山东省东营市广饶县2021-2022学年七年级下学期期末考试英语试题(word版含答案)
展开2021-2022学年第二学期期末考试七年级英语试题
(总分120分考试时间120分钟)
第I卷(选择题,共65分)
一、听力选择(共15小题,计15分;每小题约有8秒钟的答题时间)
(一)录音中有五个句子,每个句子听两遍,然后从每小题A、B、C中选出能对每个句子做出适当反应的答语。
1. A. Good idea. B. Bad weather. C. I'm not.
2. A. Watch out! B. Never mind. C. Enjoy your trip!
3. A. No, I can't. B. Sure, I'd love to. C. Yes, I have to do my work.
4. A. You're right. B. Yes, it is. C. Thank you.
5. A. Yes, I hope so. B. No, they won't. C. It's pretty bad.
(二)录音中有五组对话,听对话两遍后,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。
6. Whose birthday is it tomorrow?
A. Millie's. B. Simon's. C. Sandy's.
7. How many students will go for the picnic tomorrow?
A. One. B. Two. C. Three.
8. What are they talking about?
A. Jobs. B. Animals. C. Sports.
9. What will Tom do this afternoon?
A. Play tennis. B. Play football. C. Stay in the class.
10. What's wrong with Ben?
A. He has a sore throat. B. He has a headache. C. He has a sore back.
(三)录音中有一段对话,听对话两遍后,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。(录音播放前你有30秒钟的读题时间)
11. When will they say goodbye to their school?
A. Last weekend. B. This weekend. C. Next weekend.
12. What will they hold before leaving school?
A. A speech competition. B. A mid-term examination. C. A graduation ceremony.
13. What are they going to buy to prepare for the ceremony?
A. Some pieces of cake. B. Some gifts. C. Books.
14. How long have they studied at Sky International School?
A. Three years. B. Four years. C. Two years.
15. They know if they want to be successful, they must ____.
A. work hard first B. remember some sayings C. remember their friendship
(注意:请同学们翻到第II卷第四大题,继续做听力填表题。)
二、单项选择(共10小题,计10分)从每小题A、B、C、D中选出一个能填入句中空白处的最佳答案。
16. -What is your ____ for not doing your homework?
-Sorry. I forgot about it.
A. reason B. idea C. dream D. hobby
17. The books ____ me all my money so I plan ____ home.
A. cost;walking B. take;to walk C. cost;to walk D. spend;walking
18. Teamwork is important. It's hard for us to be successful ____ the help of others.
A. with B. without C. after D. from
19. There ____ an English Evening in our school next Saturday evening.
A. is going to have B. will have C. is going to be D. have
20. The little girl likes to_____ as an angel(天使),so she asks her mother to buy her lots of clothes.
A. make up B. take up C. put up D. dress up
21. Our parents ____ us to get good grades in the final exam.
A. hope B. expect C. invite D. promise
22. Tom is a man of few words. He always believes ____ speak louder than words.
A. activities B. acts C. actions D. active
23. -____ are you going to be a basketball player?
-I'm going to practice basketball every day.
A. What B. When C. How D. Where
24. -It's dangerous to drive after drinking.
-That's true. It can increase the ____ of traffic accidents.
A. stress B. safety C. risk D. break
25. cola have we got?
-We've got three big bottles.
A. How big B. How many C. How old D. How much
三、阅读理解(共20小题,计40分)
阅读下列短文,然后从每小题A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。
A
The Monkey Buffet Festival(猴子自助餐节)is on the last Sunday of November. It is a great day for monkeys in Thailand. People there think monkeys can bring good luck to them. So, to thank monkeys, they have this special festival.
Every year on that day, people put lots of fruit, vegetables, cakes and even drinks on the tables outside. They are all for monkeys. Many people come to see the monkeys on that day. During the festival, there are a lot of interesting activities about monkeys. Young people are always dressed up as monkeys and they sing, dance and play music in the street.
Monkeys always live in groups. Most of them live in the trees. They are good at running and jumping. They eat fruit, vegetables, flowers and birds’ eggs. Monkeys are smart animals. Do you think so?
