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2021-2022学年黑龙江省大庆铁人中学高二下学期期末考试英语试题Word版含答案
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这是一份2021-2022学年黑龙江省大庆铁人中学高二下学期期末考试英语试题Word版含答案，共11页。试卷主要包含了7题等内容，欢迎下载使用。
大庆铁人中学2021-2022学年高二下学期期末考试
英语试题
试题说明：1、本试题满分 150 分，答题时间 120 分钟。
2、请将答案填写在答题卡上，考试结束后只交答题卡。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分20分）
第一节 （共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题， 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项， 并标在试卷的相应位置。
1.What day is it today?
A. Wednesday. B. Thursday. C.Friday.
2. What does the woman think of herself?
A. She is outgoing. B. She is confident. C. She is quiet.
3. Why doesn’t the woman buy the cell phone?
A. It is out of style. B. It is expensive. C. It is not her favourite color.
4. What is the woman doing?
A. Collecting children’s information.
B. Asking the man to join the organization.
C. Raising money for African children.
5. What are the speakers talking about?
A. A girl. B. A movie. C. A book.
第二节 （共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What is the relationship between the speakers?
A. Old schoolmates. B. Teacher and student. C. Business partners.
7. What does the woman do?
A. A bookstore owner. B. A medical student. C. A college teacher.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What sport did Paul play?
A. Basketball. B. Baseball. C. Football.
9. What do we know about Susan?
A. She played tennis.
B. She practised horse-riding.
C. She scored two goals.
10. Who showed little interest in the sports afternoon?
A. Anne. B. Tom. C. Susan.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What will the woman do this weekend?
A. Chat on the Internet.
B. Meet her pen friend.
C. Book a trip to India.
12. How did the woman get to know her pen friend?
A. Through the Internet.
B. During a trip.
C. In a language study course.
13. What do the woman and her pen friend both like?
A. Studying languages.
B. Music and movies.
C. Travel and swimming.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. What are the speakers mainly discussing?
A. How to give helpful suggestions.
B. How to improve note-taking skills.
C. How to organize a group discussion.
15. What does the man warn the woman against doing during discussions?
A. Being over-confident.
B. Concentrating on basic facts.
C. Repeating others’ thoughts.
16. What does the woman think of the man’s suggestions?
A. Simple. B. Useful. C. Interesting.
17. What will the woman do?
A. Share her ideas. B. Read a book. C. Meet an adviser.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. Why is Tim popular with his classmates?
A. He is good-looking. B. He is well-organized. C. He is helpful.
19. What helps Tim learn English?
A. Using mind maps.
B. Making up English stories.
C. Watching movies in English.
20. What does Tim want to do in the future?
A. Start a company. B. Teach English. C. Become a basketball player.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
A walk through UK’s famous parks and gardens is a gentler way to soak up (充分体验) the country’s atmosphere.
•Sheffield Botanical Gardens
The Sheffield Botanical Gardens are situated off Ecclesall Road in Sheffield, England, with 5,000 species of plants on 19 acres of land. Notable structures are the main gateway, the south entrance lodge and a bear pit containing an 8-foot-tall steel statue of an American Black Bear called Robert the Bear.
Hours: Mon—Fri 8 a.m.—4 p.m.; Sat—Sun 10 a.m.—4 p.m.
•Kensington Gardens
Kensington Gardens are shared by the City of Westminster and the Royal Borough of Kensington and Chelsea, and sit immediately to the west of Hyde Park, in western central London. The open spaces of Kensington Gardens, Hyde Park, Green Park and St. James’s Park form an almost continuous “green lung” in the heart of London.
Hours: Mon—Sun 6 a.m.—7:45 p.m.
•Tatton Park
Tatton Park is owned by the National Trust, which administers it jointly with Cheshire East Council. Since 1999, it has hosted North West England’s annual Royal Horticultural (园艺的) Society flower show.
Hours: Mon Closed; Tue—Sun 10 a.m.—5 p.m.
•Glasgow Botanic Gardens
The botanical garden features several glasshouses. The Gardens has a wide variety of temperate and tropical flora, an herb garden, a chronological bed with plants arranged according to their introduction to Scotland, the UK’s national collection of tree ferns and a world rose garden officially opened in 2003 by Princess Tomohito of Mikasa.
Hours: Mon—Sun 7 a.m.—6 p.m.
21. What time can we visit the Sheffield Botanical Gardens on Sundays?
A. 8:30 a.m. B. 9:30 a.m.
C. 12:30 a.m. D. 16:30 p.m.
22. What is special about Kensington Gardens?
A. They can be visited at any time.
B. They are owned by the National Trust.
C. Its statue of Robert the Bear is world famous.
D. They are considered a “green lung” in the heart of London.
23. What can visitors do in Glasgow Botanic Gardens?
A. Enjoy a variety of roses.
B. Go hunting in tropical forests.
C. Visit some palaces owned by the royal family.
D. Visit Royal Horticultural Society flower show.
B
A nurse has fulfilled (实现) a promise she made to her patient four years ago to one day attend her daughter's graduation from nursing school.
