2021宁德高一上学期期末考试英语试题含答案
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宁德市2020—2021学年度第一学期期末高一质量检测
英 语 试 题
(考试时间:120分钟 满分150分)
温馨提示:请将全部答案填写在答题卡上。
第一部分 听力(共两节,共30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,共7.5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where is the man going?
A. A market. B. The post office. C. A bookshop.
2. What does the man want to do?
A. Sleep early. B. Continue working. C. Watch a movie.
3. What are the speakers talking about?
A. Work. B. Study. C. Time.
4. What is the relationship between the speakers?
A. Husband and wife. B. Teacher and student. C. Father and daughter.
5. When will the film probably begin?
A. At 4 pm. B. At 6 pm. C. At 8 pm.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,共22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,每小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7两个小题。
6. Which room did Kayla live in?
A. Room 204. B. Room 205. C. Room 210.
7. What is Kayla’s group going to do?
A. Go shopping. B. Visit a town. C. Wait for a bus.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9、10两个小题。
8. What is the woman doing?
A. Selling books.
B. Doing a survey.
C. Making an introduction.
9. What books does the man like best?
A. Historical novels. B. Poems. C. Adventure stories.
10. Where does the man get most of his books?
A. From his friends.
B. From the library.
C. From online bookstores.
听第8段材料,回答第11至13三个小题。
11. Why does the woman want to lose weight?
A. To be an actress.
B. To become healthy.
C. To look good on TV.
12. What is the man?
A. A doctor. B. An actor. C. A model.
13. What does the man suggest the woman do?
A. Do a lot of exercise.
B. Change some habits.
C. Lose weight in a short time.
听第9段材料,回答第14至16四个小题。
14. Where is the woman working now?
A. In Spain. B. In New York. C. In Chicago.
15. What is the base pay in the man’s company?
A. $2,006. B. $2,280. C. $2,600.
16. What is the woman probably attending?
A. A job interview. B. A talk show. C. A meeting.
听下面一段独白,回答第17至20题四个小题。
17. Who is the speaker talking to?
A. New workers. B. Foreign tourists. C. International students.
18. What are the girls advised to do in a cafe?
A. To take care of their bags.
B. Not to talk to strangers.
C. To leave the place quickly.
19. Where should girls park cars?
A. Beside the campus. B. On a quiet road. C. In a public car park.
20. What should one do when walking home alone at night?
A. Leave the passport in the car.
B. Avoid walking in dark areas.
C. Take a knife for self-defence.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节,共30分)
第一节(共10小题;每小题2分,共20分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中选出最佳答案。
A
London Underground
The London Underground rail network, also called “the Tube”, is a great way to travel to, from and around central London. Read advice on how to master the London Underground public transport.
Tube Zones
The London Underground rail network is divided into nine zones. Zone 1 is in central London and zones 6 to 9 are on the outskirts of the city. There are 11 Tube lines.
Tube Prices
Buy a Visitor Oyster card, Oyster card, Travelcard or use a contactless (非接触式的) payment card to get the best value as cash is the most expensive way to pay. An adult cash fare (费用) on the London metro for a single journey in zone 1 is £4.90. The same Tube fare with Visitor Oyster card, Oyster card or contactless payment card is £2.40. If you plan on travelling around London to do some sightseeing and visit some of London’s best attractions, why not get a London Pass and save even more money?
Opening and Closing Times
London Underground opening times vary from line to line, but the first London subway trains normally start running around 5 am, from Monday to Saturday, with reduced operating hours on Sunday. Avoid travelling during rush hours (weekdays, 7-9 am and 5.30-7 pm) if at all possible. London metro trains normally run until around midnight. A 24-hour underground service operates on certain lines. Check with staff at the particular tube station you plan on using to find out exactly when the last train runs.
21.Which of the following tube zones is on the outskirts of London?
A. Zone 1. B. Zone 5. C. Zone 8. D. Zone 11.
22.Which way is the most expensive to pay tube fare?
