还剩13页未读，
继续阅读
成套系列资料，整套一键下载
2023江西省省重点校联盟（智慧上进）高二上学期入学摸底联考试题英语含解析
展开
这是一份2023江西省省重点校联盟（智慧上进）高二上学期入学摸底联考试题英语含解析，共16页。试卷主要包含了15， B等内容，欢迎下载使用。
绝密★启用前
2022-2023学年高二秋季入学摸底考试
英 语
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt?
A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15.
答案是C。
1. What does the man think of his first job?
A. Tiring. B. Interesting. C. Difficult.
2. When does the talent show start this week?
A. At 9：00. B. At 10：00. C. At 11：00.
3. Where does the man's sister work?
A. In a bank. B. In a TV station. C. In a factory.
4. What does the woman do at present?
A. An actress. B. A musician. C. A dancer.
5. What do the speakers mainly talk about?
A. An accident. B. A wise light. C. A good sleep.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What's the best season to live in the holiday house?
A. Summer. B. Fall. C. Winter.
7. Where is the small garden?
A. In the holiday house. B. Under the tree. C. On the tree.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What did the woman find online?
A. A cool clock. B. An old bicycle. C. Some seats.
9. Why does the man decide to buy the seats?
A. They are cool and green.
B. They are strong and useful.
C. They are cheap and practical.
10. What will the speakers probably do first?
A. Eat something. B. Attend a meeting. C. Go to the supermarket.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What did the woman learn for two years?
A. French. B. Japanese. C. Spanish.
12. How does the woman feel about the finding?
A. Hopeful. B. Surprised. C. Disappointed.
13. What language is studied by the fewest students according to the list?
A. Spanish. B. Chinese. C. Russian.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. Why did the woman talk to Henry?
A. To apply for a job.
B. To tum to him for advice.
C. To learn to write a letter.
15. What does Henry advise the woman to add to the letter?
A. Her photo. B. Her hobbies. C. Her driver's license.
16. What did the woman do in Paris?
A. She visited her uncle. B. She received education. C. She worked as a teacher.
17. What does the woman think of her typing skills?
A. Great. B. First-class. C. Poor.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. Who made the travel plan?
A. Lucy. B. Lucy's sister. C. Lucy's mother.
19. What did Lucy visit in China?
A. Pandas. B. Historical buildings. C. The sea coast.
20. Why did Lucy have to stay inside sometimes in Australia?
A. She had no time. B. She ate too much. C. It was too hot.
第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
San Francisco better local garden
The San Francisco Botanical Garden is one of the most diverse gardens in the world. The garden is a living museum within Golden Gate Park, offering 55 acres（英亩）of both beautiful gardens and open spaces.
The garden is open during COVID-19. It is free to all San Francisco residents and garden members. We are also continuing to offer free admission every morning to everyone from 7：30 am to 9 am—a fantastic time for bird-watching. The second Tuesday of the month is also free to everyone.
Free Day:
Second Tuesday of every month;Free daily from 7：30 am to 9 am;Always free for San Francisco city and county residents；Always free for garden members and school groups.
Regular Cost:
Adults $9;Foreign adults $12;Youth and seniors $7;Children $3;Children 4 years old and younger free.
Last Entry:
Fall and winter:October through early November（Last entry at 5 pm）;First Sunday in November through January（Last entry at 4pm）;February through second Saturday in March（Last entry at 5 pm）.
Spring and summer:Second Sunday in March through September（Last entry at 6 pm）.
（The garden closes one hour after last entry. ）
21. What do we know about the San Francisco Botanical Garden?
A. It is closed during COVID-19. B. It is free for local people.
C. It is free for everyone on Tuesday. D. It is located near Golden Gate Park.
22. How much does it cost a foreign adult to visit the garden on weekdays?
A. $3. B. $7. C. $9. D. $12.
23. At which of the following time can visitors enter the garden?
A. At 4pm in June. B. At 5 pm in December.
C. At 7pm in March. D. At 6 pm in February.
B
For many people, bookstores are wonderful places. That's because the books on the shelves can take you awayto magical lands, help you learn a foreign language, or cook a delicious meal. But when your community is toosmall to house a brick bookstore, you have to come up with another idea. A mobile bookstore was the result. That isthe case for Rita Collins,70, who dreamed of opening a used bookstore after retiring from teaching.
A business planning class from the American Booksellers Association convinced Collins to give up her idea ofopening a bookstore in the small town where she lives. Her town, Eureka, Montana, only has a population of1,517. Collins asked her instructors about a traveling bookstore on wheels and they doubted her idea. But sheinsisted on it.
Collins was inspired by Dylans Mobile Bookstore, a traveling bookstore in Wales run by Jeff Towns. Shecontacted Jeff for advice but she was largely on her own when it came to building her bookstore. First, she had tofind a vehicle large enough to stand in. Then she had to have it refitted with shelves that would hold the books at a15-degree angle so that they would stay in place while traveling. Collins named her bookstore St. Rita's TravelingBookstore, which has been on the road since 2015.
At first, she drove through Montana and then she made her first cross-country trip in 2016. After she retired in2017, it became a full-time job. Collins and her bookstore have visited 30 states, stopping at festivals and eventsalong the way. Collins loves meeting people and making connections. While she loves what she does, Collins doesn'tthink she can keep doing it. In several years, she hopes to pas her traveling bookstore onto another book lover whoshares the same interest and will keep it on the road.
24. Why did Collins abandon opening a bookstore?
A. It cost a lot of money. B. It was not promising.
C. It would be out of date. D. It was not approved.
25. Why were the shelves designed at a 15-degree angle?
A. To beautify the mobile bookstore. B. To make it easy to move on the road.
C. To keep the bookstore's balance. D. To protect the books from falling down.
26. Which of the following can best describe Collins?
A. Merciful, careful and delightful. B. Intelligent, patient and reasonable.
C. Determined, perseverant and social. D. Generous，considerate and lovely.
27. What is a suitable title for the text?
A. Bookstore on Wheels B. Sacrificing for a Bookstore
C. Cross-Country Bookstore D. A Bookstore Promoter
C
Many of us like to dine out and treat ourselves to delicious food. We are used to choosing hearty, fat-filled dishes and sugar-charged desserts, which are not easily cooked at home. The recent rise of light meals, however, gives diners smarter choice. According to Economic Daily, low-calorie, low-fat and high-fiber meals have become popular in China's restaurants and online delivery platforms.
The country saw a rapid expansion of restaurants specializing in light meals, from just 600 in 2017 to more than 3,500 in 2018. According to a report released by Meituan, a major online food delivery platform, the number of light meals ordered online also rose 75 percent from the previous year.
Having a light meal, however, doesn't mean eating only vegetables. Different from the meat-free lifestyle, a typical light dish avoids oily, salty and spicy food. Instead, it contains things like boiled meat, whole grains, fruits and vegetables. Healthy nutrients（营养物）are the theme of the light meal.
These dishes are useful for keeping healthy and controlling your weight. That's probably why so many young people are into them. Diners see it as a great way to avoid becoming fat. "After eating several light meals, I felt my appetite（胃口）has shrunk. I now prefer light flavors,"said Zou Jing, a college teacher in Wuhan. She shared a picture of her lunch:a mixture of beef, eggs, corn, mushrooms and cherry tomatoes.
These changes in eating behavior are connected to deeper changes in how people think about food, says WaterWillet, chairman of the nutrition department at the Harvard T. Chan School of Public Health. "Diet quality, notquantity is important for both weight control and long term well-being," he said. So the next time you have a partywith friends, try a light meal. It will satisfy not only your stomachs but maybe also your hearts.
28. How does the author prove the popularity of light meals?
A. By giving examples. B. By giving descriptions.
C. By listing numbers. D. By showing other people's opinions.
29. What is the subject of the light meal?
A. Taking in healthy nutrients. B. Eating only vegetables.
C. Having a meat-free lifestyle. D. Avoiding salty and spicy food.
30. Why do many young people enjoy light meals?
A. They are usually colorful. B. They can help people control their weight.
C. They are cheaper than other meals. D. They are simple and convenient.
31. What do we know about people's eating from the text?
A. One's eating habit shows his personality.
B. Light meals will stay popular for a short time.
C. It's important to eat the right amount of good food.
D. There are changes in attitude toward healthy eating.
D
There is no cycling race more celebrated than the Tour de France. Stating from the Eifel Tower in Paris, this8-day race winds on stone-covered roads, up mountains and finishes at the top of la Planche des Belles Filles. Huge crowds cheer on the riders every year and the 2022 race was no exception. Except for a brief time period between 1984 and 1989, there hasn't been a Tour de France for women riders until now.
