 minutes for the average person to walk a mile. So in order for someone to reach the 10, 000 -step goal, they would need to walk about five mi les a day 9 nearly two hours of activity.
Researchers have investigated the 10,000 steps a day target. The fact that some stud ies have shown this step target improves heart health, mental health, and even lowers dia betes risk, may, to some extent, explain why we have stuck with this arbitrary number.
But while some research has shown health benefits at 10,000 steps, recent research from Harvard Medical School has shown that, on average, approximately 4,400 steps a day is enough to significantly lower the risk of death in women. This was when compared to only walking around 2,700 steps daily. The more steps people walked, the lower their risk of dying was, before leveling off at around 7,500 steps a day. No additional benefits were seen with more steps. Although its uncertain whether similar results would be seen in men, it's one example of how moving a little bit more daily can improve health and lower risk of death.
28. From which does taking 10,000 steps for walkers initially come?
A. Ancient Rome. B. Fitbit. C. Mila passum. D. Manpo--kei.
29. How many steps will you take on average to cover two miles?
A. 2000. B. 2700. C. 4000. D. 7500.
30. What can we learn from the last paragraph?
A. The more you walk daily, the healthier you will be.
B. 7,500 steps or so a day is the ideal number for women.
C. To be healthy you'd better walk ten thousand steps.
D. The number of effective steps is the same for men and women.
31. What does the underlined phrase "leveling off" refer to?
A. Remaining steady. B. Increasing greatly.
C. Decreasing sharply. D. Disappearing suddenly.
D
Over eight million acres of land in the US were scorched （烧焦）in 2020. We've lost more trees faster than nature or humans can regenerate. So we've got to have better tools to be able to reforest faster.
A Seattle - based company called DroneSeed thinks that tool could be, as its name suggests, automated seed dropping drones （无人机），which means multiple drones operat ing to perform a task at the same time.
Typically, reintroducing tree growth is a slow, manual process that can take up to three years. It requires growing young trees in a nursery that tree planters plant by hand. And they're using a shovel and they burn the caloric equivalent of running two marathons every day. But automated drones can cover a lot more ground and get the job done faster.
Grant Canary, DroneSeed CEO, says in groups of five, the drones can cover up to 50 acres in a day compared to about two acres by human. And he says the speed and automa tion can save landowners 30 to 50 percent of their reforestation costs. Eight - foot — long drones take off on pre-programmed routes carrying loads of nearly 60 pounds. They zip up and down those mountain sides, distribute seed vessels （器皿）in very targeted, precise locations and make reforestation workable. But they don't drop raw seeds. Instead, Drone Seed has developed seed vessels that include a patent mixture of every thing a seed needs to survive, like fertilizers, nutrients and natural pest deterrents.
Unlike seedlings, they don't need to be buried in the ground. The vessel is a dry fiber so it absorbs moisture, soaking up and expanding so that helps it avoid drying out, which is one of the biggest causes of seed mortality （死亡率）.
Aerial seeding is not a new idea. But historically, raw seeds are dropped and can land in poor soil. So Drone Seed uses advanced laser mapping to identify the best locations for their seed drops, targeting healthy soil and other ideal conditions. Those are the areas that are not gravel. They don't have high competitive vegetation and so the seeds themselves are going to grow better.
32. What's the fourth paragraph mainly about?
A. The cost -reduction of planting trees.
B. The importance of reforestation.
C. The disadvantages of artificial tree planting.
D. The advantages of planting trees by drones.
33. What's the function of vessels dropped by drones?
A. To serve as nurseries for seedlings to grow healthily.
B. To prevent the young trees from rolling downhill sides.
C. To keep the seedlings from being damaged when landing.
D. To help the drones determine locations of delivery accurately.
34. What can we expect of DroneSeed in the future?
A. Drones will completely replace humans.
B. They will speed up reforestation.
C. The diversity of forest species will increase.
D. Forest fires will be greatly reduced.
35. Which of the following can be the best title for the text?
A. Artificial planting, slow but effective.
B. Aerial seeding, new and workable.
C. Drone seeding, productive and promising.
D. Forests resources, significant but fragile.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选时能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多
余选项。
It is very common nowadays for people to complain about anxiety. The novel corona virus outbreak, as well as the pressure from day to day life, contributes to anxiety, which should not be underestimated as it could lead to depression or other mental disorders.