26. The Monkey Buffet Festival is on ____.
A. the first Sunday of November B. the last Sunday of November
C. the first Saturday of November D. the last Saturday of November
27. People have the festival because they think monkeys ____.
A. are cute B. can work for them
C. are smart D. can bring good luck
28. On that day, people always ____.
A. eat all kinds of foods B. sing and dance
C. play with monkeys D. run and jump
29. Of the four kinds of foods, monkeys don't eat ____.
A. beef B. bananas C. birds’ eggs D. apples
30. What does the passage mainly(主要地)talk about?
A. Monkeys are smart animals. B. Monkeys’ favorite food.
C. A festival for monkeys D. Monkeys in Thailand
B
As students, you may have many dreams. They can be very big like becoming Superman, or they can be small. You may just want to become one of the ten best students in your class.
If you find a dream, what do you do with it?Do you ever try to make your dream come true?
Follow Your Heart by Australian writer Andrew Matthews tells us that making our dreams come true is life's biggest challenge.
"You may think you're not very good at some school subjects, or that it is impossible(不可能)for you to become a star. These ideas stop you from getting your dream,” the book says.
In fact, everyone can make his dream come true. The first important thing you must do is to remember what your dream is.
Don't let it leave your heart. Keep telling yourself what you want. Do this step by step(一步步地)and your dream will come true faster. A big dream is,in fact,many small dreams.
Never give up(放弃)your dream. There will be difficulties on the road. But the biggest problem comes from yourself. You need to decide(决定)what is the most important. Studying instead of (代替)watching TV will bring you better exam points.
Saving five yuan instead of buying an ice cream means you can buy a new book.
When you get closer to your dream, it may change a little. Then you will be able to learn more skills and find new interests.
31. Follow Your Heart is ____.
A. the first thing to make your dream come true
B. the most important dream to have for students
C. the name of a book by Andrew Matthews
D. the name of a famous Australian writer
32. If you want to make your dream come true, you should____.
①be good at all the school subjects ②remember what your dream is first
③keep telling yourself what you want ④never be afraid of big difficulties
A. ①②③ B. ①②④ C. ①③④ D. ②③④
33. From the text, we know the word "challenge" means ____.
A. 变化 B. 挑战 C. 决定 D. 态度
34. The sentence Never give up your dream means you should ____.
A. keep on doing what you should do B. watch TV to get better exam points
C. never remember what your dream is D. save money to buy an ice cream
35. What is the best title(标题)of the text?
A. Keep Your Dream in Your Heart B. How to Find Your Dream
C. Make Your Dream Come True D. Students Have Many Dreams
C
What should we do if one of our classmates suddenly. falls ill or get hurt?Here are some steps we should follow. But always remember to look for medical care after first aid (急救)if the wound is serious.
Broken bones(骨头)Take away clothing from the wound. Use an ice pack. Don't move the hurt body part while for the doctor to arrive.
Animal bites: Wash the bite area with soap and water. Pack the wound with a clean cloth if it is bleeding. If the bleeding has stopped, cover the area with a bandage and take the person to the hospital. Make sure you remember what kind of animal it is so the doctor can find the right way to treat him or her at once.
Nosebleeds: Have the person sit up with his or her head tilted(倾斜)forward a little. Do not have the person tilt his or her head back because this may cause heavy breathing or coughing. Pinch(捏)the lower part of the nose for at least 10 minutes.
36. When dealing with the problems of ____,we shouldn't move the hurt.
A. broken bones B. animal bites C. fainting D. nosebleeds
37. What should we do first when animal bite happens?
A. Put an ice pack on the wound.
B. Wash the bite area with soap and water.
C. Try to stop the bleeding with a clean cloth.
D. Take the hurt person to the hospital.
38. Which of the following is NOT right when a boy has a nosebleed?
A. Do not tilt his or her head back.
B. Take away clothing from the wound.
C. Let him sit up.
D. Pinch the lower part of his nose for at least 10 minutes.
39. Which part of a magazine may the passage come from?
A. Lifestyle. B. Education. C. Sports. D. Health.
40. What's the main idea of the passage?
A. First aid for some accidental wounds.
B. Steps of looking for medical care.
C. Advice on ways not to get hurt.
D. Ways to ask for help in getting hurt.
D
The Chinese women's volleyball team won the World Cup with 11victories (十一连胜)on September 28, 2019. A movie about the Chinese women's olleyball team will come out on January 25th,2020,the first day of the Chinese New Year. The name of the movie is Leap(《中国女排》).