"The biggest race is the Tour de France," said professional cyclist Ayesha McGowan. "Whenever I tell peoplewhat I do, they always ask, ‘You mean you ride in the Tour de France?’ I`d have to inform them that women didn`thave one where I could compete. But now I don't have to do that anymore."
On July 24,2022, when the men's race finished, the Tour De France Femmes began. The route to this raceactually began in 1955 when a special woman's race occurred. It wouldn't return until 1984. The women's versionlasted until 1989 and then was replaced by an unofficial version that was discontinued in 2009. Four yeas later, professional cyclists Kathryn Bertine, Emma Pooley and Chrissie Wellington started advocating for an officialwomen's race. The result is the new Tour de France Femmes.
While women have their own race, the prizes for the women aren't equal. The female winners will receive eighttimes less than the men. There isn't parity in other aspects, either. Women riders ride a shorter distance than whatmen can ride in a day. It was broadcast live at the set time like men's but only for two hours, much shorter than themen's.
The race ended on July 31, lasting eight days, with 39-year-old Dutch rider Van Vleuten wining the eighthand final stage. "I'm proud to be the first winner of this new version," she said. "I hope it's a big start and we canbuild this into as influential an event as men's in a few years' time. It's a milestone to vin he first one."
32. What do we know about Ayesha McGowan from the text?
A. She longs to compete with men cyclists.
B. She wasn't satisfied with the Tour de France.
C. She felt upset when asked about her profession.
D. She competed in the 2022 Tour de France Femmes.
33. What is paragraph 3 mainly about?
A. The cyclists devoted to changing a cycle race.
B. The efforts to change an official women's race.
C. The ups and downs of an official women's race.
D. The contributions to holding an official women's race.
34. What does the underlined word "parity"in paragraph 4 mean?
A. Fairness. B. Standard. C. Quality. D. Freedom.
35. What can be inferred about the new Tour de France Femmes from the text?
A. Few people cheered on the riders. B. It was still held in an unofficial way.
C. The media didn't show any interest in it. D. It takes time to develop it into a bigger even.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How is eating in space different from eating on Earth?
If you send astronauts into space, you have to send along with food as well. But what do astronauts eat, and how do they eat it? Scientists take several factors into consideration as they plan meals for space.
The most important factor is its nutrition. 36 Providing junk food to eat, such as potato chips, sodas, and pizza, would make the astronauts unhealthy.
37If the food that has been provided isn't tasteful, the astronauts may avoid eating it. If you've ever tied to focus on something important while your stomach doesn't feel well, you'll know why the scientists in charge ofa space task want their astronauts to eat regularly.
The lack of gravity in a spacecraft also determines what foods can or cannot be eaten in space. Meals must be packaged carefully so they will be safe in the cabin（舱）. Water or tiny bits of food could get inside a machine or electronic device and damage it. 38 A loose knife inside the cabin would be dangerous.
39 The weight of every object included in a spacecraft must be counted up in order to ensure that there isenough fuel and power to carry the craft safely into space and back home again. 40 Most foods are stored in plastic bags, and often, the foods are dehydrated（脱水的）. When an astronaut is ready to eat, hot water is added to the meal to warm it up.
Despite allthese requirements, much of the food eatenin space is actually similar to what you might eat on any given day.
A. Taste is also important.
B. Nutrition is important to consider.
C. Finally, weight is an important concern.
D. Food packaging is made to be as light as possible.
E. Believe it or not, they have fresh fruits and vegetables.
F. Keeping astronauts healthy is a top task for any space travel.
G. For the same reason, sharp knives and folks are never used on board.
第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
As a whale researcher, Nan Hauser has been awarded the international title of “Earth Ambassador". Whilemany local people had heard of this 41, it was an encounter（邂逅）that would make her known worldwide.
One day in 2017, Nan was shooting some videos with the whales, when the most remarkable thing 42 . Asshe swam alongside them, they began to display 43 signs that danger was near. Suddenly, she saw a whale swim towards her at full speed. Just as 44 hit, one of the whales used its fin to push Nan onto its back and out of range of…not a whale but a tiger shark.
After the shark disappeared, the whale 45 accompanied Nan back to her boat. She climbed aboard and yelled her appreciation to the 46 . After a few minutes, the whale disappeared, and Nan said goodbye, feeling 47 for this lifetime encounter.
Almost a year later, Nan received a call from a fisherman saying that he 48 whales in the harbor. Could her whalefriend have 49 ? She jumped onto a boat quickly. Nan instantly 50 her fiend, and dived into the water to swim with him.
After Nan's encounter, she 51 with how best she could thank the whale. After all, its 52 to hug something much larger than you. So what's the most 53 way to thank a whale? It's by caring, learning more about them, and 54 their habitat. As for us, we can help in small ways. For example, 55 single-use plastics will make a difference.
41. A. chemist B. physicist C. geologist D. biologist
42. A. happened B. approached C. bust D. escaped
43. A. rescuing B. warning C. waiting D. recommending
44. A. excitement B. panic C. surprise D. disappointment
45. A. really B. clearly C. safely D. rudely
46. A. woman B. boat C. shark D. whale
47. A. proud B. grateful C. hopeful D. pitiful
48. A. spotted B. pleased C. targeted D. tracked
49. A. welcomed B. suffered C. returned D. refreshed
50. A. waved B. greeted C. realized D. recognized
51. A. combined B. struggled C. argued D. connected
52. A. pretty B. funny C. tricky D. vital
53. A. influential B. particular C. logical D. incredible
54. A. creating B. protecting C. surrounding D. establishing
55. A. donating B. exchanging C. throwing D. abandoning
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Lantern Festival falls on the fifteenth day of the first month of the lunar year and it is the first significant festival after Chinese New Year. It also marks the final day of the Chinese New Year 56（celebration）.
The main activity during the lantern Festival is looking at lanterns. No matter where you go, you can see beautiful lanterns 57 the day of the festival. In the evening, most cities will organise lantern show's 58 can add to the festive atmosphere. The shows have lanterns of different shapes, including animals, lowers, people, buildings and more.
Usually, riddles are59 （write） on the lanterns. People crowd around and try 60 （guess） theriddles. This is one of the most popular activities since the beginning of the festival.
Yuanxiao is the special food of the Lantern Festival. The round shape of yuanxiao symbolises reunion, harmony and happiness 61 （interesting）, the Lantern Festival was known as Chinese Valentine's Day inthe past. Many ancient Chinese poets have written poems about the Lantern Festival which describe happymoments and the stories of young lovers. 62 , in most parts of China today, the festival has lost these 63 （origin） meanings. With a history of over 2,000 years as a traditional festival, the Lantern Festival iscelebrated both in China and abroad. Chinese people 64 （live） in any part of the world can experience andshare 65 exciting festival.
第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假定你是李华，上周五你校组织了“读书交换活动”，该活动受到了大家的一致好评。请你就本次活动给学校英语报写一篇报道。内容包括：
1. 活动时间和目的；2. 活动内容；3. 活动的意义。
注意：1. 词数80左右；
2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
After a heart operation, I figured taking care of a dog would keep me active. So I went to the animal shelter, where a little dog in a cage caught my eye. Her name was Honey and she was five months old. The worker openedHoney's cage and I picked her up. We both went to the yard where I picked up a ball and threw it. I sat down, watching Honey run after it. She ran back toward me, ball in mouth. Immediately, I filled out the paperwork andtook Honey home.
One morning last year I decided to take Honey out with me. My wife was away for a few days and I didn't wantto leave Honey alone. I took my keys and opened the door of my car. Honey jumped into it and sat in the backseat.
I drove around the road slowly. Just then, a flash of sunlight blinded me. I put my hand up to protect my eyes. I felt the car slipped in the soft soil, and rolled and rolled until I heard a horrible noise. A giant part of the roof hit my leg and chest. I was pinned. With a sharp pain in my chest, I looked over to find Honey was still in the back seat, trembling.
