2022年湖北省咸宁市咸安区中考模拟英语试题(word版含答案)

这是一份2022年湖北省咸宁市咸安区中考模拟英语试题(word版含答案)，共12页。试卷主要包含了 认真阅读答题卷上的注意事项， 考生必须保持答题卷的整洁等内容，欢迎下载使用。
（满分：120分 考试时间：120分钟）
注意事项：
1. 本试卷分试题卷（共8页）和答题卷（共2页）；全卷共87个小题。
2. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卷指定的位置，并将准考证号条形码粘贴在答题卷上的指定位置。
3. 认真阅读答题卷上的注意事项。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卷对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。答在试题卷上无效。非选择题的作答：用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔直接答在答题卷上对应的答题区域内。答在试题卷上无效。
4. 考生必须保持答题卷的整洁。考试结束后，请将试题卷和答题卷一并上交。
第Ⅰ卷（选择题88分）
一、听力测试（共三节；满分25分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听句子选图。从下面所给的A、B、C、D、E、F六个选项中，按顺序选出与所听句子内容相符的图片。听完每个句子后，你将有5秒钟的作答时间。每个句子读两遍。
A. B. C.
D. E. F.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
听下面6段对话，每段对话后面有几个小题，从题后所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有10或15秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听第6段对话，回答第6、7小题。
6. Hw des Jane get t schl?
A. By bike.B. By bus.C. By subway.
7. Hw lng des it take Jane t get t schl?
A. Abut 5 hurs.B. Abut 15 minutes.C. Abut 25 minutes.
听第7段对话，回答第8、9小题。
8. Where will they g fr the schl trip this year?
A. The art museum.B. The histry museum.C. The space museum.
9. What are they nt allwed t d in the museum?
A. Make a nise.B. Take phts.C. Tuch the things.
听第8段对话，回答第10、11小题。
10. What des the man think f the cmmunity?
A. It’s busy.B. It’s crwded.C. It’s fantastic.
11. Which is the newest arund the cmmunity?
A. The supermarket. B. Sun Cinema.C. Dream Clthes.
听第9段对话，回答第12、13、14小题。
12. Why isn’t Betty allwed t watch TV n schl nights?
A. Because she isn’t at hme.B. Because she is sleepy.C. Because she has t d her hmewrk.
13. Wh buys clthes fr Betty?
A. Her mther.B. Her father.C. Her sister.
14. When is Betty allwed t g t the mvies with her friends?
A. On Friday nights. B. On Saturday nights. C. On Sunday nights.
听第10段对话，回答第15、16、17小题。
15. Where des the wman plan t g?
A. The Summer Palace. B. The Great Wall.C. The wrld Park
16. What time are they ging t start?
B. At 7:00.C. At 8:00.A. At 6:00.
17. What will Mr. Green bring with him?
B. A cat.C. A jacket.A. A sweater.
听第11段对话，回答第18、19、20小题。
18. What kind f music des Tny like?
A. Rck and classical. B. Jazz and wrk.C. Flk and jazz.
19. When des the girl ften listen t the music?
A. Befre ging t schl. B. Befre ging t bed. C. Befre ging t wrk.
20. Where are they ging next weekend?
A. T England.B. T the rck cncert. C. T the Rlling Stnes’ hme.
第三节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面一篇短文。根据你所听到的短文内容，选出能回答所提问题的最佳答案。听完短文后，你将有25秒钟的作答时间。短文读两遍。
21. Why was the lady thankful t the dctr?
A. He saved her life. B. He saved her sn’s life. C. He lent her sme mney.
22. What present did the lady give t the dctr?
A. A letter.B. A bunch f flwers.C. A wallet.
23. Did the dctr accept the lady’s present?
A. Yes, he did.B. N, he didn’t.C. We dn’t knw.
24. Hw did the lady feel when she heard what the dctr said?
A. Wrried.B. Interested.C. Surprised.
25. Hw much mney was the dctr paid fr at last?
A. 200 punds.B. 100 punds.C. 50 punds.
二、单项选择（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
从每小题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
26. —What did Chinese President Xi say during the epidemic (疫情)?
