2022年云南省大理州中考模拟英语试题(word无含答案)

2021~2022学年九年级学业水平测试卷

英语

注意事项：

1.满分120分，答题时间为120分钟。

2请将各题答案填写在答题卡上。

第一部分  听力(共四节，满分30分)

做题时，先将答案标在试题卷上，录音内容结束后，请将试题卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)

听下面5个句子，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相关的图画。听完每个句子后，你将有5秒钟的作答时间。每个句子听两遍。

1. A. B. C.

2. A. B. C.

3. A. B. C.

4. A. B. C.

5. A. B. C.

第二节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)

听下面5个句子，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相符的正确答语。听完每个句子后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个句子听两遍。

6. A. I like swimming in the sea.  B. That’s a good idea!

C. It’s sunny.

7. A. Never mind. B. Sorry to hear that. C. Look out!

8. A. Just a little. B. Tea, please. C. That would be fine.

9. A. I’m afraid so. B. By bike. C. Running.

10. A. 1 had a bad cold.  B. Take the medicine.

C. See you then.

第三节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话听两遍。

11. What time does the school bus leave on Fridays?

A. At 6:00. B. At 6:30.  C. At 7:00.

12. Which subject does David like better?

A. English. B. Music. C. Science.

13. How does Mr. Wang usually go to work?

A. On foot. B. By bike. C. By car.

14. What’s the weather like in May in Michael’s hometown?

A. Nice. B. Cold. C. Rainy.

15. Where was the woman last night?

A. In the music hall. B. At home. C. In the restaurant.

第四节(共5小题；每小题1.5 分，满分7.5分)

听下面2段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白听两遍。

听第1段材料，回答第16、17小题。

16. Who will the boy buy the MP5 for?

A. His brother. B. His sister. C. His mother.

17. How much did the boy pay for the MP5?

A.80 yuan. B.100 yuan. C.150 yuan.

听第2段材料,回答第18~20小题。

18. What does Paul do?

A. A driver. B. A postman. C. A policeman.

19. How many hours does Paul work a day?

A. Six and a half. B. Eight. C. Eight and a half.

20. What doesn’t Paul like about his job?

A. Winter days and dogs. B. Getting up too early.

C. Too many letters.

第二部分  英语知识运用(共两节，满分30分)

第一节  单项填空(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)

从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将所选答案徐列答题卡的相应位置上。

21. —What do you usually do after dinner?

—I usually watch news on TV for half ______ hour to know about what’s happening.

A. a B. an C. the D. /

22. —Granny, it’s not safe when you cross the street now. Can I help you?

—Thank you for your ______. You’re really a good boy!

A. advice  B. attention C. information D. kindness

23. —Mike, ______ will the new science museum be built?

—It will be built in the center of the city.

A. when B. where C. what D. why

24. —Hello, may I speak to Gina?

—______

A. Hi, this is Gina speaking. B. Hi, I’m Gina.

C. May I know your address? D. May I take a message for you?

25. Don’t use your mobile phone when you go ______ the road. It’s dangerous.

A. into B. over C. across D. through

26. The report is very important. You ______ write it carefully.

A. may B. need C. must D. might

27. —May I use your computer?

—______. I’m working on it.

A. Glad to hear that  B. It doesn’t matter

C. That’s all right  D. I’m sorry

28. Tony eats a lot and never takes exercise. He becomes the ______ in his class.

A. thinner B. thinnest C. heavier D. heaviest

29. Would you please ______ the light? It’s very dark now.

A. turn up B. turn on C. turn off D. turn down

30. —Do you like to eat vegetables?

—Of course. I ______ eat them every day.

A. almost B. hardly C. never  D. perhaps

31. —Helen, could you please water the flowers in my garden?

—______. They are so lovely.

A. With pleasure   B. That’s too bad

C. You’re welcome  D. I’m afraid not

32. —Doctor, what’s the matter with me?

—There’s ______ to worry about. It’s just a cold.

A. something B. nothing C. everything D. anything

33. —I’m afraid we can’t work out the math problem ______ the teacher helps us.

—That’s true. It’s too difficult.

A. if B. because C. unless D. as

34. —Jenny, do you know if your mother ______ back tomorrow?

—Sorry, I don’t know. As soon as she ______ home, I will tell her to call you.

A. comes; gets  B. will come; will get

C. comes; will get  D. will come; gets

35. —Hi. Eric, do you know ______?

—At 8:30 tonight.

A. when the movie begins

B. when does the movie begin

C why the movie is popular

D. why is the movie popular

第二节  完形填空(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)

从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。

Basketball is my favorite sport. I started    36    basketball when I was eight years old.

Basketball is a game where two    37    play against each other. There are also different players on the team.