I tried to seeif I could unpin myself, but I failed. I fetched my cell phone and dialed 911. Just as I`d feared, I couldn't get a signal at the bottom of this valley. Robin, my closest neighbor, lived a quarter mile uphill from me. There was no reason she would drive up to my house.
My chest hammered. I reached into my pocket and pulled out the pills. I ate one and took a deep breath. Myheartbeat slowed. I knew that I must get Honey out first. There was a hole in the driver's side window, small but
maybe enough. Painfully, I reached over and picked her up. I gently got her through it. I pated her and she jumpedto the ground and ran up the side of the valley.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为150左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
My pulse was weakening with the sun set. _________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
Robin brought Honey to the hospital the next day. __________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
2022-2023学年高二秋季人学摸底考试
英语参考答案及评分细则
听力材料
Text 1
W: What was your first job, Dad?
M: I worked as a tour guide. It was a really interesting job.
Text 2
W: What time does the talent show start? Is it at ten o'clock?
M: No. Last week it started at nine. This week it starts at eleven.
Text 3
W: Your sister is excellent. Where does she work?
M: She works for a TV station. But she wants to work in a bank one day.
Text 4
M: Have you always been an actress?
W: No, I started that quite recently. At school I wanted to be a musician. But that didn't happen so I became a dancer. These days I only have time for acting.
Text 5
W: Come on! Ben! Look! This smart light can slowly wake people in the morning with a warm light!
M: Whoa! Look at the introduction here! It says, "If you leave the light on by accident, it will turn itself off after 20 minutes."
Text 6
W: Welcome to our holiday home!
M: Wow, a great house! Do you live here most time of the year?
W: No! Actually, my family usually spend the hottest month of the year here. It is cold to live here in autumn and winter, you know.
M: Isn't it a bit dangerous living halfway up a tree?
W: We were quite worried about the danger of falling off at first. But nothing's happened yet. And we leave our pets in thesmall garden under the tree.
M: Right. Safety comes first.
Text7
M: Have you got any ideas for the green meeting at the Youth Club?
W: Well, I've found this really cool clock on the Internet. It's made from an old bicycle wheel! It's great recycling.
M: Maybe…it's cool, but we need some more useful things, like seats and glasses, or things that could save money orelectricity. I saw a guy at the market. He sold really great seats which are made out of metal and old newspapers! They're on a piece of metal, so the seats are strong. I think we should get some for the Youth Club!
W: But what happens if they get wet or someone spills a drink on them? We don't want to buy more seats every fewweeks.
M: Well, that could be a problem. Hey, I know…batteries! The Youth Club can recycle them. There's a new place atthe supermarket where you can put old batteries.
W: Nice idea! What time is the meeting? Could we get a pizza before then? I'm hungry.
M: There is plenty of time.
Text 8
M: Amy, did you study any foreign languages in high school?
W: Yes, I took French for two years. Then I majored in Japanese in college, and I studied Spanish for a year during mylunch break.
M: And how much French can you remember?
W: Not much!
M: Well, I've just read this article about the state of language learning in schools in the US. It finds that adults only remember about seven words from the languages they studied at school. They only remember common words like hello, goodbye, and thank you.
W: Only seven words? It's hard to believe. What languages do students study in schools today?
M: Hang on a minute; there's a list here somewhere…Here it is. It says 50% of students study Spanish, 25% studyFrench, 22% study Chinese, and 2% study Russian.
Text 9
W: Henry, I need your advice on my job application letter.
M: OK. Let me see…Well, in Britain, a photo is not expected. It's unnecessary to include your hobbies as well, becausethey have nothing to do with the job you' re applying for. I can't see here that you've got a driving license.
W: I didn't mention it because almost everyone here my age has one. Do I need to put it on my letter?
M: Yes. And you' re fluent in Chinese, right?
W: Yes. I studied in Nanjing for almost two years as an exchange student. My spoken Chinese is pretty good. I know about2, 000 Chinese characters. I picked up some French while I was teaching Japanese in Paris, but I'm hardly fluent.
M: So let's include three languages as your skills. Your educational background in Japanese is fine, and so is being ateacher in Paris. Why didn't you mention that you worked for your uncle before?
W: I only worked for a month when his office assistant was away. I did photocopying and typing mostly. But I'm not very good at typing. I was too ashamed to include it. Besides, what would happen if anyone gave me a typing test?
M: All right.
Text 10
Hello, I'm Lucy. Last year, my mum and dad had two months when they didn't have to work, and Mum thought we should all go traveling somewhere. My sister did some research and worked out details of where we could go and what to dothere. My parents thought her ideas were great. The first place we went to was Moscow. We spent lots of time visiting historical buildings and we also went ice-skating several times. After traveling around other parts of Russia, we moved on to China. The place I liked best in China was Harbin in the north, with its great Ice & Snow Festival. We also traveled to the ancient city Xi'an, and then took the high-speed railway to Chengdu, where there's a wildlife park for pandas. After visiting China, we went to Alice Spring in Australia. The heat there was unbelievable. It was too much for me sometimes, and I had to stay inside. We saw Ayers Rock there, and some of the deserts too. What I didn't have time to see in Australia is the sea coast-people say it's fantastic.
1-5BCBAB 6-10ABABA 11-15ABCBC 16-20CCBAC
A
本文是一篇应用文。文章主要介绍了旧金山植物园的相关情况，包括票价、入园时间等。
21. B细节理解题。根据第二段“It is free to all San Francisco residents and garden members.”可知，旧金山植物园对当地人是免费的。故答案选B项。
22. D细节理解题。根据Regular Cost部分的“Foreign adults$12”可知，一位外国成年人在工作日参观植物园要花12美元。故答案选D项。
23. A细节理解题。根据Last Entry部分的“Second Sunday in March through September（Last entry at6pm）.”可知，游客可以在六月的下午4点进入植物园。故答案选A项。
B
本文是一篇记叙文。文章介绍了柯林斯创办的移动书店，她已经带着她的书店走遍了美国的30个州。
24. B细节理解题。根据第二段的“A business planning class…opening a bookstore in the small town where she lives.”可知，柯林斯居住的地方是个偏远小镇，人口不足2000人，在镇里开书店没有发展。比较选项可知，B项符合。
25. D细节理解题。根据第三段的“Then she had to have it refitted with shelves…while traveling.”可知，移动书店的每一层书架倾斜15度角，是为了在车子运行过程中防止书籍掉落。故答案选D项。