36
Green plants help people relax.
37 Studies show that people who like to exercise outdoors will have a mental health boost of 50 percent. Researchers from the University of Essex in England investiga ted the reason, finding out that the secret to why nature could help people to calm down is because of one of its major colors： green.
Green represents calm, peace, freshness, and safety.
Green is a special color, as it is not cold nor warm in the color spectrum. To people, green usually represents calm, peace, freshness» and safety. Since ancient times, green means food and water. 38 Hence the feelings this color generates are impressed on people today.
Green plants photosynthesis （光合作用）can clean the air.
Green plants not only can help to ease people's anxiety, but to clean the air. 39 However, do not grow too many plants in the bedroom since photosynthesis takes place during the day, so when nighttime comes, plants will do the opposite by absorbing oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide.
The best choice of plants to keep at home and in the office are green vines , lucky bam boo, and cactus because they are also convenient to maintain. 40
A. Green belongs to neutral color system.
B. Some of them even produce colorful flowers as an extra gift.
C. Hence, is there anything that people can do to release some of that pressure?
D. So we should pay more attention to anxiety and the potential mental diseases.
E. This impression was impressed on human's minds during the evolution process.
F. The photosynthesis of plants can absorb the carbon dioxide in the air and release oxygen.
G. As a matter of fact, keeping several plants to add some green in your home is a good way to ease anxiety.
第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后所给各题的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的 最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
It was a cold gray Winter's day. Two inches of freshly fallen snow had 41 the ground. The night before had been so bitterly cold that I had to leave my water dripping （滴下）to 42 the pipes. Still, the roads had been ploughed and I had several errands （差事）that needed doing. I got in the car and 43 the heater. Then I 44 out into the terrible day. I was 45 , though, not to let the 46 and darkness of it all get to me.
I put a CD that I had burned years before into the stereo. It was full of songs that made me smile, songs that brought happiness 47 my heart. I normally don't sing in public. My voice is 48 and I don't want others to 49 through it. But since I was in the car, I turned up the volume and let my voice 50 , I may not have 51 a beautiful noise, but I did make a joyful one. Song after song I sang along. It felt so 52 to sing again. I smiled and I let the 53 and love flow from my heart and out into the world. After a while I noticed 54 . The sun was starting to break through the clouds.
Its light was shining brightly on the 55 and make it sparkle (闪光)with life. I sang even louder and let my spirit 56 . I felt at one with love, with life, and with God.
God loves us all so much but God doesn't 57 us a lifetime of sunny days. Some times you just have to sing 58 the sun comes out. You have to create your own 59 and use it to brighten up the 60 .
41. A. blanketed
B. absorbed
C. polished
D. exposed
42. A. fit
B. protect
C. repair
D. explode
43. A. turned on
B. adapted to
C. broke off
D. held up
44. A. stepped
B. walked
C. drove
D. rode
45. A. acknowledged
B. declined
C. attempted
D. determined
46. A. sadness
B. loneliness
C. coldness
D. illness
47. A. in
B. to
C. with
D. from
48. A. unpleasant
B. excellent
C. strong
D. slow
49. A. see
B. fall
C. suffer
D. drive
50. A. put down
B. left out
C. turned in
D. joined in
51. A. enjoyed
B. heard
C. made
D. killed
52. A. awful
B. amazing
C. curious
D. desperate
53. A. commitment
B. positivity
C. assignment
D. advantage
54. A. everything
B. nothing
C. anything
D. something
55. A. snow
B. lake
C. door
D. window
56. A. fly
B. extend
C. gather
D. hide
57. A. invent
B. guarantee
C. lend
D. return
58. A. when
B. after
C. until
D. as
59. A. mood
B. happiness
C. smile
D. light
60. A. window
B. ground
C. car
D. world
第二节 语法填空(共10题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Around 1,500 rice seeds, weighing 40 grams, 61 (travel) with China's Change--- 5 spacecraft in November, 2020. After its 23-day space journey the seeds successfully re turned to the earth and 62 (plant) at the plant space breeding (繁殖)engineering tech nology research center of the South China Agricultural University. Growing well on earth, the green seedlings will be planted in the field at 63 end of March, 2021, providing a " chip for China's seed security".