Edina Habibovic, 22, graduated from Chamberlain University's College of Nursing in 2020. Her mother, Sevala Habibovic, 46, died in 2017 after a two year fight with breast cancer.
“I thought the medical field wasn't for me. Then, my mom got sick and I had all the experience going in and out of the hospital, ” Edina told Good Morning America. “When my mom passed away, I thought, ‘I want to do this.’”she said.
Sanja Josipovic, who at the time worked as a home health nurse with Northwestern Medicine in Winfield, Illinois, cared for Sevala inside her home. They often chatted and shared the latest news with each other over six months of care.
“She was most worried about Edina because she was young and hadn't finished school yet, ” Sanja said. “We are like sisters; we care about and trust each other. She was a powerful and strong minded woman. She wasn't scared to die; she was just worried about her kids and husband.”
Edina said her mother lived for being with her family and taking care of people. “When Sanja was working, my mom would still try to make her something to eat, no matter how sick she was, ” Edina added. When Sevala's life was coming to an end, she asked Sanja to take her place at her youngest daughter's nursing school graduation. “That was the only thing she was going to miss—Edina's graduation.” said Sanja, who is a mother of three herself. She agreed.
Due to COVID - 19, there was no graduation or pinning ceremony. Edina's manager at Marianjoy Rehabilitation Hospital decided to host a pinning ceremony for her and have Sanja present the pin. “Sanja has fulfilled her promise, ” Edina said.
Edina and Sanja are now caring for patients alongside one another as colleagues at Marianjoy.
24. What does the underlined word “this” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Leaving the hospital B. Working as a nurse
C. Facing death positively D. Caring for Edina's mother
25. What can be learned about Sanja and Sevala?
A. They enjoyed volunteering B. They were cancer survivors
C. They had unhappy marriages D. They developed a close bond
26. What would be Sevala's regret?
A. The loss of the chance to study medicine
B. Her absence from Edina's school graduation
C. Failing to keep the promise made to Sanja
D. Never cooking a good meal for her husband
27. How did Sanja fulfill her promise?
A. By taking care of Edina and her family B. By helping Edina enter her dream hospital
C. By attending a special ceremony for Edina D. By managing to become Edina's colleague
C
A team of researchers from several institutions in the UK and one in Estonia has created a type of buoy(浮标) that has proven to be effective at frightening seabirds, thus preventing them from getting caught in gillnets—a type of vertical fishing net that is made of a material that makes it nearly invisible underwater.
Every year, hundreds of thousands of seabirds die when they get caught in gillnets. Some estimates suggest that up to a half-million birds are caught in them each year. Over the years, researchers have created devices to prevent the birds from trying to catch fish near or in gillnets, but those didn't work well.
To find a way that would work for all seabirds, the researchers first studied seabirds in a general sense, looking to find things that they would avoid. They noted that seabirds avoided eye contact with other creatures. Then the researchers came up with a simple idea. They put a small pole to a regular buoy and then attached a pair of googly eyes(金鱼眼) to the top of it. They made the eyes big enough so that even birds with poor eyesight, such as geese, would see them. Adding to the effectiveness of the device, waves made the eyes move back and forth. And the wind made the buoy spin very slowly, making sure that birds from every direction would get a good look at the eyes.
To test their idea, the researchers selected several sites near gillnets and counted how many birds approached and how many attempted to catch fish near the nets. They then set up their googly-eyed buoys and once again counted birds. Over the course of 62 days, they found the number of birds that tried to catch fish near the gillnets dropped by approximately 25% for a distance of up to 50 meters. They also found that the birds were less likely to fish near where the buoys had been for up to three weeks after they had been removed.
28. What is the function of paragraph 2?
A. Introducing a new topic to discuss. B. Providing background information.
C. Summarizing the previous paragraph. D. Pointing out the main idea of the text.
29. Why did the researchers make the googly eyes big?
A. To ensure all the seabirds can see them. B. To clearly observe seabirds' eye contact.
C. To allow them to survive the strong wind. D. To effectively identify the right direction.
30. What does the researchers' test result mainly suggest?
A. The new device still needs improving. B. Gillnets are a death valley for seabirds.
C. Seabirds hardly catch fish near the nets. D. The googly-eyed buoy proves effective.
31. What is the text mainly about?
A. A group of researchers interested in seabirds.
B. A way to help seabirds catch fish effectively.
C. A device keeping seabirds safe from gillnets.
D. A googly-eyed buoy guiding seabirds to hunt.
D
Happiness, that short and delightful feeling, seems all too rare in 2020. But there's one place where happiness is the name of the game. And, no, we're not talking about Disney World.
Denmark, currently the second happiest country on earth, is now home to The Happiness Museum, which is created by The Happiness Research Institute, a think tank focusing on well-being, happiness and quality of life. The eight-room museum is devoted to literally bringing happiness to life, reminding visitors what it is that gives value to them and makes them feel good. Led by Meik Wiking, author of three international bestsellers, the museum opened on July 14 in a small 240-square-meter space in Copenhagen.