26. C推理判断题。从第二段的内容可知，尽管有很多人劝她放弃创办书店，但柯林斯依旧坚持自己的想法，从此可以推断她是一个意志坚决和持之以恒的人；从最后一段的“Collins loves meeting people and making connections.”可知，柯林斯也是一个爱交际的人。故答案选C项。
27. A标题归纳题。本文主要讲述的是柯林斯创办了一个移动书店，她已经驾驶着自己的移动书店走遍了美国的30个州。比较选项可知，A项最适合作为文章的标题。
C
本文是一篇说明文。低热量、低脂肪、高纤维的清淡饮食（轻食）越来越受欢迎，文章介绍了轻食的好处和人们喜欢轻食的原因。
28. C推理判断题。由第二段“The country saw a rapid expansion of restaurants specializing in light meals…also rose 75 percent from the previous year.”可知，作者用列出数字的方式来证明轻食的传播程度和受欢迎度。故答案选C项。
29. A细节理解题。根据第三段的“Healthy nutrients（营养物）are the theme of the light meal.”可知，摄入健康的营养物质是轻食的主题。故答案选A项。
30. B细节理解题。由第四段“These dishes are useful for keeping healthy and controlling your weight. That's probably why so many young people are into them.”可知，许多年轻人喜欢吃轻食，因为轻食可以帮助他们控制体重、保持健康。故答案选B项。
31. D推理判断题。由最后一段的“These changes in eating behavior are connected to deeper changes in how people think about food,says Walter Willett,chairman of the nutrition department at the Harvard T. Chan School of Public
Health.”可知，人们现在喜欢吃轻食与人们对健康饮食的态度发生了变化有关。故答案选D项。
D
本文是一篇说明文。在沉寂了33年后，女子环法自行车赛于2022年回归。文章介绍了该项赛事的相关情况。
32. D推理判断题。根据第二段自行车选手Ayesha McGowan所说的话可推知，她参加了2022年女子环法自行车赛。故答案选D项。
33. C段落大意题。第三段主要讲的是女子环法自行车赛的历史：1984年至1989年举办过女子环法自行车赛，后来取消了该项赛事；经过多年的努力，该项赛事于2022年回归。故答案选C项。
34. A词义猜测题。根据上文的“While women have their own race, the prizes for the women aren't equal.”和下文的内容可推知，该词意为“同等，平等”，与A项同义。
35. D推理判断题。根据文章的内容尤其是最后一段的“I hope it's a big start and we can build this into as influential an event as men's in a few years'time.”可知，女子环法自行车赛要成为与男子环法自行车赛有同等影响力的比赛还需要时间。故答案选D项。
本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了宇航员在太空中吃什么以及怎样吃的几个需要考虑的因素。
36. F根据上文“The most important factor is its nutrition.”和下文“Providing junk food to eat, such as potato chips, sodas, and pizza, would make the astronauts unhealthy.”可知，F选项与本段主旨一致，且与下文形成对比关系。故选F项。
37. A下文的“If the food that has been provided isn't tasteful,the astronauts may avoid eating it.”说明了食物味道的重要性；A选项“味道也很重要”中的“Taste”与下文的“isn't tasteful”相对应，符合题意。故选A项。
38. G根据上文的“The lack of gravity in a spacecraft also determines what foods can or cannot be eaten in space.”可知，重力也是宇航员饮食中需要考虑的因素之一；下文“A loose knife inside the cabin would be dangerous.”说明太空舱中有刀是很危险的；G选项的“knives”与后文的“knife”相对应。故选G项。
39. C根据下文的“The weight of every object included in a spacecraft…back home again.”可知，重量也是宇航员饮食中要考虑的因素；C选项与下文的“weight”相对应，且“Finally”与前文也形成了并列关系。故选C项。
40. D根据下文的“Most foods are stored in plastic bags…warm it up.”可知，宇航员食物的包装方式也很重要。D选项中的“packaging”与下文的“stored”相对应，“light”与本段的论点“weight”相对应。故选D项。本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了海洋生物学家Nan Hauser与一头鲸鱼之间的故事。过去30年，她见过无数头鲸鱼，但有一头鲸鱼在她心里始终有个特殊的位置。
41. D根据上文的“As a whale researcher”和下文的内容可知，Nan Hauser是一位海洋生物学家，与一头鲸鱼的偶遇让她闻名于世。故答案选D项。
42. A在2017年的一天，正当她在海中拍摄鲸鱼时，发生了不同寻常的事。答案选A项。
43. B根据下文的“that danger was near”和“Suddenly, she saw a whale swim towards her at full speed”可知，鲸鱼发出了危险迫近的警告信号。故答案选B项。
44. B根据下文的“hit”和“one of the whales used its fin to push Nan onto its back”可知，Nan Hauser心里感到非常恐慌。故答案选B项。
45. C根据下文的“accompanied Nan back to her boat”可知，这头鲸鱼把她安全地护送回她的船上。故答案选C项。
46. D根据上文的“yelled her appreciation”和下文的“feeling _________for this lifetime encounter”可知，鲨鱼消失之后，她对这头鲸鱼大声喊着感激的话。故答案选D项。
47. B根据第一段的“it was an encounter（邂逅）that would make her known worldwide”和上文“yelled her appreciation to the_________”可知，她对这次偶遇心存感恩，她也非常感激这头鲸鱼。故答案选B项。
48. A根据下文的“whales in the harbor”可知，当地渔民打电话说他看见海湾有鲸鱼出没，spotted意为“认出，发觉”。
49. C根据上文的内容可知，Nan Hauser在想：是不是救过她的那头鲸鱼回来了。故答案选C项。
50. D根据上文的“She jumped onto a boat quickly.”和“instantly”可知，Nan Hauser瞬间认出了救她的那头鲸鱼。故答案选D项。
51. B根据下文的内容可知，与那头鲸鱼相遇之后，Nan Hauser心里在想要如何感谢它。struggle with意为“努力想”。
52. C根据下文的“to hug something much larger than you”可知，要想拥抱这头鲸鱼可得费一番功夫，毕竟鲸鱼比人的体格大得多。tricky 意为“困难的”。故答案选C项。
53. A根据下文的“It's by caring，learning more about them, and_________ their habitat.”可知，Nan Hauser认为感谢鲸鱼最有影响力的办法是多了解、呵护它们并保护好它们的栖息地。比较选项可知，A项符合。influential意为“有影响力的”。
54. B根据上题的解析可知，B项符合。
55. D根据下文的“single-use plastics will make a difference”可知，不使用一次性塑料将会有助于保护鲸鱼。故答案选D项，abandoning意为“放弃，抛弃”。
本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了中国的传统节日“元宵节”。
56. celebrations考查名词复数。句意：它也标志着中国新年庆祝活动的最后一天。celebration在这里意为“庆祝活动”，是可数名词，结合语境及常识可知，新年庆祝活动不止一种，故此处应用其复数形式表泛指。故填 celebrations。
57. on 考查介词。句意：无论你去哪里，你都可以在节日那天看到美丽的灯笼。具体到哪一天应用介词on。故填on。
58. which/that 考查定语从句。句意：晚上，大多数城市都会组织灯会增加节日气氛。分析可知，此处引导定语从句，先行词为lantern shows，指物，在定语从句中作主语，故需用关系代词which或that引导。故填which 或that。
59. are written考查时态语态。句意：通常，谜语写在灯笼上。分析可知，所填词在句中作谓语，由语境及时间状语Usually可知，此处是在陈述事实，应使用一般现在时，主语 riddles和write为动宾关系，故需用一般现在时的被动语态，且主语riddles是复数，故be动词应用are。故填are written。
60. to guess 考查非谓语动词。句意：人们围在周围，试着猜谜语。表示“尝试做某事”应用try to do sth.，此处动词不定式作宾语。故填to guess。
61. Interestingly考查词性转换。句意：有趣的是，元宵节在过去被称为中国的情人节。分析可知，此处应用副词作状语，修饰整个句子，所填词位于句首，首字母应大写。故填Interestingly。
62. However考查副词。句意：然而，在今天的中国大部分地区，这个节日已经失去了原始的意义。结合句意可知，前后文之间为转折关系，故应用副词 however作状语，所填词位于句首，首字母应大写。故填However。
63. original 考查形容词。句意：然而，在今天的中国大部分地区，这个节日已经失去了这些原始的意义。修饰后文名词meanings 应用形容词original作定语。故填original。
64. living考查非谓语动词。句意：生活在世界上任何地方的中国人都可以体验和分享这个激动人心的节日。分析可知，此处应填非谓语动词，且live与其逻辑主语 Chinese people之间为主谓关系，故此处需用现在分词作后置定语。故填living。
65. the 考查冠词。句意：生活在世界上任何地方的中国人都可以体验和分享这个激动人心的节日。根据语境可知，此处特指元宵节这个节日，应用定冠词the。故填the。
One possible version:
Book Exchange on Campus
Last Friday witnessed our school's book exchange campaign, which was launched to promote students'reading enthusiasm as well as enrich our campus life.
In the book exchange, students were asked to bring to school the book that they are fascinated with. Meanwhile, they were supposed to make a note to briefly introduce its content. Then at the school hall students exchanged their book for another one they were fond of. In this activity, all of the students were in high spirits and participated quite well.
Without doubt, this campaign was well received. Not only has it provided a platform for students to share their reading, but also it has aroused their interest in reading.
One possible version:
My pulse was weakening with the sun set. All I had to do was close my eyes. It seemed only minutes later I heard myneighbor Robin as well as the helicopter overhead. The rescue crew landed and made their way down to me. It took them 45minutes to cut me out of the car and get me up the valley. We flew to the hospital in the helicopter and I got all sorts oftests and X-rays.
Robin brought Honey to the hospital the next day. She got right up next to me on the bed. With her there, my paindisappeared. "It was the strangest thing," Robin told me later. "I got home from work and Honey was waiting for me. Sheran in circles, like she was trying to tell me something." Robin figured she'd bring Honey back to my house, and that'swhen she dialed 911. How grateful I was for Honey, a life-saving hero in my heart.
绝密★启用前
2022-2023学年高二秋季入学摸底考试
英 语
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt?
A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15.
