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    湖南省长沙市一中等名校联考联合体2023届高三上学期11月联考

    英语

    第一部分:听力(共两节,满分30)

    第一节(5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5)

    听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的ABC三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

    1. What had the man intended to do?

    A. Go cycling.    B. Wash the dishes.   C. Wipe the floor.

    2. Why is Susan away?

    A. To have supper.

    B. To see her doctor.

    C. To look after her father.

    3. How did the man get the tickets?

    A. He bought them by himself.

    B. The woman gave them to him.

    C. His uncle presented them to him.

    4. When will the man probably reach the Conference Center?

    A. At around 230 p.m.  B. At around 240 p.m.   C. At around 3:10 p.m.

    5.What is the woman doing now?

    A. Seeing the man off.

    B. Attending a birthday party.

    C. Talking about her daughter.

    第二节(15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5)

    听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的ABC三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

    听第6段材料,回答67题。

    6.What does the woman ask the man to do?

    A. To climb the mountain with her.

    B. To bring her an umbrella.

    C. To prepare some climbing supplies with her.

    7. What will the weather be like tomorrow?

    A. Rainy.     B. Cloudy.    C. Sunny.

    听第7段材料,回答第89题。

    8. What are the speakers talking about?

    A.A teacher.    B.A school.    C.A student.

    9. What do we know about Miss Lora?

    A. She is talkative.

    B. She values respect.

    C. She cares little about others.

    听第8段材料,回答第1012题。

    10.How many yellow buildings are there?

    A. One.     B. Two.     C. Three.

    11. Why does the woman look for a convenience store?

    A. To buy something.  B. To change money.  C. To eat instant noodles.

    12. Where can the woman find a convenience store which is still open?

    A. On the 3rd Street.

    B. On the 22nd Street

    C. Next to the big yellow building.

    听第9段材料,回答第1316题。

    13.What is the probable relationship between the speakers?

    A. Husband and wife.  B. Old friends.    C. Doctor and patient.

    14.Why does the man look fat now?

    A. He exercises less.

    B. His wife told him to eat more.

    C. He lost his job.

    15. What does the woman mean?

    A. She is too busy to work out in a health club.

    B. It's cheap to apply for membership.

    C. Normal people should exercise every day.

    16. What does the man think of the woman?

    A. Weak.     B. Fat.     C. Thin.

    听第10段材料,回答第1720题。

    17.What is the speaker mainly talking about?

    A. The trend of loneliness nowadays.

    B. The new treatment for loneliness.

    C. The way to communicate with others.

    18. What will lonely people be like five years later?

    A. Dying of heart disease.

    B. Being stuck in depression.

    C. Making more mistakes at work.

    19.How many office workers are feeling lonely in Britain?

    A. Two fifths.     B. Three fifths.    C. A quarter.

    20.What does the speaker mean about loneliness?

    A. It will come to an end soon.

    B. It's a cure to some health problems.

    C. Humans will struggle with this for a long time.

    第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分50)

    第一节(15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5)

    阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(ABCD)中,选出最佳选项。

    A

    Gap Year Sailing Programs

    A gap year spent sailing will show you more of the world than most people see in their whole lives. So hoist the anchorthrow off the bowlinescatch the following wind, and set sail on a voyage of discovery to create memories that will last a lifetime.

    Where to Go

    The beauty of a sailing gap year is that you don't just visit a single place. These unique adventures can take you across oceans and whole regions to experience dozens of countries in a single gap year. Some programs combine several regions including the Indian Ocean, the Caribbean Sea, etc. while others stick to just one.

    Costs

    How much a sailing gap year costs varies greatly depending on the type of program and the length of the voyage. A program lasting a few weeks may cost S$ 5,000 or more. Months long adventures may be as much as $20.000, especially if they involve college credit or other coursework.

    Visa

    Visa requirements will vary depending on where your voyage takes you. Your program will inform you of which visas you'll need. Make sure you obtain your visas well in advance.

    Housing

    Housing will consist of a berth (铺位) aboard your boat. Don't expect anything fancy. You'll likely have little more than a bed and a small storage locker in a two-or three-person cabin. Given the limited size of your living space, expect to stay close to your crewmates at all times with little real privacy.

    Health & Safety

    Living aboard a ship means that you can't always count on having medical facilities (设施) nearby. You may be asked to provide a note from your doctor confirming that you are in good health before being accepted into your program. Most programs include medical emergency insurance as part of their fees. See what it covers and what it doesn't when making your decisions.