Visitors to the museum will find many interactive exhibits. Each room is devoted to a specific approach to studying happiness. The politics of happiness exhibit asks questions about the role of elections and GDP in determining national happiness. There's also a geography of happiness section that explores the role of built environments on happiness levels, as well as showing a world map with the World Happiness Report 2020's happiness ranking of 153 countries. There are other sections like the science of happiness, the history of happiness and what lies in store for the future.
Certain museum exhibits include visitors' personal perception of happiness. Can you determine which half of the Mona Lisa's mouth smiles? How do you explain the meaning of happiness? The museum houses a vast collection of donated artworks donated by people from around the globe, which remind them of happy moments in their lives.
While the museum is a very optimistic place to be, it's also aware of the difficulties of being a public place in the middle of a global pandemic (流行病). The museum has strict policies in place to ensure social distancing and safety, including only allowing 50 visitors at a time and a one-way path through the museum.
32. What's the main purpose of creating The Happiness Museum?
A. To remind people to read books on happiness
B. To help visitors learn and experience happiness.
C. To advise visitors to share happiness with others.
D. To tell people ways to improve their quality of life.
33. Where can you learn about the effect of built environments on happiness levels?
A. In the science of happiness section. B. In the history of happiness section.
C. In the politics of happiness section. D. In the geography of happiness section.
34. What does the underlined word “perception” in Paragraph 4 refer to?
A. Understanding. B. Praising. C. Documenting. D. Misunderstanding
35. What does the author intend to tell us about the museum in the last paragraph?
A. The disadvantages it has.
B. Its difficulty in receiving visitors.
C. Its positive attitude towards future.
D. The safety measures it takes for visitors.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
任务型阅读。根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项，请把答案写在答题卡上。
Some children are born loving books, reading, and anything about literature. Then there are children who’d rather climb trees, ride a bike, and run around the house. 36 It may seem impossible to develop a love of reading in these children. However, in fact, it can be easily achieved. The following tips may help you make impossibility become possibility.
Make going to the bookstore more entertaining than a trip to the toy store. Never buy toys while your children is around the toy store. 37 I usually take my children to the bookstore when they are free. And every time, they all enjoy themselves. All of my children enjoy visiting the bookstore and looking for a good book to take home.
38 Some children love fiction (小说), while other children love non-fiction. Keep a variety of books around for your children to choose from and encourage your children to know more about their favorite topics, which can greatly inspire your children’s desire to read.
Read your children’s favorite books and discuss these books with them. One of the best ways to show children the importance of reading is to spend time reading their favorite books with them. Children love to chat about their favorite characters and scenes. 39
Keep reading simple books. The majority of parents may ignore this point. This is hard when children are first reading because we want to push them forward, but easy books make little children happy, especially books with lots of pictures. 40 There are fewer words for children to decode (解码，破译), and they can understand the plot and the jokes even at a lower reading level.
A. Join in every reading competition available.
B. Find relevant books that your child is interested in.
C. The last thing they are willing to do is quietly reading.
D. Encourage your child to frequently read classic books.
E. Instead, buy your child a book when you visit the bookstore.
F. They hope you understand exactly what they know about the books.
G. It’s one of the main advantage comic books (连环画) have over regular books.
第三部分 语言知识运用（共三节，满分55分）
第一节（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Dear Tony,
You are only three years old, and at this point in your life you are not able to understand this letter. But some day when you __41__, I hope you will find something __42__ in what I am going to tell you.
Life can be __43__. There will be people in your life who won’t be very nice. They’ll __44__ you because you are different, __45__ for no good reason. You will also face heartbreak and might be __46__ by those you love. I hope you don’t have to face these too much, but such things __47__.
Be open to life anyway. You’ll find cruelty and __48__ in your journey through life, but don’t let that __49__ you from finding new things. Don’t retreat (退却) from life, and don’t __50__ or wall yourself off. Be open to new things, new experiences, and new people. You will __51__ many times, but if you allow that to stop you from trying, you will __52__ many chances. Do remember failure is a stepping stone to __53__.
You will meet many people who will try to do __54__ than you, in school, in college, and at work. They’ll try to have nicer cars, bigger houses, nicer clothes, and so on. To __55__, life is a competition. However, I believe life is a(n) __56__. If you always try your best to __57__ others, you are wasting your life. Learn to enjoy your life __58__ and you will make it a journey of __59__, of learning and of love.
Finally, know that I love you and always will. You are __60__ a really wonderful journey, and I will always be there for you.