—________ is mre imprtant than peple’s safety and health.
A. NthingB. EverythingC. SmethingD. Anything
27. —May I jin the art club, Dad?
—If yu have interest, yu ________.
A. shuldB. canC. have tD. must
28. —In my pinin, animals shuldn’t be kept fr fun.
—I think s. Frests are the best places fr animals ________.
A. liveB. livingC. t liveD. t live in
29. —Mm, can I leave the chres till tmrrw?
—I’m afraid nt. Yu can’t ________ tday’s wrk till tmrrw.
A. put ffB. turn dwn C. give awayD. lk up
30. —Lucy is walking the dg in the park.
—She ________ be. Listen! She is singing ludly in her rm.
A. can’tD. wn’tB. mustn’tC. needn’t
31. —Mike, please turn dwn the music. ________ Daba ________ Erba are sleeping.
—Srry, I will d it at nce.
A. Neither; nr B. Either; r
C. Nt nly; but als D. Bth; and
32. —Gu Eileen wn three glds in the Beijing Winter Olympic Games.
—________ exciting news it is! Let’s give her the thumbs-up (点赞).
A. WhatB. What anC. HwD. Hw an
33. —What are yu lking fr?
—I’m lking fr the dictinary ________ yu lent me last week.
A. whB. whatC. thatD. when
34. —The light in ur sn’s study is still n. And I wnder ________.
—Maybe at midnight again. He always has t much hmewrk befre exams.
A. when he will finish writingB. if will he finish writing
C. when will he finish writingD. if he will finish writing
35. —I missed the pening ceremny f the 2022 Beijing Winter Olympic Games. ________? Tm?
—It was wnderful! I have never seen such a great pening ceremny befre.
A. What’s upB. What’s it likeC. What’s it abutD. What’s the result
三、完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面的短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，使短文意思完整。
One weekend, my husband suggested we ck tgether. I’d spken t my mther earlier that day n the phne. I’d tld her abut ur life. She yawned (打哈欠) and we said gdbye t ne anther.
I didn’t knw then that just 16 hurs later, my mther wuld 36 . My mther was my best friend. After she died, I felt 37 . She was the nly persn I wanted t talk t. The 38 persn wh culd help me was the ne wh was missing.
My mther gave me many things, 39 she’d never taught me hw t ck. She liked t eat mre than ck. She lved t eat fish pie and 40 it t us fr dinner. Almst every week, she wuld 41 a prepared fish pie. Then she wuld bring it hme and make her wn white sauce (白寿司).
My mther 42 gt arund t teaching me hw t make a white sauce-and I never gt arund t asking her. Nw that she was gne, I wuld have t teach 43 .
S this became my fcus. Fr the first few weeks, I survived (生存) n cheap fd. But ne night, a fish pie mix 44 my eye at the stre.
When I gt hme, I 45 myself in frnt f ur electric stve. I tried t make a white sauce 46 myself t made a white sauce!
Halfway thrugh the recipe (菜谱), I culdn’t believe it---I’d made a white sauce! Then I remembered: I had always 47 fish pie.
Admiring (欣赏) my sauce (调味汁), I wndered 48 I wanted t make a dish I had hated fr 25 years. Why was it suddenly s imprtant?
I pured the sauce ver the fish. Then I ate the pie. I realized that the act f 49 calmed me dwn.
It helped me find 50 .