答案是C。
1. What does the man think of his first job?
A. Tiring. B. Interesting. C. Difficult.
2. When does the talent show start this week?
A. At 9：00. B. At 10：00. C. At 11：00.
3. Where does the man's sister work?
A. In a bank. B. In a TV station. C. In a factory.
4. What does the woman do at present?
A. An actress. B. A musician. C. A dancer.
5. What do the speakers mainly talk about?
A. An accident. B. A wise light. C. A good sleep.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What's the best season to live in the holiday house?
A. Summer. B. Fall. C. Winter.
7. Where is the small garden?
A. In the holiday house. B. Under the tree. C. On the tree.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What did the woman find online?
A. A cool clock. B. An old bicycle. C. Some seats.
9. Why does the man decide to buy the seats?
A. They are cool and green.
B. They are strong and useful.
C. They are cheap and practical.
10. What will the speakers probably do first?
A. Eat something. B. Attend a meeting. C. Go to the supermarket.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What did the woman learn for two years?
A. French. B. Japanese. C. Spanish.
12. How does the woman feel about the finding?
A. Hopeful. B. Surprised. C. Disappointed.
13. What language is studied by the fewest students according to the list?
A. Spanish. B. Chinese. C. Russian.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. Why did the woman talk to Henry?
A. To apply for a job.
B. To tum to him for advice.
C. To learn to write a letter.
15. What does Henry advise the woman to add to the letter?
A. Her photo. B. Her hobbies. C. Her driver's license.
16. What did the woman do in Paris?
A. She visited her uncle. B. She received education. C. She worked as a teacher.
17. What does the woman think of her typing skills?
A. Great. B. First-class. C. Poor.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. Who made the travel plan?
A. Lucy. B. Lucy's sister. C. Lucy's mother.
19. What did Lucy visit in China?
A. Pandas. B. Historical buildings. C. The sea coast.
20. Why did Lucy have to stay inside sometimes in Australia?
A. She had no time. B. She ate too much. C. It was too hot.
第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
San Francisco better local garden
The San Francisco Botanical Garden is one of the most diverse gardens in the world. The garden is a living museum within Golden Gate Park, offering 55 acres（英亩）of both beautiful gardens and open spaces.
The garden is open during COVID-19. It is free to all San Francisco residents and garden members. We are also continuing to offer free admission every morning to everyone from 7：30 am to 9 am—a fantastic time for bird-watching. The second Tuesday of the month is also free to everyone.
Free Day:
Second Tuesday of every month;Free daily from 7：30 am to 9 am;Always free for San Francisco city and county residents；Always free for garden members and school groups.
Regular Cost:
Adults $9;Foreign adults $12;Youth and seniors $7;Children $3;Children 4 years old and younger free.
Last Entry:
Fall and winter:October through early November（Last entry at 5 pm）;First Sunday in November through January（Last entry at 4pm）;February through second Saturday in March（Last entry at 5 pm）.
Spring and summer:Second Sunday in March through September（Last entry at 6 pm）.
（The garden closes one hour after last entry. ）
21. What do we know about the San Francisco Botanical Garden?
A. It is closed during COVID-19. B. It is free for local people.
C. It is free for everyone on Tuesday. D. It is located near Golden Gate Park.
22. How much does it cost a foreign adult to visit the garden on weekdays?
A. $3. B. $7. C. $9. D. $12.
23. At which of the following time can visitors enter the garden?
A. At 4pm in June. B. At 5 pm in December.
C. At 7pm in March. D. At 6 pm in February.
B
For many people, bookstores are wonderful places. That's because the books on the shelves can take you awayto magical lands, help you learn a foreign language, or cook a delicious meal. But when your community is toosmall to house a brick bookstore, you have to come up with another idea. A mobile bookstore was the result. That isthe case for Rita Collins,70, who dreamed of opening a used bookstore after retiring from teaching.
A business planning class from the American Booksellers Association convinced Collins to give up her idea ofopening a bookstore in the small town where she lives. Her town, Eureka, Montana, only has a population of1,517. Collins asked her instructors about a traveling bookstore on wheels and they doubted her idea. But sheinsisted on it.
Collins was inspired by Dylans Mobile Bookstore, a traveling bookstore in Wales run by Jeff Towns. Shecontacted Jeff for advice but she was largely on her own when it came to building her bookstore. First, she had tofind a vehicle large enough to stand in. Then she had to have it refitted with shelves that would hold the books at a15-degree angle so that they would stay in place while traveling. Collins named her bookstore St. Rita's TravelingBookstore, which has been on the road since 2015.
At first, she drove through Montana and then she made her first cross-country trip in 2016. After she retired in2017, it became a full-time job. Collins and her bookstore have visited 30 states, stopping at festivals and eventsalong the way. Collins loves meeting people and making connections. While she loves what she does, Collins doesn'tthink she can keep doing it. In several years, she hopes to pas her traveling bookstore onto another book lover whoshares the same interest and will keep it on the road.
24. Why did Collins abandon opening a bookstore?
A. It cost a lot of money. B. It was not promising.
C. It would be out of date. D. It was not approved.
25. Why were the shelves designed at a 15-degree angle?
A. To beautify the mobile bookstore. B. To make it easy to move on the road.
C. To keep the bookstore's balance. D. To protect the books from falling down.
26. Which of the following can best describe Collins?
A. Merciful, careful and delightful. B. Intelligent, patient and reasonable.
C. Determined, perseverant and social. D. Generous，considerate and lovely.
27. What is a suitable title for the text?
A. Bookstore on Wheels B. Sacrificing for a Bookstore
C. Cross-Country Bookstore D. A Bookstore Promoter
C
Many of us like to dine out and treat ourselves to delicious food. We are used to choosing hearty, fat-filled dishes and sugar-charged desserts, which are not easily cooked at home. The recent rise of light meals, however, gives diners smarter choice. According to Economic Daily, low-calorie, low-fat and high-fiber meals have become popular in China's restaurants and online delivery platforms.
The country saw a rapid expansion of restaurants specializing in light meals, from just 600 in 2017 to more than 3,500 in 2018. According to a report released by Meituan, a major online food delivery platform, the number of light meals ordered online also rose 75 percent from the previous year.
Having a light meal, however, doesn't mean eating only vegetables. Different from the meat-free lifestyle, a typical light dish avoids oily, salty and spicy food. Instead, it contains things like boiled meat, whole grains, fruits and vegetables. Healthy nutrients（营养物）are the theme of the light meal.
These dishes are useful for keeping healthy and controlling your weight. That's probably why so many young people are into them. Diners see it as a great way to avoid becoming fat. "After eating several light meals, I felt my appetite（胃口）has shrunk. I now prefer light flavors,"said Zou Jing, a college teacher in Wuhan. She shared a picture of her lunch:a mixture of beef, eggs, corn, mushrooms and cherry tomatoes.
These changes in eating behavior are connected to deeper changes in how people think about food, says WaterWillet, chairman of the nutrition department at the Harvard T. Chan School of Public Health. "Diet quality, notquantity is important for both weight control and long term well-being," he said. So the next time you have a partywith friends, try a light meal. It will satisfy not only your stomachs but maybe also your hearts.
28. How does the author prove the popularity of light meals?
A. By giving examples. B. By giving descriptions.
C. By listing numbers. D. By showing other people's opinions.
29. What is the subject of the light meal?
A. Taking in healthy nutrients. B. Eating only vegetables.
C. Having a meat-free lifestyle. D. Avoiding salty and spicy food.
30. Why do many young people enjoy light meals?
A. They are usually colorful. B. They can help people control their weight.
C. They are cheaper than other meals. D. They are simple and convenient.
31. What do we know about people's eating from the text?
A. One's eating habit shows his personality.
B. Light meals will stay popular for a short time.
C. It's important to eat the right amount of good food.
D. There are changes in attitude toward healthy eating.
D
There is no cycling race more celebrated than the Tour de France. Stating from the Eifel Tower in Paris, this8-day race winds on stone-covered roads, up mountains and finishes at the top of la Planche des Belles Filles. Huge crowds cheer on the riders every year and the 2022 race was no exception. Except for a brief time period between 1984 and 1989, there hasn't been a Tour de France for women riders until now.
"The biggest race is the Tour de France," said professional cyclist Ayesha McGowan. "Whenever I tell peoplewhat I do, they always ask, ‘You mean you ride in the Tour de France?’ I`d have to inform them that women didn`thave one where I could compete. But now I don't have to do that anymore."