Love，
Dad
41. A. grow up B. show up C. cheer up D. give up
42. A. familiar B. amusing C. serious D. valuable
43. A. unkind B. peaceful C. equal D. simple
44. A. wave at B. run after C. laugh at D. refer to
45. A. if B. and C. so D. or
46. A. hurt B. found C. accepted D. impressed
47. A. matter B. work C. disappear D. happen
48. A. luck B. pain C. difference D. hope
49. A. protect B. stop C. promote D. choose
50. A. bother B. contract C. compete D. hide
51. A. leave B. prepare C. escape D. fail
52. A. enjoy B. form C. miss D. relax
53. A. success B. life C. action D. enthusiasm
54. A. earlier B. better C. less D. faster
55. A. you B. me C. him D. them
56. A. challenge B. encouragement C. journey D. aim
57. A. change B. pardon C. forgive D. beat
58. A. somewhere B. instead C. afterwards D. though
59. A. fortune B. luck C. happiness D. quietness
60. A. starting B. exhausting C. finishing D. replacing
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。
Compared with the Beijing 2008 Summer Olympic Games, the opening ceremony of the Beijing 2022 Winter Olympic Games on the evening of Feb 4 was different, yet spectacular（令人惊叹的）. The audiences ___61___(treat) to a pared-down（简化的） ceremony, without the large-scale artistic performances___62___marked the 2008 opening ceremony, but it was no less symbolic of a shared future for humankind.
In an effort ___63___(hold) a simple, safe and yet spectacular Winter Games, the opening ceremony ___64___ Friday was not lengthy or marked with a large-scale performance. Even the number of___65___(performer)—about 15,000 in 2008—was down to 3,000, and the duration of the ceremony was reduced to about 100 minutes because of the cold weather and the COVID-19 pandemic. The final torch at the snowflake-themed ceremony was small, but the flames conveyed ___66___(significance) messages of greener Olympic Games.
The use of advanced technologies such as artificial intelligence, machine vision, 5G and cloud broadcasting added to the novelty of the opening ceremony. The performances,___67___(carry) forward the theme of global peace and shared future for humankind, focused on environmental protection, and human health and physical fitness, highlighting the importance of sports to instill（使某人逐渐感到） new confidence in the international community to contain the pandemic.
Through Friday's opening ceremony, people can___68___(clear) see China's pursuit of building a peaceful world, its reflection of the new Olympic motto of “Faster, Higher, Stronger-Together”___69___the Beijing Winter Games’ motto of “Together for a Shared Future”.
For China, holding____70____simple, safe and yet spectacular opening ceremony is not just a slogan; it’s a philosophy, a way of life in the true sense of term.
第三节 单词拼写（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
根据汉译及首字母填写单词或单词的适当形式。
71. Much of the meaning must be ______________(推断) from the context.
72. I would a______________ it if you could take my application into consideration.
73. The activity is rewarding and fulfilling, which helps b______________ our cultural confidence.
74. I’m tired of having to ______________（假装） all the time.
75. He speaks with an American _____________（口音）.
76. Look！The plant ______________（与......相似）grass in appearance.
77. She is very ______________(谦虚的) about her success.
78. Efforts to ______________(维护、保护) the peace have failed.
79. These symptoms are particularly a______________ with COVID-19.
80. His plans are ______________(宏大的,有雄心的)：he wants to master French, German and
Spanish before he is twenty.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 短文改错 （满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下短文。短文中共有10处错误，每句中最多有两处。错误涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在此符号下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余词用斜线(\)划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2. 只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。
On previous birthdays, my family would give me gifts but invite me to eat outside. I thought there would be no different this year. I went home after school as usual. But when I stepped into the house, I was heard “Surprise! Happy Birthday!” All of my family and friends were there. My mom brought a birthday cake making by herself. I wouldn't forget that moments. I was extremely happily and almost cried. My father promised to take care the street cat I had mentioned.
It is the best birthday gift we have ever had. My father's birthday was coming. I'm planning to make the wonderful birthday party for him.
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
假如你是你校学生会主席李华，在你校“读书月”活动到来之际，为呼吁学生多读书、读好书，请你以学生会的名义，写一封倡议书，内容包括：
1.读书的好处；
2.发出倡议。
【写作要求】
1.词数100词左右；
2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear boys and girls,
With the reading month approaching, I’m here to call on all of you to do more reading .
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Students’ Union
铁人中学2020级高二学年下学期期中考试
英语试题答案
1. 听力（共20小题，每小题1分，满分20分）
1-5 ACBCB 6-10 AABCA 11-15 BACBC 16-20 BCCAB
2. 阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分）
21-23 CDA 24-27 B D B C 28-31 BADC 32-35 BDAD
36-40 CEBFG
3. 语言知识运用（共三节，满分55分）
第一节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
41-45 ADACD 46-50 ADBBD 51-55 DCABD 56-60 CDBCA
第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
61. were treated 62. that/which 63. to hold 64. on 65. performers
66. significant 67. carrying 68. clearly 69. and 70. a
3. 单词拼写（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
71.inferred 72. appreciate 73. boost 74. pretend 75. accent
76. resembles 77. modest 78. preserve 79. associated 80. ambitious
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 短文改错 （满分10分）
1.but→and 2.different→difference 3.删除was 4.making→made 5.moments→moment
6.happily→happy 7.care后添加of 8.we→I 9.was→is 10.the→a
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
Dear boys and girls,
With the reading month approaching, I’m here to call on all of you to do more reading.
Reading can benefit us a lot. To begin with, reading is an essential part of our life, which can enrich our minds and broaden our horizons, thus laying a solid foundation for further learning. Furthermore, as a famous writer put it, “Reading a good book is like talking with a noble man.” By reading books, we can gain the wisdom which helps us solve practical problems in our daily life. All in all, the advantages of reading are beyond description.