A. Using Travelcard. B. Using Cash.
C. Using London Pass. D. Using Visitor Oyster card.
(背面还有试题)
23. What do we know about London Underground times?
A. The tube closes on Sunday.
B. No lines in the tube run 24 hours.
C. The operating hours are the same every day.
D. The opening times are different from line to line.
B
I’ve always loved to run. Ever since I was a boy, running has made me feel free. But when I was a young adult, I became blind. I had to give up running for years. Then I heard about running with human guides, and I decided to give it a try. I was even able to enter the New York City and Boston Marathons five years in a row. In 2019, I ran the first half-marathon with the help of guide dogs.
But I know it’s not possible for everyone to have a clever, fast guide dog like my Blaze. I run an organization called Guiding Eyes for the Blind, to help the blind receive running guide dogs that can help them live more active and independent lives.
In the fall of 2019, I asked that question to a group of designers and technologists at Google. I wasn’t anticipating much more than an interesting conversation, but by the end of the day they had built a rough application that allowed a phone to recognize a line taped to the ground, and give audio cues (语音信号) to me while I walked with Blaze. Within a few months, we tested it on an indoor track on my own. I was able to run eight laps. It was the first unguided mile I had run in decades.
After months of efforts, the team was finally ready to test the tech outside for the first time. I’d been waiting 25 years to run outdoors on my own. When I arrived at the finish line, I was completely overcome with emotion. For the first time, I didn’t feel like a blind man. I felt free.
24. Which of the following can best describe the writer?
A. Calm and quiet. B. Humorous and honest.
C. Kind and easygoing. D. Determined and positive.
25. Which word can best explain the underlined word “anticipating”?
A. Preparing. B. Expecting. C. Explaining. D. Continuing.
26. What can be inferred from the last paragraph?
A. He was happy to be set free.
B. He was able to run outdoors with the App.
C. He was satisfied to win the running race.
D. He was pleased to run without any help.
C
Tropical rainforests (热带雨林) are home to native peoples who rely on their surroundings for food, shelter, and medicines. Today very few forest people in many areas like the Philippines, Papua New Guinea live in traditional ways; most have been displaced by outside settlers or have been forced to give up their lifestyles by governments.
Of the remaining forest people, the Amazon supports the largest native or native populations, although these people, too, have been affected by the modern world. While they still depend on the forest for traditional hunting and gathering, most Amerindians, as American native people are called, grow crops, use western goods, and make regular trips to towns and cities to bring foods and products to market. In Africa there are native forest people sometimes known as pygmies. The tallest of these people, also called the Mbuti, are not more than 5 feet in height. Their small size enables them to move about the forest more quickly than taller people.
Tropical rainforests have supported humans since ancient times. Although forest life cannot be described as easy, these peoples have built their lives around the surrounding forest and its systems. Still, these forest people can teach us a lot about the rainforest. Their knowledge of medicinal plants used for treating illness is valuable, and they have a great understanding of the ecology (生态学) of the Amazon rainforest. As a result, they are a great storehouse of the knowledge about the forest. They know the medicinal functions of plants and understand the value of the forest as an undamaged ecosystem. As forests fall, these native peoples lose their homes and culture, resulting in the drop of the native population.
27. Where do the greatest number of native rainforest peoples live today?
A. In the Philippines . B. In Africa.
C. In the Amazon. D. In Papua New Guinea.
28. What do we know about most Amerindians?
A. They know little about growing some crops.
B. They make trips to towns and cities for trade.
C. They would like to use eastern goods in daily life.
D. They seldom know traditional hunting and gathering.
29. What can we learn from the third paragraph?
A. Forest people can get benefits from rainforests.
B. We can learn how to build storehouses from forest people .
C. Forest people live an easy and comfortable life as we imagine.
D. The knowledge of medicinal plants for treating illness can be ignored.
30. What is the purpose of this text?
A. To make an advertisement for tropical rainforests.
B. To introduce the lifestyles of the native forest people.
C. To spread the knowledge and value of the forest plants.
D. To raise the awareness of protecting tropical rainforests.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,共10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两项为多余选项。
How to stop life getting you down
In our life, we can be faced with a lot of troubles. We don’t like to talk about our struggles. 31 So when things start to get you down how can you cheer yourself up?