On July 24,2022, when the men's race finished, the Tour De France Femmes began. The route to this raceactually began in 1955 when a special woman's race occurred. It wouldn't return until 1984. The women's versionlasted until 1989 and then was replaced by an unofficial version that was discontinued in 2009. Four yeas later, professional cyclists Kathryn Bertine, Emma Pooley and Chrissie Wellington started advocating for an officialwomen's race. The result is the new Tour de France Femmes.
While women have their own race, the prizes for the women aren't equal. The female winners will receive eighttimes less than the men. There isn't parity in other aspects, either. Women riders ride a shorter distance than whatmen can ride in a day. It was broadcast live at the set time like men's but only for two hours, much shorter than themen's.
The race ended on July 31, lasting eight days, with 39-year-old Dutch rider Van Vleuten wining the eighthand final stage. "I'm proud to be the first winner of this new version," she said. "I hope it's a big start and we canbuild this into as influential an event as men's in a few years' time. It's a milestone to vin he first one."
32. What do we know about Ayesha McGowan from the text?
A. She longs to compete with men cyclists.
B. She wasn't satisfied with the Tour de France.
C. She felt upset when asked about her profession.
D. She competed in the 2022 Tour de France Femmes.
33. What is paragraph 3 mainly about?
A. The cyclists devoted to changing a cycle race.
B. The efforts to change an official women's race.
C. The ups and downs of an official women's race.
D. The contributions to holding an official women's race.
34. What does the underlined word "parity"in paragraph 4 mean?
A. Fairness. B. Standard. C. Quality. D. Freedom.
35. What can be inferred about the new Tour de France Femmes from the text?
A. Few people cheered on the riders. B. It was still held in an unofficial way.
C. The media didn't show any interest in it. D. It takes time to develop it into a bigger even.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How is eating in space different from eating on Earth?
If you send astronauts into space, you have to send along with food as well. But what do astronauts eat, and how do they eat it? Scientists take several factors into consideration as they plan meals for space.
The most important factor is its nutrition. 36 Providing junk food to eat, such as potato chips, sodas, and pizza, would make the astronauts unhealthy.
37If the food that has been provided isn't tasteful, the astronauts may avoid eating it. If you've ever tied to focus on something important while your stomach doesn't feel well, you'll know why the scientists in charge ofa space task want their astronauts to eat regularly.
The lack of gravity in a spacecraft also determines what foods can or cannot be eaten in space. Meals must be packaged carefully so they will be safe in the cabin（舱）. Water or tiny bits of food could get inside a machine or electronic device and damage it. 38 A loose knife inside the cabin would be dangerous.
39 The weight of every object included in a spacecraft must be counted up in order to ensure that there isenough fuel and power to carry the craft safely into space and back home again. 40 Most foods are stored in plastic bags, and often, the foods are dehydrated（脱水的）. When an astronaut is ready to eat, hot water is added to the meal to warm it up.
Despite allthese requirements, much of the food eatenin space is actually similar to what you might eat on any given day.
A. Taste is also important.
B. Nutrition is important to consider.
C. Finally, weight is an important concern.
D. Food packaging is made to be as light as possible.
E. Believe it or not, they have fresh fruits and vegetables.
F. Keeping astronauts healthy is a top task for any space travel.
G. For the same reason, sharp knives and folks are never used on board.
第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
As a whale researcher, Nan Hauser has been awarded the international title of “Earth Ambassador". Whilemany local people had heard of this 41, it was an encounter（邂逅）that would make her known worldwide.
One day in 2017, Nan was shooting some videos with the whales, when the most remarkable thing 42 . Asshe swam alongside them, they began to display 43 signs that danger was near. Suddenly, she saw a whale swim towards her at full speed. Just as 44 hit, one of the whales used its fin to push Nan onto its back and out of range of…not a whale but a tiger shark.
After the shark disappeared, the whale 45 accompanied Nan back to her boat. She climbed aboard and yelled her appreciation to the 46 . After a few minutes, the whale disappeared, and Nan said goodbye, feeling 47 for this lifetime encounter.
Almost a year later, Nan received a call from a fisherman saying that he 48 whales in the harbor. Could her whalefriend have 49 ? She jumped onto a boat quickly. Nan instantly 50 her fiend, and dived into the water to swim with him.
After Nan's encounter, she 51 with how best she could thank the whale. After all, its 52 to hug something much larger than you. So what's the most 53 way to thank a whale? It's by caring, learning more about them, and 54 their habitat. As for us, we can help in small ways. For example, 55 single-use plastics will make a difference.
41. A. chemist B. physicist C. geologist D. biologist
42. A. happened B. approached C. bust D. escaped
43. A. rescuing B. warning C. waiting D. recommending
44. A. excitement B. panic C. surprise D. disappointment
45. A. really B. clearly C. safely D. rudely
46. A. woman B. boat C. shark D. whale
47. A. proud B. grateful C. hopeful D. pitiful
48. A. spotted B. pleased C. targeted D. tracked
49. A. welcomed B. suffered C. returned D. refreshed
50. A. waved B. greeted C. realized D. recognized
51. A. combined B. struggled C. argued D. connected
52. A. pretty B. funny C. tricky D. vital
53. A. influential B. particular C. logical D. incredible
54. A. creating B. protecting C. surrounding D. establishing
55. A. donating B. exchanging C. throwing D. abandoning
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Lantern Festival falls on the fifteenth day of the first month of the lunar year and it is the first significant festival after Chinese New Year. It also marks the final day of the Chinese New Year 56（celebration）.
The main activity during the lantern Festival is looking at lanterns. No matter where you go, you can see beautiful lanterns 57 the day of the festival. In the evening, most cities will organise lantern show's 58 can add to the festive atmosphere. The shows have lanterns of different shapes, including animals, lowers, people, buildings and more.
Usually, riddles are59 （write） on the lanterns. People crowd around and try 60 （guess） theriddles. This is one of the most popular activities since the beginning of the festival.
Yuanxiao is the special food of the Lantern Festival. The round shape of yuanxiao symbolises reunion, harmony and happiness 61 （interesting）, the Lantern Festival was known as Chinese Valentine's Day inthe past. Many ancient Chinese poets have written poems about the Lantern Festival which describe happymoments and the stories of young lovers. 62 , in most parts of China today, the festival has lost these 63 （origin） meanings. With a history of over 2,000 years as a traditional festival, the Lantern Festival iscelebrated both in China and abroad. Chinese people 64 （live） in any part of the world can experience andshare 65 exciting festival.
第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假定你是李华，上周五你校组织了“读书交换活动”，该活动受到了大家的一致好评。请你就本次活动给学校英语报写一篇报道。内容包括：
1. 活动时间和目的；2. 活动内容；3. 活动的意义。
注意：1. 词数80左右；
2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
After a heart operation, I figured taking care of a dog would keep me active. So I went to the animal shelter, where a little dog in a cage caught my eye. Her name was Honey and she was five months old. The worker openedHoney's cage and I picked her up. We both went to the yard where I picked up a ball and threw it. I sat down, watching Honey run after it. She ran back toward me, ball in mouth. Immediately, I filled out the paperwork andtook Honey home.
One morning last year I decided to take Honey out with me. My wife was away for a few days and I didn't wantto leave Honey alone. I took my keys and opened the door of my car. Honey jumped into it and sat in the backseat.
I drove around the road slowly. Just then, a flash of sunlight blinded me. I put my hand up to protect my eyes. I felt the car slipped in the soft soil, and rolled and rolled until I heard a horrible noise. A giant part of the roof hit my leg and chest. I was pinned. With a sharp pain in my chest, I looked over to find Honey was still in the back seat, trembling.
I tried to seeif I could unpin myself, but I failed. I fetched my cell phone and dialed 911. Just as I`d feared, I couldn't get a signal at the bottom of this valley. Robin, my closest neighbor, lived a quarter mile uphill from me. There was no reason she would drive up to my house.
My chest hammered. I reached into my pocket and pulled out the pills. I ate one and took a deep breath. Myheartbeat slowed. I knew that I must get Honey out first. There was a hole in the driver's side window, small but
maybe enough. Painfully, I reached over and picked her up. I gently got her through it. I pated her and she jumpedto the ground and ran up the side of the valley.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为150左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
My pulse was weakening with the sun set. _________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
Robin brought Honey to the hospital the next day. __________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
2022-2023学年高二秋季人学摸底考试
英语参考答案及评分细则
听力材料
Text 1
W: What was your first job, Dad?