The deep space environment is 64 (extreme) unique and is expected to produce even stronger genetic effects. The seeds have experienced special environments including micro-gravity and sunspot 65 （erupt） in the process of space travel , 66 affects the genetic variation of rice seeds. These seeds contain 40 , 000 genes and can be tracked in a targeted way 67 （find） what good genes that can be used, according to the research ers. This batch of seeds is 68 scientific research value, as it will help to select 69 （value） new genes to serve rice variety breeding, according to experts.
Chinese scientists will be able to explore the origin of life, species evolution and aero space bio - safety by deeply 70 （research） the molecular and genetic mechanisms of model organisms responding to deep space environment through rice seeds.
第四部分 写作（共两节；满分35分）
第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中 共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧）,并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。
修改：在错的词下面画一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。
The food wasted global every year can feed million of hungry people. In response to the national call against food waste, our school start the Clean Plate Campaign last week. Variety school activities were carried out for this reason. Young volunteers put up posters and signs promoted food saving on campus to increase awareness of respecting food labor or valuing food among students. Also» class meetings were held to make a change in the students attitude and encourage them become eco-pioneers. Through the campaign, we have realized that we should do to avoid food waste. To save food is a traditional virtue in China, which we should never forget it.
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
假定你是李华，你校上周五刚举行过"阳光体育（Sunshine Sports）”活动，你的英国笔友 Smith对此很感兴趣，请你给他写一封邮件，内容包括：
1.活动简介,
2.你的感受。
注意：
1.词数100字左右；
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear Smith,
. .
. .
. .
. .
. .
Yours,
Li Hua
2021年河南省六市高三第二次联考
英语参考答案
听力理解：1-5. CABBA 6-10 ABACC 11-15. CABBC 16-20. ACACB
阅读理解：21-23：BCD 24-27：DACB 28-31：DCBA 32-35：DABC 36-40：CGEFB
完形填空：41-45 ABACD 46-50 CBACD 51-55 CBBDA 56-60 ABCDD
语法填空：61. trave(l)led 62. were planted 63. the 64. extremely 65. eruption
66. which 67. to find 68. of 69. valuable 70. researching
短文改错：
The food wasted global every year can feed million of hungry people. In response to the
globally millions
national call against food waste, our school start the Clean Plate Campaign last week.
started
Variety school activities were carried out for this reason. Young volunteers put up posters and
Various
signs promoted food saving on campus to increase awareness of respecting food labor or
promoting and
valuing food among students. Also, class meetings were held to make a change in the
students attitude and encourage them ∧ become eco-pioneers. Through the campaign, we
students’ to
have realized that we should do to avoid food waste. To save food is a traditional virtue in
what
China, which we should never forget it.
书面表达：
Dear Smith，
I am very glad to hear that you're interested in the Sunshine Sports of our school last week. Now let me give a brief introduction of it.
The activity was held in our school last Friday morning. All the athletes from different classes took part in it. At the opening ceremony, our headmaster impressed us on the importance of physical activities. Then we carried out various activities, running, cycling, and jumping included. All the participants showed themselves to the fullest through the platform provided by our school. Eventually, there was an award ceremony for the winners.
Everyone thinks highly of the activity, because not only is it a stage where we students can improve our fitness, but also it is beneficial to our mental health.