32 。
Hobbies don’t just fill time. 33 Try out a new sport, learn to cook or perhaps join a choir. Many hobbies also provide opportunities for social interaction. Talking and making friends will do wonders for your mood.
Reach out
If you’re struggling or feeling down, always remember that you don’t need to be on your own. 34 If you don’t feel able to talk to friends or family, you’ll find support groups and helplines that can provide you with ideas. You’ll also find that online forums and social media sites can provide opportunities to connect and ask for help.
Try to appreciate the little things.
Those that have recovered from a serious illness often say that they’ve been given a new life and that they wake each morning grateful just to be waking up. 35 Enjoy the beauty of a flower, a favourite piece of music or a simple sunny day. Go out for dinner and make efforts to truly appreciate the flavour of your meal or lie back on your bed, surrounded by total silence, and simply focus on how it feels to breathe and to relax. Clearing the mind is of benefit. If you can’t focus on the silence, you can instead choose background noise, such as a CD of ocean sounds or the sound of pouring rain.
A. Join in social activities.
B. Try out a new hobby.
C. Instead, we choose to put on a brave face.
D. Try to stay in a completely quiet environment.
E. Friends will be happy to help and provide support.
F. Focusing on life’s little things can help you to feel more positive.
G. They also help to give you a sense of purpose and something to be proud of.
第三部分 语言知识运用 (共三节,共55分)
第一节 完形填空 (共18小题;每小题1.5分,共27分)
阅读下面短文,从A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I started to tell people stories from my father’s life a few years ago when I went to university. I was 36 with a group of student journalists and writers. As we were 37 .
in telling stories, it felt natural to talk about 38 from my dad’s life. One of the first common 39 was about how he went from being a high school dropout (辍学生) to 40 .
such an interesting life. A few people, perhaps a bit jokingly, also asked me if he was a 41 .
At first, I found this to be 42 because my dad is my dad — the person 43 has spent hours asking me questions about how Zoom works; who annoyingly 44 my American pronunciation of French words; who 45 Ukulele (尤克里里琴) classes to elderly people in his retirement. So ... was he more interesting than I’d always thought? Was he maybe even 46 something? I’d never known much about his work, 47 I did know that he had a strange habit of appearing in 48 places. The more I talked to people, the more I started to 49 if my dad really was a spy.
I had to 50 if my dad had really just lived a very full life, or if there was something he wasn’t telling me. As a journalist, I have looked into and reported on many different issues — what kind of 51 would I be if I didn’t look into my own family?
After talking to my father deeply about his life, I realized something. I realized that I have my father’s 52 for adventure. I realized that I want to 53 my own stories.
36. A. relatives B. members C. friends D. classmates
37. A. stuck B. weak C. strict D. interested
38. A. courses B. stories C. jobs D. projects
39. A. studies B. experiments C. questions D. interviews
40. A. affecting B. making C. ruining D. living
41. A. teacher B. spy C. policeman D. guard
42. A. useful B. clear C. easy D. strange
43. A. what B. which C. whom D. who
44. A. corrects B. repeats C. tells D. parts
45. A. chooses B. attends C. teaches D. leads
46. A. sharing B. changing C. saying D. hiding
47. A. but B. so C. for D. then
48. A. safe B. common C. unusual D. familiar
49. A. decide B. wonder C. remind D. expect
50. A. find out B. carry out C. pick out D. act out
51. A. nurse B. worker C. reporter D. officer
52. A. thirst B. demand C. try D. research
53. A. use B. have C. download D. read
第二节 完成句子(共13个空;每空1分,共13分)
54. His first book to be published next month is _________ __________ a true story.(以......为依据)
55. A stone tablet, which _________ _________ __________ the Qing Dynasty, has been discovered in north China’s Hebei Province, local authorities said on Friday. (追溯到)
56. London has _______ ________ 7.6 hours of sunshine per day during May.(平均)
57. There comes a time when the old must _______ _________ _________ the new.(让路)
58. Never __________ __________ __________ others when they’re crying.(嘲笑)
第三节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,共15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
As we all know, it is often 59 big challenge to keep the right balance between progress and the protection of cultural sites. In the 1950s, the Egyptian government wanted to build a new dam across the Nile 60 (control) floods, produce electricity, and supply water to more farmers in the area. But the proposal 61 (lead) to protests. Water from the dam would likely damage a number of temples and destroy cultural relics 62 were an important part of Egypt’s cultural heritage. After 63 (listen) to the scientists who had studied the problem and the nearby citizens, the government turned to the United Nations for help in 1959.