M: I worked as a tour guide. It was a really interesting job.
Text 2
W: What time does the talent show start? Is it at ten o'clock?
M: No. Last week it started at nine. This week it starts at eleven.
Text 3
W: Your sister is excellent. Where does she work?
M: She works for a TV station. But she wants to work in a bank one day.
Text 4
M: Have you always been an actress?
W: No, I started that quite recently. At school I wanted to be a musician. But that didn't happen so I became a dancer. These days I only have time for acting.
Text 5
W: Come on! Ben! Look! This smart light can slowly wake people in the morning with a warm light!
M: Whoa! Look at the introduction here! It says, "If you leave the light on by accident, it will turn itself off after 20 minutes."
Text 6
W: Welcome to our holiday home!
M: Wow, a great house! Do you live here most time of the year?
W: No! Actually, my family usually spend the hottest month of the year here. It is cold to live here in autumn and winter, you know.
M: Isn't it a bit dangerous living halfway up a tree?
W: We were quite worried about the danger of falling off at first. But nothing's happened yet. And we leave our pets in thesmall garden under the tree.
M: Right. Safety comes first.
Text7
M: Have you got any ideas for the green meeting at the Youth Club?
W: Well, I've found this really cool clock on the Internet. It's made from an old bicycle wheel! It's great recycling.
M: Maybe…it's cool, but we need some more useful things, like seats and glasses, or things that could save money orelectricity. I saw a guy at the market. He sold really great seats which are made out of metal and old newspapers! They're on a piece of metal, so the seats are strong. I think we should get some for the Youth Club!
W: But what happens if they get wet or someone spills a drink on them? We don't want to buy more seats every fewweeks.
M: Well, that could be a problem. Hey, I know…batteries! The Youth Club can recycle them. There's a new place atthe supermarket where you can put old batteries.
W: Nice idea! What time is the meeting? Could we get a pizza before then? I'm hungry.
M: There is plenty of time.
Text 8
M: Amy, did you study any foreign languages in high school?
W: Yes, I took French for two years. Then I majored in Japanese in college, and I studied Spanish for a year during mylunch break.
M: And how much French can you remember?
W: Not much!
M: Well, I've just read this article about the state of language learning in schools in the US. It finds that adults only remember about seven words from the languages they studied at school. They only remember common words like hello, goodbye, and thank you.
W: Only seven words? It's hard to believe. What languages do students study in schools today?
M: Hang on a minute; there's a list here somewhere…Here it is. It says 50% of students study Spanish, 25% studyFrench, 22% study Chinese, and 2% study Russian.
Text 9
W: Henry, I need your advice on my job application letter.
M: OK. Let me see…Well, in Britain, a photo is not expected. It's unnecessary to include your hobbies as well, becausethey have nothing to do with the job you' re applying for. I can't see here that you've got a driving license.
W: I didn't mention it because almost everyone here my age has one. Do I need to put it on my letter?
M: Yes. And you' re fluent in Chinese, right?
W: Yes. I studied in Nanjing for almost two years as an exchange student. My spoken Chinese is pretty good. I know about2, 000 Chinese characters. I picked up some French while I was teaching Japanese in Paris, but I'm hardly fluent.
M: So let's include three languages as your skills. Your educational background in Japanese is fine, and so is being ateacher in Paris. Why didn't you mention that you worked for your uncle before?
W: I only worked for a month when his office assistant was away. I did photocopying and typing mostly. But I'm not very good at typing. I was too ashamed to include it. Besides, what would happen if anyone gave me a typing test?
M: All right.
Text 10
Hello, I'm Lucy. Last year, my mum and dad had two months when they didn't have to work, and Mum thought we should all go traveling somewhere. My sister did some research and worked out details of where we could go and what to dothere. My parents thought her ideas were great. The first place we went to was Moscow. We spent lots of time visiting historical buildings and we also went ice-skating several times. After traveling around other parts of Russia, we moved on to China. The place I liked best in China was Harbin in the north, with its great Ice & Snow Festival. We also traveled to the ancient city Xi'an, and then took the high-speed railway to Chengdu, where there's a wildlife park for pandas. After visiting China, we went to Alice Spring in Australia. The heat there was unbelievable. It was too much for me sometimes, and I had to stay inside. We saw Ayers Rock there, and some of the deserts too. What I didn't have time to see in Australia is the sea coast-people say it's fantastic.
1-5BCBAB 6-10ABABA 11-15ABCBC 16-20CCBAC
A
本文是一篇应用文。文章主要介绍了旧金山植物园的相关情况，包括票价、入园时间等。
21. B细节理解题。根据第二段“It is free to all San Francisco residents and garden members.”可知，旧金山植物园对当地人是免费的。故答案选B项。
22. D细节理解题。根据Regular Cost部分的“Foreign adults$12”可知，一位外国成年人在工作日参观植物园要花12美元。故答案选D项。
23. A细节理解题。根据Last Entry部分的“Second Sunday in March through September（Last entry at6pm）.”可知，游客可以在六月的下午4点进入植物园。故答案选A项。
B
本文是一篇记叙文。文章介绍了柯林斯创办的移动书店，她已经带着她的书店走遍了美国的30个州。
24. B细节理解题。根据第二段的“A business planning class…opening a bookstore in the small town where she lives.”可知，柯林斯居住的地方是个偏远小镇，人口不足2000人，在镇里开书店没有发展。比较选项可知，B项符合。
25. D细节理解题。根据第三段的“Then she had to have it refitted with shelves…while traveling.”可知，移动书店的每一层书架倾斜15度角，是为了在车子运行过程中防止书籍掉落。故答案选D项。
26. C推理判断题。从第二段的内容可知，尽管有很多人劝她放弃创办书店，但柯林斯依旧坚持自己的想法，从此可以推断她是一个意志坚决和持之以恒的人；从最后一段的“Collins loves meeting people and making connections.”可知，柯林斯也是一个爱交际的人。故答案选C项。
27. A标题归纳题。本文主要讲述的是柯林斯创办了一个移动书店，她已经驾驶着自己的移动书店走遍了美国的30个州。比较选项可知，A项最适合作为文章的标题。
C
本文是一篇说明文。低热量、低脂肪、高纤维的清淡饮食（轻食）越来越受欢迎，文章介绍了轻食的好处和人们喜欢轻食的原因。
28. C推理判断题。由第二段“The country saw a rapid expansion of restaurants specializing in light meals…also rose 75 percent from the previous year.”可知，作者用列出数字的方式来证明轻食的传播程度和受欢迎度。故答案选C项。
29. A细节理解题。根据第三段的“Healthy nutrients（营养物）are the theme of the light meal.”可知，摄入健康的营养物质是轻食的主题。故答案选A项。