Yours,
Li Hua
2021年河南省六市高三第二次联考
英 语
注意事项：
1.答题前，考生务必将本人的姓名、准考证号等考生信息填写在答题卡上，并将条形码 准确粘贴在条为玛区域内.考试时间：120分许，满分：150分。
2.选择题零案使用2B铅笔填涂，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号；非 选择题答案使用0.5毫米的黑色墨水签字笔书写，字体工整、笔迹清楚。
3.请按照题号在各题的答题区域（黑色线框）内作答.超出答题区域书写的答案无效。
4.保持卡面清洁，不折叠，不破垓。
5.考试结束，将答题卡交回.
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案 转涂到各题卡上.
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7. 5分）
听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题.从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳 选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题.每段对话 仅读一遍。
1. What will the speakers do tonight?
A. Visit Mary. B. Go out of town. C. Host a dinner.
2. How does the woman go to work this week?
A. By car. B. By bike. C. On foot.
3. What time does Dave's meeting start?
A. At 8,30. B. At 9：00. C. At 10：00.
4. What is Helen going to do?
A. Buy some books. B. Study in the library. C. Attend a history class.
5. What is the woman's feeling now?
A. Relief. B. Regret. C. Embarrassment.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1. 5分，满分々2. 5分）
听下面5段对话或独白.每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选 项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟，听完 后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间.每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题.
6. What is Tom busy doing?
A. Raising money. B. Writing a lab report. C. Giving classes to children.
7, Who might be able to help Tom this week?
A. Mike. B. Cathy C. Jane.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题.
8. Why is Jack leaving early?
A. To avoid getting stuck in traffic.
B. To enjoy the scenery on the way.
C. To buy some gifts for his family.
9, What does Judy often do at the railway station?
A. Read books. B. Call some friends. C. Look around the shops.
10. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. What to do next year.
B. Where to go for vacations.
C. How to pass the waiting time.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11, Why does Bill look troubled?
A. He is short of money.
B. He has made a big mistake.
C. He is facing a tough choice.
12. What is Bill now?
A. A college student. B. An army officer. C. A computer engineer.
13. What does the woman seem to suggest Bill do?
A. Learn to repair cars. B. Decline the job offer. C. Ask his uncle for advice.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14. What is the woman recommending to the man?
A. A writer. B. A club. C. A course.
15. What is the woman reading now?
A. The Beautiful Mind. B. The Great Gatsby. C. The Kite Runner.
16. How much time does the man have to read the book?
A. Two weeks. B. Three weeks. C. Four weeks.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What is the speaker doing?
A. Reporting a study. B. Chairing a meeting. C. Teaching a class.
18. What should you pay most attention to when taking notes?
A. Listening. B. Reading. C. Writing.
19. What is an advantage of using symbols in note-taking?
A. It keeps information secret.
B. It leaves space for future use.
C. It makes key words noticeable.
20. What will the speaker do next?
A. Ask a few questions. B. Show some notes. C. Make a summary.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小愿2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上 将该项涂黑。
A
We found and researched top - rated alarm clocks. Over the duration of one month, here are all the tests we ran：
■ Performance
Readability： We took note of how visible the numbers or analog （长短针的）hands on the clock were, both in the day and night.
Ease of setting： We noted how difficult it was to set the alarm on each clock, and the time it took.
Wake —up experience： We tested the alarm and noted the volume （音量）.tone, harsh ness （剌耳）and general experience of waking up to the alarm.
Dimmability ： We tested how dimmable （可调光的）each clock was in the light and the dark.
Snooze （打盹）： We tested how easy it was to snooze the alarm, and took note if it was customizable and easy to set.
Power： We noted if the clock needed batteries, a power cord or both. If it needed a power cord, we measured the cord.
• Build
Materials： We felt each alarm clock and judged how nice or cheap it felt, including buttons and dials.
Durability： We knocked each alarm clock off the same bedside table five times, noting any damage after each drop.
Appearance： We noted its size and color options, and rated its beauty.