36. A. pass awayB. pass utC. pass byD. pass ver
37. A. livelyB. pleasedC. seriusD. lnely
38. A. justB. nlyC. firstD. next
39. A. andB. rC. butD. s
40. A. makeB. manageC. addD. serve
41. A. stealB. buyC. brrwD. ck
42. A. neverB. smetimesC. ftenD. always
43. A. meB. herselfC. myselfD. urselves
44. A. gtB. preferredC. shwedD. caught
45. A. sawB. setC. pickedD. packed
46. A. teachB. imagineC. allwD. reach
47. A. lvedB. ateC. hatedD. cked
48. A. whyB. whereC. hwD. when
49. A. teachingB. ckingC. fishingD. resting
50. A. wealthB. familyC. healthD. peace
四、阅读理解（共19小题；每小题2分，满分38分）
第一节 阅读选择（共14小题；每小题2分，满分28分）
阅读下面三篇短文，根据短文内容，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
During the Jin Dynasty (265-420), there was a child named Che Yin. He was smart and lved t read. He grew up in a pr family and culdn’t affrd (买得起) lamp il t study at night.
One night, he saw fireflies (萤火虫) utside his huse and came up with an idea. He caught sme fireflies in a clth bag and hung the bag up as a lamp. It was said that he spent all f his summer nights reading like this. Anther child named Sun Kang wh lived during the same perid als lved reading. One night during winter, Sun used up all f his lamp il and culdn’t study at night. When he suddenly wke up at midnight, he saw the snw reflecting the mnlight utside his huse. His first thught was “Oh, I can use the reflected light t read!”. He tk ut his bks and read, even thugh he was freezing cld.
Bth f these kids later became successful gvernment fficials. Peple were tuched by their hardwrking spirit and their stries inspired (启发) the Chinese idim “nang ying ying xue” (囊萤映雪), r “t read by the light f bagged fireflies r the reflected light f snw”.
In the past, peple had a harder time studying than we d nw. They had t cpy bks by hand because bks were rare back then. Fr pr families, paper and writing brushes were t expensive t affrd. Students even had t travel ver muntains and rivers in rder t find a gd teacher. Hwever, these cnditins did nt stp yung minds frm pursuing (追求) knwledge.
51. What did Sun Kang use t read utside?
A. Light frm an ld lamp.B. a campfire.
C. A bag f fireflies.D. light reflected ff the snw.
52. What d we knw abut the tw children?
A. They wasted their time during the day.B. They were hard-wrking and smart.
C. They invented a Chinese idim.D. They helped each ther read.
53. What des the phrase “used up” mean?
A. handed utB. gave utC. made up withD. ran ut f
54. What might the writer agree with?
A. These stries are nt real.B. These stries are encuraging.
C. Peple use t read mre bks.D. Having a gd teacher is imprtant.
B
My friend Siberia nce said: “Things d nt give us true happiness.” I used t wnder, “Is this really s?” But after living in quarantine (隔离), I think it’s true.
We live in a new wrld. My new dress hangs in my clset (衣橱)--I have nwhere t wear it. My car is parked--I can’t g anywhere. Siberia was right--things d nt make me happy.
Then hw can we find happiness? I asked Siberia this questin. She said it’s easy-yu just have t smile and be nice t everyne, even strangers.
I decided t try it. I jined a chat grup where my neighbrs and I discuss ur prblems. I wrte, “Dear neighbrs, I hpe yu’re having a great day! Everything will be all right.” Within minutes, I received lts f messages frm my neighbrs. Peple thanked me and wished me a gd day. One neighbr shared a fun sng, while anther sent a cute kitten sticker (猫咪贴图).
I thught t myself, “I’ve made s many peple happy with just a few wrds. If each f us said ne nice thing, there culd be s much happiness in the wrld!” This is why I’m launching (发起) the kind wrds marathn (马拉松). Let’s each write smething nice every day t a friend, neighbr, vlunteer… anyne! We can supprt each ther during these difficult times.