Let’s take action to do more reading. Only through reading can the soul be strengthened, ambition inspired and success achieved.
大庆铁人中学2021-2022学年高二下学期期末考试
英语试题
试题说明：1、本试题满分 150 分，答题时间 120 分钟。
2、请将答案填写在答题卡上，考试结束后只交答题卡。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分20分）
第一节 （共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题， 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项， 并标在试卷的相应位置。
1.What day is it today?
A. Wednesday. B. Thursday. C.Friday.
2. What does the woman think of herself?
A. She is outgoing. B. She is confident. C. She is quiet.
3. Why doesn’t the woman buy the cell phone?
A. It is out of style. B. It is expensive. C. It is not her favourite color.
4. What is the woman doing?
A. Collecting children’s information.
B. Asking the man to join the organization.
C. Raising money for African children.
5. What are the speakers talking about?
A. A girl. B. A movie. C. A book.
第二节 （共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What is the relationship between the speakers?
A. Old schoolmates. B. Teacher and student. C. Business partners.
7. What does the woman do?
A. A bookstore owner. B. A medical student. C. A college teacher.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What sport did Paul play?
A. Basketball. B. Baseball. C. Football.
9. What do we know about Susan?
A. She played tennis.
B. She practised horse-riding.
C. She scored two goals.
10. Who showed little interest in the sports afternoon?
A. Anne. B. Tom. C. Susan.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What will the woman do this weekend?
A. Chat on the Internet.
B. Meet her pen friend.
C. Book a trip to India.
12. How did the woman get to know her pen friend?
A. Through the Internet.
B. During a trip.
C. In a language study course.
13. What do the woman and her pen friend both like?
A. Studying languages.
B. Music and movies.
C. Travel and swimming.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. What are the speakers mainly discussing?
A. How to give helpful suggestions.
B. How to improve note-taking skills.
C. How to organize a group discussion.
15. What does the man warn the woman against doing during discussions?
A. Being over-confident.
B. Concentrating on basic facts.
C. Repeating others’ thoughts.
16. What does the woman think of the man’s suggestions?
A. Simple. B. Useful. C. Interesting.
17. What will the woman do?
A. Share her ideas. B. Read a book. C. Meet an adviser.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. Why is Tim popular with his classmates?
A. He is good-looking. B. He is well-organized. C. He is helpful.
19. What helps Tim learn English?
A. Using mind maps.
B. Making up English stories.
C. Watching movies in English.
20. What does Tim want to do in the future?
A. Start a company. B. Teach English. C. Become a basketball player.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
A walk through UK’s famous parks and gardens is a gentler way to soak up (充分体验) the country’s atmosphere.
•Sheffield Botanical Gardens
The Sheffield Botanical Gardens are situated off Ecclesall Road in Sheffield, England, with 5,000 species of plants on 19 acres of land. Notable structures are the main gateway, the south entrance lodge and a bear pit containing an 8-foot-tall steel statue of an American Black Bear called Robert the Bear.
Hours: Mon—Fri 8 a.m.—4 p.m.; Sat—Sun 10 a.m.—4 p.m.
•Kensington Gardens
Kensington Gardens are shared by the City of Westminster and the Royal Borough of Kensington and Chelsea, and sit immediately to the west of Hyde Park, in western central London. The open spaces of Kensington Gardens, Hyde Park, Green Park and St. James’s Park form an almost continuous “green lung” in the heart of London.
Hours: Mon—Sun 6 a.m.—7:45 p.m.
•Tatton Park
Tatton Park is owned by the National Trust, which administers it jointly with Cheshire East Council. Since 1999, it has hosted North West England’s annual Royal Horticultural (园艺的) Society flower show.
Hours: Mon Closed; Tue—Sun 10 a.m.—5 p.m.
•Glasgow Botanic Gardens
The botanical garden features several glasshouses. The Gardens has a wide variety of temperate and tropical flora, an herb garden, a chronological bed with plants arranged according to their introduction to Scotland, the UK’s national collection of tree ferns and a world rose garden officially opened in 2003 by Princess Tomohito of Mikasa.
Hours: Mon—Sun 7 a.m.—6 p.m.
21. What time can we visit the Sheffield Botanical Gardens on Sundays?
A. 8:30 a.m. B. 9:30 a.m.
C. 12:30 a.m. D. 16:30 p.m.
22. What is special about Kensington Gardens?
A. They can be visited at any time.
B. They are owned by the National Trust.
C. Its statue of Robert the Bear is world famous.
D. They are considered a “green lung” in the heart of London.
23. What can visitors do in Glasgow Botanic Gardens?
A. Enjoy a variety of roses.
B. Go hunting in tropical forests.
C. Visit some palaces owned by the royal family.
D. Visit Royal Horticultural Society flower show.
B
A nurse has fulfilled (实现) a promise she made to her patient four years ago to one day attend her daughter's graduation from nursing school.
Edina Habibovic, 22, graduated from Chamberlain University's College of Nursing in 2020. Her mother, Sevala Habibovic, 46, died in 2017 after a two year fight with breast cancer.