The movie is made by Peter Ho-sun Chan, an excellent director(导演)in Hong Kong. And the famous actress Gong Li played the role of Lang Ping, the head coach(主教练)of the team. A picture of Gong Li in the movie surprised everyone because she acted the role so well!The movie told us about the ups and downs of the volleyball team during more than 40 years. Leap is the first movie about sports in 2020. Another sports movie is about Li Na, the tennis player. The film is also made by Peter Ho-sun Chan. And a movie about Chinese Ping-Pong team will come out this year, too.
Sports movies are getting more and more popular in China. They make people feel proud of our country and tell us to fight for our dreams. But in fact, it is not easy to make sports movies. One of the main reasons is that actors or actresses do not know much about sports. To make the movies better, some sports players act their own roles in the movies. Their acting is more realistic(真实的)than most actors. ·
41. When can we see the movie Leap this year?
A. In January. B. In February. C. In September. D. In October.
42. What sports are mentioned(提到)in the passage?
A. Volleyball, football and ping pong. B. Volleyball, tennis and basketball.
C. Volleyball, football and basketball. D. Volleyball, tennis and ping pong.
43. It's difficult to make sports movies because ____.
A. actors and actresses know much about sports
B. people don't like to watch them
C. actors and actresses are not good at sports
D. Peter Ho-sun Chan doesn't like doing sports
44. Which of the following is NOT TRUE?
A. Peter Ho-sun Chan made the movie Leap.
B. Gong Li played the role of Lang Ping.
C. Li Na is a ping-pong player.
D. Sports movies are getting more and more popular in China.
45. Which is the best title for this passage?
A. The sports movies this year.
B. Do you know the actress Gong Li?
C. The Chinese women's volleyball team.
D. How to make sports movies?
第Ⅱ卷(非选择题,共55分)
四、听力填表(共5小题,计5分)
录音中有一段短文,听录音两遍后,根据所听到的内容完成下面的表格(每空不多于三个词)。(录音播放前你有30秒钟的读题时间)
An invitation for a party
When
On(46)____30th May;from (47)____to 4:30p.m.
Where
At Mr. Green’s(48)____on Nanjing Road
Activities
We will have lunch together. We will go to the park to(49)___and take photos.
How
The map on(50)___of the note shows the way.
五、动词填空(共10空,计10分)用括号内所给动词的适当形式填空(必要时可加情态动词或助动词)。
The cars (51)____(become)more and more popular in China now. I think there(52)____(be)a kind of new cars in the future. People will like this kind of small cars better than the big ones. The car is as small as a bike. But it(53)____(carry)two people in it. Everybody can drive it easily, just like(54)____(ride)a bike. Even children and old people can drive them to school or parks.
If everyone(55)____drive)such cars in the future, there will be less pollution in the air. There will be more space for all the cars in cities, and there will also be more space for people (56)____(talk)in the streets.
The small cars of the future(57)_____(cost)less money to buy and to drive. These small cars can go only 65 kilometers an hour, so driving will be safer. The cars of the future will be fine for(58)____(go)around the city, but they will not be useful for a long trip.
This kind of cars can save a lot of gas. They will go 450 kilometers, and then they have to(59)____(stop)for more gas. They are nice cars,(60)____(be not)they?
六、综合填空(共10空,计10分)
阅读短文,根据短文内容及首字母提示,在空白处填入一个适当的单词。
My cousin Jenny made some new term resolutions last month.
First she wants to keep (61)h____ So she is going to exercise more and eat a lot of healthier food. She isn't going to eat junk food. She is going to make a volleyball(62)t____ because she likes it, and she's also (63)g____ at playing it. And she also wants to(64)i____ her English. She is going to read English (65)e____ morning. The third, she is going to read more books because she thinks she can learn a lot from books. So she's going to the school (66)1____quite often. When she (67)g____ up, she is going to be a____68)d for children. She wants to help sick children. She's going to study medicine at a (69)u____ when she finishes high school. She is going to work hard. She loves children and she thinks looking(70)a____ children will be wonderful.
七、阅读表达(共5小题,计10分)阅读短文,根据要求完成下面各小题。
Where did you go yesterday?Did you hear music at any of those places?Today most stores and restaurants play music. You might even hear music in an office or on a farm. Scientists believe that music changes the way people behave(表现)
73According to some scientists, the sound of western classical(古典的)music makes people feel richer. When a restaurant plays classical music, people spend more money on food and drinks. When the restaurant plays modern music, people spend less money.