■ X factors
Extra features： We noted and tested any and all extra features and how useful they were.
• How we rated
Based on the criteria above, we gave each alarm clock a score for each test, totaling in to a score for each category, which we then added up for a final overall score. Here's a full breakdown：
Performance had a total of 70 points： readability （15 points） , ease of setting （15 points), wake-up experience (15 points), dimmability (10 points), snooze (10 points) and power (5 points).
Build had a total of 30 points： materials (10 points)« durability (10 points) and ap pearance (10 points).
X factors had a total of 5 points： extra features (5 points).
21. What can you do when testing the clock's dimmability?
A. Note its colour. B. Change its brightness.
C. Check its battery. D. Estimate it's value. 、
22. Which of the following belongs to the clock's build?
A. Readability. B. Snooze. C. Durability. D. Power.
23. Which of the items is given the lowest score?
A. Appearance. B. Wake—up experience.
C. Ease of setting. D. Extra features.
B
After two nights of staying in her apartment in Houston without power, Felicia Maten had no running water , her fingers and toes hurting from the cold. She huddled under blan kets with her mother and daughter, together using their breath to warm themselves against freezing temperatures that weren't letting up.
She drove around looking for a hotel. But she couldn't find an available room, and the roads were dangerous. Finally, a neighbor suggested she go to Gallery Furniture. The owner, Jim "Mattress Mack" Mclngvale, opened one of his local stores as a shelter for Texas residents displaced by the winter storms.
During the three days the makeshift shelter was open, thousands of people came in for food and warmth and hundreds slept over. "It meant so much to have somebody who doesn't even know us care that much," Maten said. "That man is full of love."
This isn't the first time Mclngvale has opened his doors to people in weather emergen cies. He did so during Hurricanes Katrina in 2005 and Harvey in 2017.
Mclngvale began preparing for the winter storm a week in advance by buying 15 , 000 gallons of diesel to power the store's generator for a week or so. He took Covid -19 pre cautions by providing security hand sanitization (杀菌)and masks.
Mclngvale got the word out about the shelter through the business' social media fol lowing and news coverage. He and his employees made specific accommodations for peo ple, such as those with babies who need bottles warmed or senior citizens who need oxygen tanks plugged in.
"He was serving food, handing out water, going around checking on people, said Ja- cy Wadhams, another Texas resident living in the area for 15 years. "He really takes pride in what he does. He's an amazing person.”
"We believe that we all have responsibility for the wellbeing of the community and when times get tough we try to open our doors and let people come in and regroup," said Mclngvale.
24. What does the underlined word "huddled" in paragraph 1 mean?
A. Warmed up. B. Stayed hidden. C. Kept calm. D. Crowded together.
25. Why did Maten drive to find a hotel in spite of danger?
A. She had power failure and no running water at home.
B. The extreme freezing weather would continue.
C. Gallery Furniture opened for the residents.
D. Her mother and daughter asked her to find one.
26. What can we infer from the sixth paragraph about Mclngvale?
A. He is always ready, to help others.
B. He has a talent for managing.
C. He is a very considerate man.
D. He is a low-key person.
27. What can we learn from Mclngvale according to the text?
A. To be a businessman with conscience.
B. To be a loving and responsible person.
C. To create a well-known brand of product.
D. To fight bravely against bad weather.
C
When it comes to being fit and healthy, were often reminded to aim to walk 10,000 steps per day. This can be a frustrating target to achieve, especially when were busy with work and other commitments.
The 10,000 steps a day target seems to have come about from a trade name pedometer sold in 1965 by Yamasa Clock in Japan. The device was called "Manpo--kei", which trans lates to ”10,000 steps meter". This was a marketing tool for the device and has seemed to have stuck across the world as the daily step target. It’s even included in daily activity tar gets by popular smartwatches , such as Fitbit.