30. B细节理解题。由第四段“These dishes are useful for keeping healthy and controlling your weight. That's probably why so many young people are into them.”可知，许多年轻人喜欢吃轻食，因为轻食可以帮助他们控制体重、保持健康。故答案选B项。
31. D推理判断题。由最后一段的“These changes in eating behavior are connected to deeper changes in how people think about food,says Walter Willett,chairman of the nutrition department at the Harvard T. Chan School of Public
Health.”可知，人们现在喜欢吃轻食与人们对健康饮食的态度发生了变化有关。故答案选D项。
D
本文是一篇说明文。在沉寂了33年后，女子环法自行车赛于2022年回归。文章介绍了该项赛事的相关情况。
32. D推理判断题。根据第二段自行车选手Ayesha McGowan所说的话可推知，她参加了2022年女子环法自行车赛。故答案选D项。
33. C段落大意题。第三段主要讲的是女子环法自行车赛的历史：1984年至1989年举办过女子环法自行车赛，后来取消了该项赛事；经过多年的努力，该项赛事于2022年回归。故答案选C项。
34. A词义猜测题。根据上文的“While women have their own race, the prizes for the women aren't equal.”和下文的内容可推知，该词意为“同等，平等”，与A项同义。
35. D推理判断题。根据文章的内容尤其是最后一段的“I hope it's a big start and we can build this into as influential an event as men's in a few years'time.”可知，女子环法自行车赛要成为与男子环法自行车赛有同等影响力的比赛还需要时间。故答案选D项。
本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了宇航员在太空中吃什么以及怎样吃的几个需要考虑的因素。
36. F根据上文“The most important factor is its nutrition.”和下文“Providing junk food to eat, such as potato chips, sodas, and pizza, would make the astronauts unhealthy.”可知，F选项与本段主旨一致，且与下文形成对比关系。故选F项。
37. A下文的“If the food that has been provided isn't tasteful,the astronauts may avoid eating it.”说明了食物味道的重要性；A选项“味道也很重要”中的“Taste”与下文的“isn't tasteful”相对应，符合题意。故选A项。
38. G根据上文的“The lack of gravity in a spacecraft also determines what foods can or cannot be eaten in space.”可知，重力也是宇航员饮食中需要考虑的因素之一；下文“A loose knife inside the cabin would be dangerous.”说明太空舱中有刀是很危险的；G选项的“knives”与后文的“knife”相对应。故选G项。
39. C根据下文的“The weight of every object included in a spacecraft…back home again.”可知，重量也是宇航员饮食中要考虑的因素；C选项与下文的“weight”相对应，且“Finally”与前文也形成了并列关系。故选C项。
40. D根据下文的“Most foods are stored in plastic bags…warm it up.”可知，宇航员食物的包装方式也很重要。D选项中的“packaging”与下文的“stored”相对应，“light”与本段的论点“weight”相对应。故选D项。本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了海洋生物学家Nan Hauser与一头鲸鱼之间的故事。过去30年，她见过无数头鲸鱼，但有一头鲸鱼在她心里始终有个特殊的位置。
41. D根据上文的“As a whale researcher”和下文的内容可知，Nan Hauser是一位海洋生物学家，与一头鲸鱼的偶遇让她闻名于世。故答案选D项。
42. A在2017年的一天，正当她在海中拍摄鲸鱼时，发生了不同寻常的事。答案选A项。
43. B根据下文的“that danger was near”和“Suddenly, she saw a whale swim towards her at full speed”可知，鲸鱼发出了危险迫近的警告信号。故答案选B项。
44. B根据下文的“hit”和“one of the whales used its fin to push Nan onto its back”可知，Nan Hauser心里感到非常恐慌。故答案选B项。
45. C根据下文的“accompanied Nan back to her boat”可知，这头鲸鱼把她安全地护送回她的船上。故答案选C项。
46. D根据上文的“yelled her appreciation”和下文的“feeling _________for this lifetime encounter”可知，鲨鱼消失之后，她对这头鲸鱼大声喊着感激的话。故答案选D项。
47. B根据第一段的“it was an encounter（邂逅）that would make her known worldwide”和上文“yelled her appreciation to the_________”可知，她对这次偶遇心存感恩，她也非常感激这头鲸鱼。故答案选B项。
48. A根据下文的“whales in the harbor”可知，当地渔民打电话说他看见海湾有鲸鱼出没，spotted意为“认出，发觉”。
49. C根据上文的内容可知，Nan Hauser在想：是不是救过她的那头鲸鱼回来了。故答案选C项。
50. D根据上文的“She jumped onto a boat quickly.”和“instantly”可知，Nan Hauser瞬间认出了救她的那头鲸鱼。故答案选D项。
51. B根据下文的内容可知，与那头鲸鱼相遇之后，Nan Hauser心里在想要如何感谢它。struggle with意为“努力想”。
52. C根据下文的“to hug something much larger than you”可知，要想拥抱这头鲸鱼可得费一番功夫，毕竟鲸鱼比人的体格大得多。tricky 意为“困难的”。故答案选C项。
53. A根据下文的“It's by caring，learning more about them, and_________ their habitat.”可知，Nan Hauser认为感谢鲸鱼最有影响力的办法是多了解、呵护它们并保护好它们的栖息地。比较选项可知，A项符合。influential意为“有影响力的”。
54. B根据上题的解析可知，B项符合。
55. D根据下文的“single-use plastics will make a difference”可知，不使用一次性塑料将会有助于保护鲸鱼。故答案选D项，abandoning意为“放弃，抛弃”。
本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了中国的传统节日“元宵节”。
56. celebrations考查名词复数。句意：它也标志着中国新年庆祝活动的最后一天。celebration在这里意为“庆祝活动”，是可数名词，结合语境及常识可知，新年庆祝活动不止一种，故此处应用其复数形式表泛指。故填 celebrations。
57. on 考查介词。句意：无论你去哪里，你都可以在节日那天看到美丽的灯笼。具体到哪一天应用介词on。故填on。
58. which/that 考查定语从句。句意：晚上，大多数城市都会组织灯会增加节日气氛。分析可知，此处引导定语从句，先行词为lantern shows，指物，在定语从句中作主语，故需用关系代词which或that引导。故填which 或that。
59. are written考查时态语态。句意：通常，谜语写在灯笼上。分析可知，所填词在句中作谓语，由语境及时间状语Usually可知，此处是在陈述事实，应使用一般现在时，主语 riddles和write为动宾关系，故需用一般现在时的被动语态，且主语riddles是复数，故be动词应用are。故填are written。
60. to guess 考查非谓语动词。句意：人们围在周围，试着猜谜语。表示“尝试做某事”应用try to do sth.，此处动词不定式作宾语。故填to guess。
61. Interestingly考查词性转换。句意：有趣的是，元宵节在过去被称为中国的情人节。分析可知，此处应用副词作状语，修饰整个句子，所填词位于句首，首字母应大写。故填Interestingly。
62. However考查副词。句意：然而，在今天的中国大部分地区，这个节日已经失去了原始的意义。结合句意可知，前后文之间为转折关系，故应用副词 however作状语，所填词位于句首，首字母应大写。故填However。
63. original 考查形容词。句意：然而，在今天的中国大部分地区，这个节日已经失去了这些原始的意义。修饰后文名词meanings 应用形容词original作定语。故填original。
64. living考查非谓语动词。句意：生活在世界上任何地方的中国人都可以体验和分享这个激动人心的节日。分析可知，此处应填非谓语动词，且live与其逻辑主语 Chinese people之间为主谓关系，故此处需用现在分词作后置定语。故填living。
65. the 考查冠词。句意：生活在世界上任何地方的中国人都可以体验和分享这个激动人心的节日。根据语境可知，此处特指元宵节这个节日，应用定冠词the。故填the。
One possible version:
Book Exchange on Campus
Last Friday witnessed our school's book exchange campaign, which was launched to promote students'reading enthusiasm as well as enrich our campus life.
In the book exchange, students were asked to bring to school the book that they are fascinated with. Meanwhile, they were supposed to make a note to briefly introduce its content. Then at the school hall students exchanged their book for another one they were fond of. In this activity, all of the students were in high spirits and participated quite well.
Without doubt, this campaign was well received. Not only has it provided a platform for students to share their reading, but also it has aroused their interest in reading.
One possible version:
My pulse was weakening with the sun set. All I had to do was close my eyes. It seemed only minutes later I heard myneighbor Robin as well as the helicopter overhead. The rescue crew landed and made their way down to me. It took them 45minutes to cut me out of the car and get me up the valley. We flew to the hospital in the helicopter and I got all sorts oftests and X-rays.
Robin brought Honey to the hospital the next day. She got right up next to me on the bed. With her there, my paindisappeared. "It was the strangest thing," Robin told me later. "I got home from work and Honey was waiting for me. Sheran in circles, like she was trying to tell me something." Robin figured she'd bring Honey back to my house, and that'swhen she dialed 911. How grateful I was for Honey, a life-saving hero in my heart.
相关试卷
江西省省重点校联盟2022-2023学年高三入学摸底联考英语试卷： 这是一份江西省省重点校联盟2022-2023学年高三入学摸底联考英语试卷，共9页。
2023届江西省省重点校联盟（智慧上进）高三上学期入学摸底联考英语试题 PDF版： 这是一份2023届江西省省重点校联盟（智慧上进）高三上学期入学摸底联考英语试题 PDF版，共14页。
2022-2023学年江西省省上饶一中重点校联盟高三入学摸底联考英语试卷含答案： 这是一份2022-2023学年江西省省上饶一中重点校联盟高三入学摸底联考英语试卷含答案，共31页。