“I thought the medical field wasn't for me. Then, my mom got sick and I had all the experience going in and out of the hospital, ” Edina told Good Morning America. “When my mom passed away, I thought, ‘I want to do this.’”she said.
Sanja Josipovic, who at the time worked as a home health nurse with Northwestern Medicine in Winfield, Illinois, cared for Sevala inside her home. They often chatted and shared the latest news with each other over six months of care.
“She was most worried about Edina because she was young and hadn't finished school yet, ” Sanja said. “We are like sisters; we care about and trust each other. She was a powerful and strong minded woman. She wasn't scared to die; she was just worried about her kids and husband.”
Edina said her mother lived for being with her family and taking care of people. “When Sanja was working, my mom would still try to make her something to eat, no matter how sick she was, ” Edina added. When Sevala's life was coming to an end, she asked Sanja to take her place at her youngest daughter's nursing school graduation. “That was the only thing she was going to miss—Edina's graduation.” said Sanja, who is a mother of three herself. She agreed.
Due to COVID - 19, there was no graduation or pinning ceremony. Edina's manager at Marianjoy Rehabilitation Hospital decided to host a pinning ceremony for her and have Sanja present the pin. “Sanja has fulfilled her promise, ” Edina said.
Edina and Sanja are now caring for patients alongside one another as colleagues at Marianjoy.
24. What does the underlined word “this” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Leaving the hospital B. Working as a nurse
C. Facing death positively D. Caring for Edina's mother
25. What can be learned about Sanja and Sevala?
A. They enjoyed volunteering B. They were cancer survivors
C. They had unhappy marriages D. They developed a close bond
26. What would be Sevala's regret?
A. The loss of the chance to study medicine
B. Her absence from Edina's school graduation
C. Failing to keep the promise made to Sanja
D. Never cooking a good meal for her husband
27. How did Sanja fulfill her promise?
A. By taking care of Edina and her family B. By helping Edina enter her dream hospital
C. By attending a special ceremony for Edina D. By managing to become Edina's colleague
C
A team of researchers from several institutions in the UK and one in Estonia has created a type of buoy(浮标) that has proven to be effective at frightening seabirds, thus preventing them from getting caught in gillnets—a type of vertical fishing net that is made of a material that makes it nearly invisible underwater.
Every year, hundreds of thousands of seabirds die when they get caught in gillnets. Some estimates suggest that up to a half-million birds are caught in them each year. Over the years, researchers have created devices to prevent the birds from trying to catch fish near or in gillnets, but those didn't work well.
To find a way that would work for all seabirds, the researchers first studied seabirds in a general sense, looking to find things that they would avoid. They noted that seabirds avoided eye contact with other creatures. Then the researchers came up with a simple idea. They put a small pole to a regular buoy and then attached a pair of googly eyes(金鱼眼) to the top of it. They made the eyes big enough so that even birds with poor eyesight, such as geese, would see them. Adding to the effectiveness of the device, waves made the eyes move back and forth. And the wind made the buoy spin very slowly, making sure that birds from every direction would get a good look at the eyes.
To test their idea, the researchers selected several sites near gillnets and counted how many birds approached and how many attempted to catch fish near the nets. They then set up their googly-eyed buoys and once again counted birds. Over the course of 62 days, they found the number of birds that tried to catch fish near the gillnets dropped by approximately 25% for a distance of up to 50 meters. They also found that the birds were less likely to fish near where the buoys had been for up to three weeks after they had been removed.
28. What is the function of paragraph 2?
A. Introducing a new topic to discuss. B. Providing background information.
C. Summarizing the previous paragraph. D. Pointing out the main idea of the text.
29. Why did the researchers make the googly eyes big?
A. To ensure all the seabirds can see them. B. To clearly observe seabirds' eye contact.
C. To allow them to survive the strong wind. D. To effectively identify the right direction.
30. What does the researchers' test result mainly suggest?
A. The new device still needs improving. B. Gillnets are a death valley for seabirds.
C. Seabirds hardly catch fish near the nets. D. The googly-eyed buoy proves effective.
31. What is the text mainly about?
A. A group of researchers interested in seabirds.
B. A way to help seabirds catch fish effectively.
C. A device keeping seabirds safe from gillnets.
D. A googly-eyed buoy guiding seabirds to hunt.
D
Happiness, that short and delightful feeling, seems all too rare in 2020. But there's one place where happiness is the name of the game. And, no, we're not talking about Disney World.
Denmark, currently the second happiest country on earth, is now home to The Happiness Museum, which is created by The Happiness Research Institute, a think tank focusing on well-being, happiness and quality of life. The eight-room museum is devoted to literally bringing happiness to life, reminding visitors what it is that gives value to them and makes them feel good. Led by Meik Wiking, author of three international bestsellers, the museum opened on July 14 in a small 240-square-meter space in Copenhagen.
Visitors to the museum will find many interactive exhibits. Each room is devoted to a specific approach to studying happiness. The politics of happiness exhibit asks questions about the role of elections and GDP in determining national happiness. There's also a geography of happiness section that explores the role of built environments on happiness levels, as well as showing a world map with the World Happiness Report 2020's happiness ranking of 153 countries. There are other sections like the science of happiness, the history of happiness and what lies in store for the future.