74Without background music, people spend even less. Scientists also believe that loud, fast music makes people eat faster. In fact, people chew(咀嚼)their food faster when the music gets faster. Some restaurants play fast music during busy hours. This gets people to eat faster and leave more quickly. In this way, restaurants can make more money.
Some scientists think that music makes students think and learn better. They say that music helps students to be more active. It is true that students learn better when they are relaxed, and listening to music can help them relax.
The next time you hear music somewhere, be careful. It might change the way you behave.
(一)根据短文内容简要回答下列问题。
71. Why do some restaurants play fast music during busy hours?
________________________________
72. How does music help students learn better according to the passage?
_________________________________
(二)将短文中划线的两个句子译成汉语。
73. _________________________________
74. _________________________________
(三)给短文拟定一个英文题目。
75. _________________________________
八、书面表达((共1题,计20分)
学校志愿者协会正在招募志愿者,请你用英语介绍一下你自己。内容包括你的职业理想、特长爱好、能力描述及今后的想法等。
要求:
1. 注意文章逻辑性和连贯性。
2. 内容全面,不少于70词。
3. 文中不出现真实校名和姓名。
2021-2022学年第二学期期末考试
七年级英语试题参考答案及评分标准
第 I 卷 (选择题, 共65 分)
一 ~ 三题
(一)一 ~ 三题答案:
1-5 ACBCA 6-10 CCABC 11-15 BCBAA 16-20 ACBCD 21-25 BCCCD
26-30 BDBAC 31-35 CDBAC 36-40 ABBDA 41-45 ADCCA
(二)评分说明:
1、1-25题,每小题1分;
2、26-45题,每小题2分。
3、与答案不符, 不得分。
第 II 卷 (非选择题, 共55分)
四、听力填表
(一)答案:
46. Saturday 47. 12:30 p. m. 48. restaurant 49. play games 50. the next page
(二)评分说明:
1、本题共5分,每小题1分。
2、大小写错误,每处扣0. 5分。
3、与所给答案不符,只要语法、意义、拼写(含大小写)正确,也可酌情给分。
五、动词填空
(一) 答案:
51. are becoming 52. will be 53. can carry 54. riding 55. drives
56. to walk/to talk 57. will cost 58. going 59. stop 60. aren't
(二) 评分说明:
1、本题共10分,每空1分; 56题更正时已经较晚,所以to walk和to talk都可得分。
2、大小写错误,每处扣0. 5分,未用所给动词者,不得分。
3、与所给答案不符,只要语法、意义、拼写(含大小写)正确,也可酌情给分。
六、综合填空
(一)答案:
61. healthy 62. team 63. good 64. improve 65. every
66. library 67. grows 68. doctor 69. university 70. after
(二)评分说明:
1、本题共10分,每空1分; 大小写错误,每处扣0. 5分;
2、与所给答案不符,只要首字母符合,语法、意义、拼写(含大小写)正确,也可酌情给分。
七、阅读表达
(一)答案:
71. Because fast music can make people eat faster and leave more quickly.
72. Listening to music can help students relax, and they can learn better when they are relaxed.
73. 根据一些科学家的观点,古典西方音乐使人们感觉自己更加富有。
74. 没有背景音乐,人们花的甚至更少。
75. Music and Behavior
(二)评分说明:
1、本题共10分,每小题2分;大小写错误,每处扣0. 5分;
2、虽与答案表达方式不同,但与所给参考答案意思一致,无语言错误,也可酌情给分。
八、书面表达
(一)One possible version:
I want to be an English teacher in the future because I think teacher is a good job. I like communicating with students all the time. It helps me keep young at heart. I can also have two long holidays a year! It makes me exciting.
I can sing and dance, but I know if I want to be a good teacher, I must get more knowledge. I’ll work hard and study in a teacher college in the future. I want to volunteer in schools, it can help me knowing more about teachers. I must work hard to realize my dream!
(二)评分说明:
评分时,要从内容与结构、表达的逻辑性、层次性、连贯性和创造性、语法运用的恰当程度、单词拼写、标点符号的使用等方面综合考虑。本题共20分,分四档评分:
1、短文通顺完整,表达清楚, 语言基本无误,17-20分;
2、短文较通顺完整,表达基本清楚,语言有少量错误,12-16分;
3、能写明基本要点,短文不够通顺完整,语言有较多错误,但尚能达意,6-11分;
4、仅能写明部分要点,短文不完整,语言错误多,影响意思表达,0-5分。
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