55. What is Paragraph 2 written t shw?
A. The authr’s dubts abut life are crrect.B. Living in quarantine makes life easier and simpler.
C. Peple can’t depend n things t be happy.D. The authr has wasted a lt f mney n things.
56. Why did the authr jin a chat grup?
A. T meet strangers.B. T try ut her friend’s idea.
C. T help her neighbrs slve prblems. D. T prepare fr a stage perfrmance.
57. What can we learn frm the last paragraph?
A. The authr was a marathn runner.
B. Peple enjy saying nice things t thers.
C. Exercising can help peple get thrugh difficult times.
D. The authr started an activity t pass happiness n t thers.
58. Which f the fllwing is True accrding t the passage?
A. The authr didn’t have anything nice.
B. Everything is gd during living in quarantine.
C. We shuld be friendly t thers n matter when we are in truble.
D. Every neighbr culd share a fun sng each ther.
59. What can we infer (推断) abut the authr frm the stry?
A. She was suffering frm COVID-19.B. She desn’t believe in strangers.
C. She is nt gd at cmmunicatin.D. She is a persn f actin.
C
On a schl day, 60 students at Xishan Primary Schl in Shunde, Guangdng, are learning hw t make crn sup (压米汤) and fried prk (炸猪排) with cauliflwer (菜花) in an after-schl cking class. Wrking in grups f fur r five, the little chefs take their respnsibilities very seriusly. Sn, they are shwing ff their wn delicius dishes.
Since last September, the schl has set up after--schl classes fr students, with cking classes being the mst ppular, said Xinhua. It cmes after the “duble reductin” plicy (政策). The plicy aims t ease the burdens (减轻负担) f t much hmewrk and ff-campus tutring (课外辅导) fr primary and junir high schl students.
The plicy lists requirements in areas such as reducing the amunt and difficulty f hmewrk assignments (家庭作业), as well as imprving the quality (质量) f educatin and after-schl services. Fr example, hmewrk fr junir high schl students shuld take n lnger than 90 minutes t finish. It allws students mre free time t pursue (追求) their hbbies and interests. Als, ff-campus tutring has been further regulated (管理) t reduce the burden n students.
“Our hmewrk is clearly less than befre,” said 13-year-ld Shen Yuzhe frm Beijing. “We are nt encuraged t buy wrkbks anymre. The exercises are mainly frm the textbk.” Accrding t Shen, teachers have taught at a much slwer pace (速度), which gives students enugh time t prcess new infrmatin.
In December, the Ministry f Educatin reprted n the prgress made thrugh the plicy s far. Almst all primary and middle schls nw ffer tw-hur after-schl services n weekdays. Mre than 90 percent f students can finish their written hmewrk in the set time. Abut 92.7 percent f schls have pened after-schl arts and sprts classes. Mre than 80 percent f academic tutring institutins (学科类校外培训机构) have clsed dwn r turned t ther fields f business.
“With hmewrk dne at schl, my child and I can read bks and listen t music tgether in the evening, r we can g ut t play badmintn r skip rpe,” said Lu Di, the parent f a fifth-grader in Qiqihar, Heilngjiang.
60. Xishan Primary Schl pened cking classes t ________.
A. train prfessinal cksB. enrich its after-schl activities
C. earn mney by tutring studentsD. teach students t save fd
61. What is the aim f the “duble reductin” plicy?
A. T ease students’ academic burdens. B. T clse dwn academic tutring institutins.
C. T ffer teachers mre time t study. D. T allw schls t keep children lnger.
62. Under the “duble reductin” plicy, ________.
a. students have mre time t develp interests
b. students have less hmewrk t d
c. the quality f schl educatin is imprving
d. academic tutring institutins are mre ppular
A. abcB. abdC. acdD. bcd
63. Paragraph 5 describes ________.
A. wh benefits frm the plicyB. what prblems the plicy has caused
C. what has been achieved by the plicyD. what sciety thinks abut the plicy
64. What might be Lu Di’s attitude tward the plicy?
A. Disapprving.B. Unsure。C. Dubtful.D. Supprtive.
第二节 阅读还原（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面的短文，根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入文中空白处的最佳选项。（每个选项只用一次，选项中有一项为多余选项)
The undersea wrld is very beautiful. Nw mre and mre peple want t dive in the water t find the secrets there. Scuba diving (潜水)is a kind f sprt. It can take yu int a wnderful undersea wrld.