(背面还有试题)
A committee 64 (establish) to limit damage to the Egyptian buildings and prevent the
loss of cultural relics. The group asked for 65 (contribution) from different departments
and raised funds within the 66 (globe) community. They completed the project 67 .
(successful) by taking down temples and other cultural relics piece 68 piece and putting them together again in a place where they were safe from the water.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节 概要写作(满分15分)
阅读短文,根据其内容写一篇60词左右的内容概要。
In school all over the world most boys and girls are learning a second language. Everybody knows his own language, but another one is very useful, especially when we travel to other countries. If we go to France, we ought to be able to speak French, and in Germany people will expect us to understand German.
How many languages are there in the world? These are about fifteen hundred, but many of them are not very important. English is one of the most important because so many people use it, not only in England and the USA, but in other parts of the world. About 200,000,000 people speak it as their own language, and another 200,000,000 use it as a second language. It is difficult to say how many people are learning it. Many millions of schoolboys and schoolgirls are trying to do so.
Which is the best way to learn a second language? We should remember that we all learned our own language well when we were children. If we could learn a second language in the same way, it would not seem so difficult. Think of what children do. They listen to what people say and try to imitate (模仿) what they hear. When they want something, they have to ask for it. They are using the language, talking in it, and thinking in it all the time. If people had to use a second language all the time, they would learn it quickly.
It is important to remember, also, that we learn our own language by hearing people speak it, not by seeing what they write.We imitate what we hear. In school, although you learn to read and write as well as to hear and speak, it is best to learn all new words through the ear. You can read them, spell them, and write them later.
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第二节 应用文写作(满分20分)
假定你是李华,宁德市某中学高一学生,请你根据以下学生会倡议书的内容给某英文报社写一封信,叙述拟开展活动的内容并发表自己的看法。
倡 议 书
为了弘扬无私奉献的精神,倡议广大师生向“时代楷模”张桂梅同志学习。她的事迹简介如下:
1. 致力于山区教育;
2. 建了一所免费的女子高中;
3. 帮助了1800多名女孩圆大学梦。
注意:1. 信的开头语已经给出,不计入总词数;
2. 词数80左右;
3. 适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
提示词:时代楷模Role Model of the Times
Dear editor,
I am a student of Senior One in a high school in Ningde. ___________________________
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Yours,
Li Hua
宁德市2020–2021学年度第一学期期末高一质量检测
英语试题参考答案及评分标准
第一部分听力(共20小题, 每小题1.5分, 满分30分;与参考答案不符的不得分)
1-5 CAABC 6-10 BABCC 11-15 BABCC 16-20 ACACB
第二部分阅读理解(共15小题;每小题2分, 满分30分;与参考答案不符的不得分)
21-23 CBD 24-26 DBB 27-30 CBAD 31-35 CBGEF
第三部分英语知识运用
第一节完形填空(共18小题;每小题1.5分, 满分27分;与参考答案不符的不得分)
36-40 CDBCD 41-45BDDAC 46-50 DACBA 51-53 CAB
第二节完成句子(共13个空;每空1分, 满分13分;与参考答案不符的不得分,大小写错误不得分, 没有将完整的单词写在答题卡上不得分。)
54. based on 55. dates back to 56. on average
57. give way to 58. make fun of
第三节语法填空(共10个空;每空1.5分, 满分15分;与参考答案不符的不得分。)
59. a 60. to control 61. led 62. that/which 63. listening
64. was established 65. contributions 66. global 67. successfully 68. by
第四部分写作(共两节满分35分)
第一节、概要写作
评分原则:
1、本题总分为15分,按5个档次给分。
评分时,先根据所写概要的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,最后给分。第一个要点3分,后面三个要点,每个4分。