In ancient Rome, distances were actually measured by counting steps. In fact, the word " mile" originated from the Latin phrase mila passum, which means about 2,000 steps. Its suggested the average person walks about 100 steps per minute - which would mean it would take a little under 20 minutes for the average person to walk a mile. So in order for someone to reach the 10, 000 -step goal, they would need to walk about five mi les a day 9 nearly two hours of activity.
Researchers have investigated the 10,000 steps a day target. The fact that some stud ies have shown this step target improves heart health, mental health, and even lowers dia betes risk, may, to some extent, explain why we have stuck with this arbitrary number.
But while some research has shown health benefits at 10,000 steps, recent research from Harvard Medical School has shown that, on average, approximately 4,400 steps a day is enough to significantly lower the risk of death in women. This was when compared to only walking around 2,700 steps daily. The more steps people walked, the lower their risk of dying was, before leveling off at around 7,500 steps a day. No additional benefits were seen with more steps. Although its uncertain whether similar results would be seen in men, it's one example of how moving a little bit more daily can improve health and lower risk of death.
28. From which does taking 10,000 steps for walkers initially come?
A. Ancient Rome. B. Fitbit. C. Mila passum. D. Manpo--kei.
29. How many steps will you take on average to cover two miles?
A. 2000. B. 2700. C. 4000. D. 7500.
30. What can we learn from the last paragraph?
A. The more you walk daily, the healthier you will be.
B. 7,500 steps or so a day is the ideal number for women.
C. To be healthy you'd better walk ten thousand steps.
D. The number of effective steps is the same for men and women.
31. What does the underlined phrase "leveling off" refer to?
A. Remaining steady. B. Increasing greatly.
C. Decreasing sharply. D. Disappearing suddenly.
D
Over eight million acres of land in the US were scorched （烧焦）in 2020. We've lost more trees faster than nature or humans can regenerate. So we've got to have better tools to be able to reforest faster.
A Seattle - based company called DroneSeed thinks that tool could be, as its name suggests, automated seed dropping drones （无人机），which means multiple drones operat ing to perform a task at the same time.
Typically, reintroducing tree growth is a slow, manual process that can take up to three years. It requires growing young trees in a nursery that tree planters plant by hand. And they're using a shovel and they burn the caloric equivalent of running two marathons every day. But automated drones can cover a lot more ground and get the job done faster.
Grant Canary, DroneSeed CEO, says in groups of five, the drones can cover up to 50 acres in a day compared to about two acres by human. And he says the speed and automa tion can save landowners 30 to 50 percent of their reforestation costs. Eight - foot — long drones take off on pre-programmed routes carrying loads of nearly 60 pounds. They zip up and down those mountain sides, distribute seed vessels （器皿）in very targeted, precise locations and make reforestation workable. But they don't drop raw seeds. Instead, Drone Seed has developed seed vessels that include a patent mixture of every thing a seed needs to survive, like fertilizers, nutrients and natural pest deterrents.
Unlike seedlings, they don't need to be buried in the ground. The vessel is a dry fiber so it absorbs moisture, soaking up and expanding so that helps it avoid drying out, which is one of the biggest causes of seed mortality （死亡率）.
Aerial seeding is not a new idea. But historically, raw seeds are dropped and can land in poor soil. So Drone Seed uses advanced laser mapping to identify the best locations for their seed drops, targeting healthy soil and other ideal conditions. Those are the areas that are not gravel. They don't have high competitive vegetation and so the seeds themselves are going to grow better.
32. What's the fourth paragraph mainly about?
A. The cost -reduction of planting trees.
B. The importance of reforestation.
C. The disadvantages of artificial tree planting.
D. The advantages of planting trees by drones.
33. What's the function of vessels dropped by drones?
A. To serve as nurseries for seedlings to grow healthily.
B. To prevent the young trees from rolling downhill sides.
C. To keep the seedlings from being damaged when landing.
D. To help the drones determine locations of delivery accurately.
34. What can we expect of DroneSeed in the future?
A. Drones will completely replace humans.
B. They will speed up reforestation.
C. The diversity of forest species will increase.
D. Forest fires will be greatly reduced.
35. Which of the following can be the best title for the text?
A. Artificial planting, slow but effective.
B. Aerial seeding, new and workable.
C. Drone seeding, productive and promising.
D. Forests resources, significant but fragile.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选时能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多
余选项。
It is very common nowadays for people to complain about anxiety. The novel corona virus outbreak, as well as the pressure from day to day life, contributes to anxiety, which should not be underestimated as it could lead to depression or other mental disorders.