65 Sme are as large as a schl bus. Many sea animals give ut light in the dark and sme have sharp teeth.
During the day, there is enugh light. Here, under the sea, everything is blue and green. When fish swim nearby, yu can catch them with yur hands. When yu have bttles f rair n yur back, yu can stay in deep water fr a lng time. 66 And yu must be very careful when yu dive in deep water.
67 It’s cld, and it’s dark, t. The deeper it is, the less sunlight there is. At abut 3000 feet, there is n light at all. It is very dark in the sea. Many fishes have n eyes. Sme have big eyes. 68
Besides the cld and the darkness, deep-sea animals face a third danger--ther animals.
Animals must find fd t eat. Many animals eat plants. Hwever, sme animals eat meat. 69 They need t find animals as fd, and they have t try nt t becme ther animals’ meals.
第Ⅱ卷（非选择题32分）
五、综合填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面的短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内单词的正确形式填空。（每空不超过三个词)
Wang Ping is a cleaner. He has wrked in a park fr 5 years. He is als a gd father. Nthing can make him 70 (happy)than playing with his little daughter in his free time.
Last Tuesday afternn, while he was cleaning the park, suddenly, he heard a wman 71 (cry) fr help. He ran up quickly t see what happened. The wman’s 15-mnth-ld baby girl chked (窒息) n a small piece f pear and her face turned purple. The baby was t yung t save herself 72 the mther was s nervus that she didn’t knw hw t save her daughter prperly. 73 (Lucky), Wang Ping knew what t d. He tk the baby in his arms 74 thinking twice. With the mther’s help, Wang Ping held the baby inside dwn and gave her a few pats (轻拍) n the back. After 75 shrt while, he succeeded in getting the piece f pear ut f her muth and the baby began t cry. Her mm was s thankful because her daughter 76 (save).
Wang Ping always tried his best 77 (help)thers in his life. In his mind, helping thers is just helping 78 (him). He hped mre peple culd vlunteer t help the peple 79 need if pssible.
六、完成句子（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分）
阅读下列各小题，根据汉语及句末括号内的动词提示，用相关动词短语的适当形式完成句子。（每空不超过四个词）
80. 我们必须远离毒品。(keep)
We must ________ drugs.
81. 她经常在网上征求学习英语的意见。(ask)
She ften ________ advice abut learning English nline.
82. 在五一劳动节期间，我们最好不要聚集。(get)
During the May Day, we had better ________.
83. 这是我第一次出国，我感觉非常兴奋。(g)
It’s my first ________, I feel very excited.
84. 在考试中，如果你感觉紧张，请深呼吸。(take)
Please ________ if yu feel nervus in the exam.
85. 执行神舟十三号太空飞行任务的机组人员安全返回地球。(return)
The crew f the Shenzhu ⅩⅢ space missin (太空飞行任务) ________ Earth safely.
86. 回想起过去的三年，我懂得了要想成功，就必须努力学习。(think)
________ the past three years, I have learned that if I want t succeed, I must study hard.
七、书面表达（共1小题；满分15分）
为响应我市“创建国家文明城市”的号召，6月3日，5000多名市民以绿色出行的方式参与了“生态咸宁——环淦河健步走”活动。请以“共建文明城市”为主题，根据以下要点提示，并适当发表自己的观点，写一篇英语短文。
写作要求：1. 词数90个左右。（开头已经给出，不计入总词数）。
2. 根据要点提示，可以适当发挥。
3. 文中不得出现真实的姓名及校名。
参考词汇：avid避免，jams堵塞，reduce减少，thrw rubbish扔垃圾，spit吐痰，pick up捡，dustbin垃圾箱，
As a middle schl student f Xianning, it’s ur duty t help build a civilized city.