Certain museum exhibits include visitors' personal perception of happiness. Can you determine which half of the Mona Lisa's mouth smiles? How do you explain the meaning of happiness? The museum houses a vast collection of donated artworks donated by people from around the globe, which remind them of happy moments in their lives.
While the museum is a very optimistic place to be, it's also aware of the difficulties of being a public place in the middle of a global pandemic (流行病). The museum has strict policies in place to ensure social distancing and safety, including only allowing 50 visitors at a time and a one-way path through the museum.
32. What's the main purpose of creating The Happiness Museum?
A. To remind people to read books on happiness
B. To help visitors learn and experience happiness.
C. To advise visitors to share happiness with others.
D. To tell people ways to improve their quality of life.
33. Where can you learn about the effect of built environments on happiness levels?
A. In the science of happiness section. B. In the history of happiness section.
C. In the politics of happiness section. D. In the geography of happiness section.
34. What does the underlined word “perception” in Paragraph 4 refer to?
A. Understanding. B. Praising. C. Documenting. D. Misunderstanding
35. What does the author intend to tell us about the museum in the last paragraph?
A. The disadvantages it has.
B. Its difficulty in receiving visitors.
C. Its positive attitude towards future.
D. The safety measures it takes for visitors.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
任务型阅读。根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项，请把答案写在答题卡上。
Some children are born loving books, reading, and anything about literature. Then there are children who’d rather climb trees, ride a bike, and run around the house. 36 It may seem impossible to develop a love of reading in these children. However, in fact, it can be easily achieved. The following tips may help you make impossibility become possibility.
Make going to the bookstore more entertaining than a trip to the toy store. Never buy toys while your children is around the toy store. 37 I usually take my children to the bookstore when they are free. And every time, they all enjoy themselves. All of my children enjoy visiting the bookstore and looking for a good book to take home.
38 Some children love fiction (小说), while other children love non-fiction. Keep a variety of books around for your children to choose from and encourage your children to know more about their favorite topics, which can greatly inspire your children’s desire to read.
Read your children’s favorite books and discuss these books with them. One of the best ways to show children the importance of reading is to spend time reading their favorite books with them. Children love to chat about their favorite characters and scenes. 39
Keep reading simple books. The majority of parents may ignore this point. This is hard when children are first reading because we want to push them forward, but easy books make little children happy, especially books with lots of pictures. 40 There are fewer words for children to decode (解码，破译), and they can understand the plot and the jokes even at a lower reading level.
A. Join in every reading competition available.
B. Find relevant books that your child is interested in.
C. The last thing they are willing to do is quietly reading.
D. Encourage your child to frequently read classic books.
E. Instead, buy your child a book when you visit the bookstore.
F. They hope you understand exactly what they know about the books.
G. It’s one of the main advantage comic books (连环画) have over regular books.
第三部分 语言知识运用（共三节，满分55分）
第一节（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Dear Tony,
You are only three years old, and at this point in your life you are not able to understand this letter. But some day when you __41__, I hope you will find something __42__ in what I am going to tell you.
Life can be __43__. There will be people in your life who won’t be very nice. They’ll __44__ you because you are different, __45__ for no good reason. You will also face heartbreak and might be __46__ by those you love. I hope you don’t have to face these too much, but such things __47__.
Be open to life anyway. You’ll find cruelty and __48__ in your journey through life, but don’t let that __49__ you from finding new things. Don’t retreat (退却) from life, and don’t __50__ or wall yourself off. Be open to new things, new experiences, and new people. You will __51__ many times, but if you allow that to stop you from trying, you will __52__ many chances. Do remember failure is a stepping stone to __53__.
You will meet many people who will try to do __54__ than you, in school, in college, and at work. They’ll try to have nicer cars, bigger houses, nicer clothes, and so on. To __55__, life is a competition. However, I believe life is a(n) __56__. If you always try your best to __57__ others, you are wasting your life. Learn to enjoy your life __58__ and you will make it a journey of __59__, of learning and of love.
Finally, know that I love you and always will. You are __60__ a really wonderful journey, and I will always be there for you.
Love，
Dad
41. A. grow up B. show up C. cheer up D. give up
42. A. familiar B. amusing C. serious D. valuable
43. A. unkind B. peaceful C. equal D. simple
44. A. wave at B. run after C. laugh at D. refer to
45. A. if B. and C. so D. or
46. A. hurt B. found C. accepted D. impressed
47. A. matter B. work C. disappear D. happen
48. A. luck B. pain C. difference D. hope
49. A. protect B. stop C. promote D. choose
50. A. bother B. contract C. compete D. hide
51. A. leave B. prepare C. escape D. fail
52. A. enjoy B. form C. miss D. relax
53. A. success B. life C. action D. enthusiasm
54. A. earlier B. better C. less D. faster
55. A. you B. me C. him D. them
56. A. challenge B. encouragement C. journey D. aim
57. A. change B. pardon C. forgive D. beat
58. A. somewhere B. instead C. afterwards D. though
59. A. fortune B. luck C. happiness D. quietness
60. A. starting B. exhausting C. finishing D. replacing
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。
Compared with the Beijing 2008 Summer Olympic Games, the opening ceremony of the Beijing 2022 Winter Olympic Games on the evening of Feb 4 was different, yet spectacular（令人惊叹的）. The audiences ___61___(treat) to a pared-down（简化的） ceremony, without the large-scale artistic performances___62___marked the 2008 opening ceremony, but it was no less symbolic of a shared future for humankind.