36
Green plants help people relax.
37 Studies show that people who like to exercise outdoors will have a mental health boost of 50 percent. Researchers from the University of Essex in England investiga ted the reason, finding out that the secret to why nature could help people to calm down is because of one of its major colors： green.
Green represents calm, peace, freshness, and safety.
Green is a special color, as it is not cold nor warm in the color spectrum. To people, green usually represents calm, peace, freshness» and safety. Since ancient times, green means food and water. 38 Hence the feelings this color generates are impressed on people today.
Green plants photosynthesis （光合作用）can clean the air.
Green plants not only can help to ease people's anxiety, but to clean the air. 39 However, do not grow too many plants in the bedroom since photosynthesis takes place during the day, so when nighttime comes, plants will do the opposite by absorbing oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide.
The best choice of plants to keep at home and in the office are green vines , lucky bam boo, and cactus because they are also convenient to maintain. 40
A. Green belongs to neutral color system.
B. Some of them even produce colorful flowers as an extra gift.
C. Hence, is there anything that people can do to release some of that pressure?
D. So we should pay more attention to anxiety and the potential mental diseases.
E. This impression was impressed on human's minds during the evolution process.
F. The photosynthesis of plants can absorb the carbon dioxide in the air and release oxygen.
G. As a matter of fact, keeping several plants to add some green in your home is a good way to ease anxiety.
第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后所给各题的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的 最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
It was a cold gray Winter's day. Two inches of freshly fallen snow had 41 the ground. The night before had been so bitterly cold that I had to leave my water dripping （滴下）to 42 the pipes. Still, the roads had been ploughed and I had several errands （差事）that needed doing. I got in the car and 43 the heater. Then I 44 out into the terrible day. I was 45 , though, not to let the 46 and darkness of it all get to me.
I put a CD that I had burned years before into the stereo. It was full of songs that made me smile, songs that brought happiness 47 my heart. I normally don't sing in public. My voice is 48 and I don't want others to 49 through it. But since I was in the car, I turned up the volume and let my voice 50 , I may not have 51 a beautiful noise, but I did make a joyful one. Song after song I sang along. It felt so 52 to sing again. I smiled and I let the 53 and love flow from my heart and out into the world. After a while I noticed 54 . The sun was starting to break through the clouds.
Its light was shining brightly on the 55 and make it sparkle (闪光)with life. I sang even louder and let my spirit 56 . I felt at one with love, with life, and with God.
God loves us all so much but God doesn't 57 us a lifetime of sunny days. Some times you just have to sing 58 the sun comes out. You have to create your own 59 and use it to brighten up the 60 .
41. A. blanketed
B. absorbed
C. polished
D. exposed
42. A. fit
B. protect
C. repair
D. explode
43. A. turned on
B. adapted to
C. broke off
D. held up
44. A. stepped
B. walked
C. drove
D. rode
45. A. acknowledged
B. declined
C. attempted
D. determined
46. A. sadness
B. loneliness
C. coldness
D. illness
47. A. in
B. to
C. with
D. from
48. A. unpleasant
B. excellent
C. strong
D. slow
49. A. see
B. fall
C. suffer
D. drive
50. A. put down
B. left out
C. turned in
D. joined in
51. A. enjoyed
B. heard
C. made
D. killed
52. A. awful
B. amazing
C. curious
D. desperate
53. A. commitment
B. positivity
C. assignment
D. advantage
54. A. everything
B. nothing
C. anything
D. something
55. A. snow
B. lake
C. door
D. window
56. A. fly
B. extend
C. gather
D. hide
57. A. invent
B. guarantee
C. lend
D. return
58. A. when
B. after
C. until
D. as
59. A. mood
B. happiness
C. smile
D. light
60. A. window
B. ground
C. car
D. world
第二节 语法填空(共10题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Around 1,500 rice seeds, weighing 40 grams, 61 (travel) with China's Change--- 5 spacecraft in November, 2020. After its 23-day space journey the seeds successfully re turned to the earth and 62 (plant) at the plant space breeding (繁殖)engineering tech nology research center of the South China Agricultural University. Growing well on earth, the green seedlings will be planted in the field at 63 end of March, 2021, providing a " chip for China's seed security".