___________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
同学们：恭喜你做完了试卷，请再认真检查一遍哦！
咸安区2022年初中毕业生5月调考
英语参考答案及评分说明
第Ⅰ卷（选择题88分）
一、听力测试（共三节；计25分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
1-5 CEDAB
第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
6-10 ABABC11-15 BCABB16-20 CCABB
第三节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
21-25 BCBCC
二、单项选择（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
26-30 ABDAA31-35 DACAB
三、完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
36-40 ADBCD41-45 BACDB46-50 ACABD
四、阅读理解（共19小题；满分38分）
第一节 阅读下面三篇短文，根据短文内容，从所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。（共14小题；每小题2分，满分28分）
51-54 DBDB55-59 CCDCD60-64 BAACD
第二节 阅读还原（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
65-69 EBDAF
第Ⅱ卷（非选择题32分）
综合填空（共10小题；做对一个得1分，满分10分）
70. happier71. crying 72. and 73. Luckily 74. withut
75. a 76.was saved 77. t help 78. himself79.in
六、完成句子（共7小题；做对一个得1分，满分7分）
80. keep away frm 81. asks fr82. nt get tgether 83. t g abrad
84. take a deep breath85. returned t 86.Thinking back n (t)
七、书面表达（共1小题；满分15分）
One pssible versin:
As a middle schl student f Xianning, it's ur duty t help build a civilized city. We can avid the traffic jams and reduce the air pllutin by riding bikes r walking. We mustn't thrw rubbish and spit anywhere. In this way, we can keep ur city clean and tidy s that we can live a cmfrtable life. And we'd better plant mre trees t prtect the envirnment and make ur city beautiful.
In my daily life, I can pick up rubbish and put it int the dustbin wherever I g. I can als save the energy by turning ff the lights when leaving the rm. In a wrd, everyne shuld take an active part in creating the civilized city.
英语评分标准
一、听力测试：共25小题；每小题1分，满分25分。
评分说明：每小题所选答案正确得1分。
二、单项选择：共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分。
评分说明：每小题所选答案正确得1分。
三、完形填空：共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分。
评分说明：每小题所选答案正确得1分。
四、阅读理解：共19小題；每小题2分，满分38分。
第一节：共14小題；每小题2分，满分28分
第二节：共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分
五、综合填空：共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分。
评分说明：依据参考答案，有错无分。
六、完成句子：共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分。
评分说明：
1.短语使用错误扣1分；
2.语言结构错误（时态、语态、非谓语动词、从句等）扣0.5分；
3.单复数、单词个别字母拼写错误扣0.5分；
4.未使用所给提示词扣1分。
5.每题最多扣1分；
七、书面表达：满分15分
评分说明：
第一档：(13—15分)：很好地完成了规定的写作任务。文章主题突出，结构完整，语句流畅，意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，语法和词汇错误极少（同一单词的拼写错误不重复计分），格式正确，书写规范，卷面整洁。
第二档：(10—12分)：较好地完成了规定的写作任务。文章有主题，结构较为完整，语句通顺，意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少，格式基本正确，书写较为规范。
第三档：(6—9分)：基本上完成了规定的写作任务。基本按写作要求完成，结构欠完整，少数语句不通顺，意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多，格式基本正确，书写基本规范。
第四档：(0—5分)：未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别相关内容，结构不完整，多数语句不完整或意思不明，语法结构和词汇错误很多，所写内容难以理解，格式不够正确，书写欠规范。
鼓励分：多写、多发挥。文章立意好，主题突出，结构完整，语句流畅，意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，格式正确，书写规范，卷面整洁的前提下，有“极少语法、拼写之类的错误”的情况下可酌情给满分。A. A few have eyes n ne side.
B. Hwever, yu can’t dive t deep.
C. Many peple g t dive in summer.
D. The deep sea is nt an easy place t live in.
E. Yu will find many strange animals in the sea.
F. This means these sea animals have tw big jbs.
主题
Let’s create the civilized city tgether
具体做法
方式
益处
1. 骑车、徒步出行
避免交通拥堵，减少空气污染
2. 不乱扔垃圾，不随地吐痰
让城市变得干净舒适
3. 植树造林
美化城市，保护环境
你的建议
联系自己的生活实际提出几条具体的合理的建议。（至少2条）