I joined a basketball team while in Grade 7. I felt proud to be a    38    of the school team. My favorite player on the team was the shooter (投手). He is three years older than me. He never missed a chance and    39    worked very hard. I would like to be the person like him when I    40   .

My coach Mr. Williams made us practice at least two hours every day after school. If we were late, we would be    41   . We were afraid of him because he was very strict    42    us. As a team, we had to put all    43    effort into the game. My first game was against the basketball team of South Middle School. We    44    the game at last. It made us very excited.

Basketball helped me grow and keep healthy. It made me    45    and confident. It also taught me the importance of teamwork.

36. A. giving B. playing C. dreaming D. selling

37. A. classes B. teams  C. clubs D. schools

38. A. player B. student C. coach D. dancer

39. A. always B. never C. sometimes D. seldom

40. A. warm up B. stand up C. pick up D. grow up

41. A. interviewed B. wasted C. praised D. punished

42. A. in B. on C. with D. for

43. A. our B. your C. her D. their

44. A. won B. lost C. missed D. hated

45. A. angry B. happy C. sad D. nervous

第三部分  阅读理解 (共三节，满分35分)

第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)

根据短文内容，判断正误(正确“T”，错误“F”)，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。

An old woman was playing a good game of bridge (打桥牌) with her friends one evening. “Oh, no! I have to rush home and make dinner for my husband! He’s going to be really angry if it’s not ready on time!” she said suddenly.

Arriving home, she realized that she had no enough time to shop, and all she had in the cupboard (碗橱) was a lettuce leaf, an egg, and a can of cat food. In a hurry, she opened the can, mixed in the egg, and put the lettuce leaf on it just as her husband came in.

She watched nervously as her husband sat down to his dinner. To her surprise, her husband really enjoyed his dinner. “Dear, this is the best dinner you have made for me in forty years of marriage.”

So every bridge night from then on, the woman made her husband the same dish. She told her bridge friends it and they were all terrified.

“You’re going to kill him!” they shouted.

Two months later, her husband died.

The women were playing bridge when one of the friends said, “You killed him! We told you that feeding him that cat food every week would do him in! How can you just sit there so calmly and play bridge knowing you murdered (谋杀) your husband?”

The wife calmly replied, “I didn’t kill him. He fell off a tree while trying to catch a bird.”

46. The old woman liked to play bridge.

47. The old woman went shopping and bought lots of things for her husband that evening.

48. Her husband asked her to stop playing bridge after eating the dinner.

49. Her husband thought the dinner was very delicious.

50. Her husband died because he fell off a tree.

第二节(共10小题；每小题2分，满分20分)

根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。

A

Everyone has their favorite food. Some might love chocolate. Some might love potato chips.

Think about your favorite food. Have you ever wondered why your favorite food tastes so good? The answer is about your tongue (舌头) and your nose.

There are some taste buds (味蕾) on your tongue. They give you the sense of taste. How do the taste buds work? In fact, they have many tiny hairs on them. These tiny hairs send messages to your brain about the tastes of different food. In this way, you know whether it is sweet, sour, bitter or salty.

An average person has about 10,000 taste buds. They keep working all the time when we enjoy our food. The taste buds don’t always stay the same. They are replaced every two weeks or so. However, as a person gets older, some of these taste buds don’t get replaced. An older person may only have 5,000 working taste buds. That’s why some food may taste stronger for you than they do for an older person.

Besides your tongue, your nose also helps you learn about the taste of food. Sometime, strong smells can even confuse (使困惑) your sense of taste. Try holding an onion under your nose while eating an apple. What do you taste?

So the next time you enjoy salty pizza and sweet ice cream, thank your tongue and your nose. Without them, you won’t have any sense of taste at all! Without the sense of taste, life will be boring.

51. Which Parts of our body can help us taste the food?

A. Tongue and eyes.  B. Tongue and hairs.

C. Nose and eyes.  D. Nose and tongue.

52. What does the underlined word “replaced” mean in Chinese?

A.更新 B.创造 C.显示 D.启动

53. How many working taste buds does an older person usually have?

A. Only 5,000.  B. Over 5,000.

C. About 10,000.  D. About 100,000.

54. What do you taste if you hold an onion under your nose while eating an apple?

A. The taste of apple.  B. The taste of onion.

C. The taste of sweet ice cream. D. The taste of potato chips.

55. What does the passage mainly tell us?

A. The use of taste buds.  B. Our favorite food.

C. How we can taste food. D. Different tastes of food.

B

Our teacher gave us a task called “secret friends” for the coming week. With our eyes closed, we drew (抽取) a name of a classmate from a basket. We were supposed to do nice things for our friends without letting them know who was doing it. We could leave encouraging notes or cards on their desks or in their schoolbags.