The deep space environment is 64 (extreme) unique and is expected to produce even stronger genetic effects. The seeds have experienced special environments including micro-gravity and sunspot 65 （erupt） in the process of space travel , 66 affects the genetic variation of rice seeds. These seeds contain 40 , 000 genes and can be tracked in a targeted way 67 （find） what good genes that can be used, according to the research ers. This batch of seeds is 68 scientific research value, as it will help to select 69 （value） new genes to serve rice variety breeding, according to experts.
Chinese scientists will be able to explore the origin of life, species evolution and aero space bio - safety by deeply 70 （research） the molecular and genetic mechanisms of model organisms responding to deep space environment through rice seeds.
第四部分 写作（共两节；满分35分）
第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中 共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧）,并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。
修改：在错的词下面画一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。
The food wasted global every year can feed million of hungry people. In response to the national call against food waste, our school start the Clean Plate Campaign last week. Variety school activities were carried out for this reason. Young volunteers put up posters and signs promoted food saving on campus to increase awareness of respecting food labor or valuing food among students. Also» class meetings were held to make a change in the students attitude and encourage them become eco-pioneers. Through the campaign, we have realized that we should do to avoid food waste. To save food is a traditional virtue in China, which we should never forget it.
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
假定你是李华，你校上周五刚举行过"阳光体育（Sunshine Sports）”活动，你的英国笔友 Smith对此很感兴趣，请你给他写一封邮件，内容包括：
1.活动简介,
2.你的感受。
注意：
1.词数100字左右；
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear Smith,
. .
. .
. .
. .
. .
Yours,
Li Hua
2021年河南省六市高三第二次联考
英语参考答案
听力理解：1-5. CABBA 6-10 ABACC 11-15. CABBC 16-20. ACACB
阅读理解：21-23：BCD 24-27：DACB 28-31：DCBA 32-35：DABC 36-40：CGEFB
完形填空：41-45 ABACD 46-50 CBACD 51-55 CBBDA 56-60 ABCDD
语法填空：61. trave(l)led 62. were planted 63. the 64. extremely 65. eruption
66. which 67. to find 68. of 69. valuable 70. researching
短文改错：
The food wasted global every year can feed million of hungry people. In response to the
globally millions
national call against food waste, our school start the Clean Plate Campaign last week.
started
Variety school activities were carried out for this reason. Young volunteers put up posters and
Various
signs promoted food saving on campus to increase awareness of respecting food labor or
promoting and
valuing food among students. Also, class meetings were held to make a change in the
students attitude and encourage them ∧ become eco-pioneers. Through the campaign, we
students’ to
have realized that we should do to avoid food waste. To save food is a traditional virtue in
what
China, which we should never forget it.
书面表达：
Dear Smith，
I am very glad to hear that you're interested in the Sunshine Sports of our school last week. Now let me give a brief introduction of it.
The activity was held in our school last Friday morning. All the athletes from different classes took part in it. At the opening ceremony, our headmaster impressed us on the importance of physical activities. Then we carried out various activities, running, cycling, and jumping included. All the participants showed themselves to the fullest through the platform provided by our school. Eventually, there was an award ceremony for the winners.
Everyone thinks highly of the activity, because not only is it a stage where we students can improve our fitness, but also it is beneficial to our mental health.
Yours,
Li Hua
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