词数少于40的和多于80的,从得分中减去2分。
评分时,应主要从以下四个方面考虑:
(1)对原文要点的理解和呈现情况;
(2)运用语法结构和词汇的准确性;
(3)上下文的连贯性;
(4)对各要点表达的独立性情况。
各档次的给分范围和要求
档次
描述
第五档
(13-15分)
1.理解准确,涵盖全部要点。
2.能准确使用相应的语法结构和词汇。
3.有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所完成的概要结构紧凑。
4.完全没有整句抄自原文。
第四档
(10-12分)
1.理解准确,涵盖绝大部分要点。
2.所使用语法结构和词汇可能有些许错误,但完全不影响意义表达。
3.比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所完成的概要结构紧凑。
4.有个别整句抄自原文。
第三档
(7-9分)
1.理解较为准确,涵盖绝大部分要点。
2.所使用语法结构和词汇虽有些许错误,但不影响意义表达。
3.应用简单的语句间连接成分,使上下文内容连贯。
4.出现两句以上整句抄自原文现象。
第二档
(4-6分)
1.理解有误差,仅涵盖半数要点。
2.有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,影响了意义的表达。
3.较少使用语句间的连接成分,全文内容缺少连贯性。
4.出现两句以上整句抄自原文现象。
第一档
(1-3分)
1.没有理解原文,造成概要内容与原文主题不符。
2.有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误,严重影响了意义的表达。
3.缺乏语句间的连接成分,全文内容不连贯。
4.多个句子抄自原文。
(0分)
白卷、内容太少无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容相关但不成句。
参考范文:
It’s helpful to learn one more language.(要点1) Among 1500 languages in the world, English is very important. People learn it as their mother tongue or a second language. (要点2) But how can we learn a second language better? Firstly, we should listen to and imitate others, which enables us to learn more quickly. (要点3) Secondly, hearing and speaking should come first before reading and writing. (要点4)
(63words)
第二节、 应用文写作
评分原则:
1. 本题总分为20分,按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3. 词数少于60从总分中减去2分,多写原则上不扣分。
4. 评分时应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文
的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑
英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。如书写较差以至影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。
内容要点:
1. 致力于山区教育;
2. 建了一所免费的女子高中;
3. 帮助了1800多名女孩圆大学梦;
4. 你的看法。
各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档
(17—20)分
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
覆盖所有内容要点。
应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致;具备较强的语言运用能力。
有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑,完全达到了预期的写作目的。完全完成了试题规定的任务。
第四档
(13—16分)
完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉一两个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容。
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档
(9—12分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。
应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档
(5—8分)
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。
语法结构单调,词汇项目有限。
有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。
较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档
(1—4分)
未完成试题规定的任务。
明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求。
语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。
缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息:内容太少,无法评判;
写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
参考范文:
Dear editor,
I am a student of Senior One in a high school in Ningde. To learn from the Role Model of the Times, Zhang Guimei, our school is arranging an activity. Teachers and students are called on to promote and encourage the spirit of selfless devotion.
Devoted to education in the mountainous area, she helped establish the country’s first senior high school to offer girls free education. With her great efforts, more than 1800 students have achieved their college dreams.
As a student, I’m strongly for this meaningful activity. Hope such activities will be frequently held in the future.
Yours
Li Hua
(85words)
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