In an effort ___63___(hold) a simple, safe and yet spectacular Winter Games, the opening ceremony ___64___ Friday was not lengthy or marked with a large-scale performance. Even the number of___65___(performer)—about 15,000 in 2008—was down to 3,000, and the duration of the ceremony was reduced to about 100 minutes because of the cold weather and the COVID-19 pandemic. The final torch at the snowflake-themed ceremony was small, but the flames conveyed ___66___(significance) messages of greener Olympic Games.
The use of advanced technologies such as artificial intelligence, machine vision, 5G and cloud broadcasting added to the novelty of the opening ceremony. The performances,___67___(carry) forward the theme of global peace and shared future for humankind, focused on environmental protection, and human health and physical fitness, highlighting the importance of sports to instill（使某人逐渐感到） new confidence in the international community to contain the pandemic.
Through Friday's opening ceremony, people can___68___(clear) see China's pursuit of building a peaceful world, its reflection of the new Olympic motto of “Faster, Higher, Stronger-Together”___69___the Beijing Winter Games’ motto of “Together for a Shared Future”.
For China, holding____70____simple, safe and yet spectacular opening ceremony is not just a slogan; it’s a philosophy, a way of life in the true sense of term.
第三节 单词拼写（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
根据汉译及首字母填写单词或单词的适当形式。
71. Much of the meaning must be ______________(推断) from the context.
72. I would a______________ it if you could take my application into consideration.
73. The activity is rewarding and fulfilling, which helps b______________ our cultural confidence.
74. I’m tired of having to ______________（假装） all the time.
75. He speaks with an American _____________（口音）.
76. Look！The plant ______________（与......相似）grass in appearance.
77. She is very ______________(谦虚的) about her success.
78. Efforts to ______________(维护、保护) the peace have failed.
79. These symptoms are particularly a______________ with COVID-19.
80. His plans are ______________(宏大的,有雄心的)：he wants to master French, German and
Spanish before he is twenty.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 短文改错 （满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下短文。短文中共有10处错误，每句中最多有两处。错误涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在此符号下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余词用斜线(\)划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2. 只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。
On previous birthdays, my family would give me gifts but invite me to eat outside. I thought there would be no different this year. I went home after school as usual. But when I stepped into the house, I was heard “Surprise! Happy Birthday!” All of my family and friends were there. My mom brought a birthday cake making by herself. I wouldn't forget that moments. I was extremely happily and almost cried. My father promised to take care the street cat I had mentioned.
It is the best birthday gift we have ever had. My father's birthday was coming. I'm planning to make the wonderful birthday party for him.
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
假如你是你校学生会主席李华，在你校“读书月”活动到来之际，为呼吁学生多读书、读好书，请你以学生会的名义，写一封倡议书，内容包括：
1.读书的好处；
2.发出倡议。
【写作要求】
1.词数100词左右；
2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear boys and girls,
With the reading month approaching, I’m here to call on all of you to do more reading .
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Students’ Union
铁人中学2020级高二学年下学期期中考试
英语试题答案
1. 听力（共20小题，每小题1分，满分20分）
1-5 ACBCB 6-10 AABCA 11-15 BACBC 16-20 BCCAB
2. 阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分）
21-23 CDA 24-27 B D B C 28-31 BADC 32-35 BDAD
36-40 CEBFG
3. 语言知识运用（共三节，满分55分）
第一节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
41-45 ADACD 46-50 ADBBD 51-55 DCABD 56-60 CDBCA
第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
61. were treated 62. that/which 63. to hold 64. on 65. performers
66. significant 67. carrying 68. clearly 69. and 70. a
3. 单词拼写（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
71.inferred 72. appreciate 73. boost 74. pretend 75. accent
76. resembles 77. modest 78. preserve 79. associated 80. ambitious
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 短文改错 （满分10分）
1.but→and 2.different→difference 3.删除was 4.making→made 5.moments→moment
6.happily→happy 7.care后添加of 8.we→I 9.was→is 10.the→a
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
Dear boys and girls,
With the reading month approaching, I’m here to call on all of you to do more reading.
Reading can benefit us a lot. To begin with, reading is an essential part of our life, which can enrich our minds and broaden our horizons, thus laying a solid foundation for further learning. Furthermore, as a famous writer put it, “Reading a good book is like talking with a noble man.” By reading books, we can gain the wisdom which helps us solve practical problems in our daily life. All in all, the advantages of reading are beyond description.
Let’s take action to do more reading. Only through reading can the soul be strengthened, ambition inspired and success achieved.
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