Soon, the task was turned into a competition of giving gifts instead of notes. Everyone was getting cool presents except me. I received nothing but cards with nice words about me.

On the last morning, 1 finally got a package. When I opened it, the girls around all laughed. It was perfumed powder (香粉), an “old lady” gift. My face went red.

I tried to forget about the embarrassing gift, but when the girls mentioned it again in the washroom, I joined in, “How stupid! My grandmother wouldn’t even want it,” The girls laughed and left the bathroom.

“I’m your secret friend.” It was Rachel. “I’m sorry about the gift,” she said to me in a low voice.

From a poor family she was often laughed at by those with rich parents. Yet she just bore everything silently.

I was sick to my stomach as my hurtful words ran through my mind. She had heard everything. How could 1 have been so cruel?

Later I learned that she had felt bad all week about not being able to leave me any cool present and her mum had given up her only luxury (奢侈品).

I told her that 1 had only said those things to try to fit in (融入).

“We aren’t that different from each other, are we?” she smiled understandingly. Her simple words, spoken from her heart, found their way straight into mine.

56. What was the task given by the teacher?

A. Helping their deskmates with their study.

B. Sharing lunch with one of their classmates.

C Drawing a picture of one student in their class.

D. Doing nice things for a classmate secretly.

57. What does the underlined word “it” refer to in the passage?

A. The note.  B. The card.

C. The package.  D. The schoolbag.

58. Why did the writer say those hurtful words?

A. Because she thought the gift was cheap.

B. Because she tried to fit in.

C. Because she hated those girls.

D. Because she wanted to be the leader.

59. How did the writer feel when she heard what Rachel said?

A. Sorry. B. Pleased. C. Angry. D. Proud.

60. What’s the best title for the passage?

A. Please understand and respect others

B. The differences between poor and rich

C. Please be brave to tell the truth

D. The good relationships between classmates

第三节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)

根据短文内容，从短文后所给的选项中，选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。

Francis Bacon once said, “Reading makes a full man.” He couldn’t be more correct.    61    That’s why we celebrate World Book Day on April 23rd every year.

In Jilin, China, there is a special family.    62    Zhang Xiaoying and her husband Cai Yanwen are farmers and they have two children.

In 1985, Zhang first read Cai’s works in a writing workshop. “   63    Then they fell in love and got married,” their daughter says happily. “My younger brother and I began reading with our parents at a very young age.” In 2009, the family was named a National Most Beautiful Family.

During the daytime, the couple work together on the farm.    64    Zhang likes writing poems, and Cai likes writing novels more. Over the past years, the couple have read and written together almost every day. They also encourage villagers to read books so that they can live a rich cultural life.    65    They also organize colorful activities such as fun sports games and reading competitions.

The couple say, “We hope villagers can enjoy living in not only a beautiful natural environment, but also a strong cultural atmosphere (氛围).”

A. Reading needs time.

B. When night falls, they begin to write.

C. In the family, everyone is a book lover.

D. To make a living, they have to work very hard.

E. Reading is a great habit that everyone should get into.

F. The couple have set up a reading room for the villagers.

G. My parents got to know each other because of their common hobbies— reading and writing,

第四部分  写作(共三节，满分25分)

第一节(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)

根据句意，用括号中所给词的适当形式填空，并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置上。

66. Yunnan is so colorful that millions of people come to enjoy ______ every year. (they)

67. —Mr. Ding, have you heard the good news?

—Yes. When we heard it, we all felt ______. (excite)

68. Teachers’ Day is in the ______ month of the year. (nine)

69. It has been cold ______ but experts say it’s normal for this time of year. (recent)

70. It’s well-known that China has ______ population than any other country. (big)

第二节(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)

将下列句子中汉语部分译成英语，注意使用适当的形式，并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置上。

71. This salad is ______ apples, pears and potatoes. (由……制成)

72. We’ll ______ social activities during the summer vacation. (参加)

73. Mrs. Brown taught her students how to ______ pressure. (处理)

74. ______ the Mobike, I was able to get back home in time.(多亏)

75. Kunming is ______ its beautiful scenery. Welcome 10 Kunming! (因为……而出名)

第三节  书面表达（满分15分）

My good friend

提示：每个人都有自己的好朋友。你的这位好朋友好在什么地方？你对你的这位好朋友有何期望？请你以“My good friend”为题，用英语写篇短文，描述你的好朋友。

要求：1.语言流畅、书写规范、卷面整洁，词数不少于60个；

2.文中不得使用真实姓名、校名，否则以零分计；

3.请将短文写在答题卡上，写在本试题卷上无效。

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