    21. What do the sailing programs provide for participants?

    A. Journeys by land.

    B. Chances to study abroad.

    C. Courses of famous universities.

    D. Opportunities to travel around the world.

    22. What do you have to do before entering for the programs?

    A. Ask parents for advice.    B. Save as much as $ 20,000.

    C. Obtain your proper visa.    D. Have a medical examination.

    23. Which word can best describe the living conditions in the programs?

    A. Tough.   B. Fancy.   C. Noisy.   D. Comfortable.

    B

    There was a boy named Drake. He was just 12 years old. His parents had no money to educate him. They had no choice other than to tell their children to leave school and start helping them with their shop's work.

    Drake assimilated this and started waking up before sunrise and going to their shop and cleaning it. He was really a hardworking guy. He always wanted something big to happen in his life, but he knew that a change does not happen in a day. So he started caching himself and completed all senior high school courses at the age of 18. When he turned 20, he got a job offer from an electrical company.

    He started working in that company, and every day after coming from his job, he would learn more and more about bulbs(灯泡)because he saw a lot of bulb production there. After some years he made a new improved bulb of his own. He was really excited to show it to his bossbut when the boss saw it, he wasn't interested in it and said it was of little use. But still, he believed in himself and didn't give up.

    After a few monthshe thought of setting up his own factory where he and his wife would put the improved bulb into production. When they made the bulbs, they started selling them. No one was interested in those bulbs, but still, he kept believing in himself.

    One day when the sun was rising, he got an order of l,000 pieces of the bulbs. This totally changed his life. After thathe started getting more and more orders.

    24. Why did Drake 's parents ask him to work in their shop when he was 12?

    A. They wanted him to catch himself.

    B. They expected him to be successful.

    C. They wished him to be hardworking.

    D. They were unable to pay for his schooling.

    25.What does the underlined word "assimilated" in Paragraph 2 probably mean?

    A. Remembered.   B. Understood.   C. Expressed.   D. Hated.

    26. What did Drake's boss think of his new improved bulb?

    A. Surprising.    B. Attractive.    C. Popular.   D. Valueless.

    27.What can we learn from the story?

    A. All things are difficult before they are easy.

    B. Confidence is the first secret of success.

    C. Learn to say before you sing.

    D. Practice makes perfect.

    C

    Written and illustrated by Shel Silverstein, The Giving Tree is a children's book that tells the story about a young boy and a tree in the forest. The story starts with the boy and the tree being the best of friends and having fun. As the boy grows older, he asks more from the tree. which willingly agrees until all that is left is a stump(树桩).In the end, the boy. now an old man, comes back to the tree and tells it that all he wants is a place to sit on. something that the tree eagerly provides.

    In the book, each part of-the story goes straight to the point without confusing readers. The book doesn't include the events that happen to the boy in between. We see how the boy's needs increase to a point that the tree finally gives its trunk as he grows. It makes the book easy to read and understand. The writing style may seem plain and boring at first but we need to keep in mind that it is a children's book. If it weren’t that way. then it would be unattractive to its young readers.

    The words used are very easy to understand. The phrase,and the tree was happy" is quite moved and shows the tree's love for the boy. The use of the wordneed" also shows readers the attitude of the boy. The change fromneedtowant" in the end also tells readers the changes that the boy goes through.

    Though the book has been criticized as it can be understood in different ways.it is because of this that the book succeeds. Again the book is written for children. Different children have their own ways to understand the book and will consider it interesting.

    28. What is the book mainly about?

    A. A boy's great love for a tree.

    B. A boy's dependence on a forest.

    C. A boy's relationship with a tree.

    D. A boy's interesting life in a forest.

    29. Why is the book suitable for young readers in the author's opinion?

    A. Its story is touching.    B. Its expressions are simple.

    C. Its writing style is humorous.  D. Its topics are varied.

    30. What makes The Giving Tree popular?

    A. The comments kids gave.   B. The writing style.

    C. The pictures in it.    D. The truth it mirrors.

    31. What is the author's purpose in writing the text?

    A. To comment on a book.   B. To introduce a writer.

    C. To recommend a story.   D. To give readers a lesson.

    D

    Harry Potter fans have been able to visit the official Harry Potter flagship store in the heart of New York City next to the Flatiron Building on Broadway since last year. And Harry Potter New York set a new standard for themed stores, combining impressive design, exciting interactive elements and featured products, and inviting fans to experience the Wizarding World in a completely new way.

    Having three floors, the store houses the largest collection of Harry Potter and Fantastic Beasts products under one roof. Harry Potter New York features 15 different themed areas, each one carefully presented to bring the magic of the Wizarding World to life.

    Entering the store, customers will pass under a huge model of Fawkes, the phoenix looking down from the top of the store. Fawkes was created especially for Harry Potter New York by a team over a number of months. The impressive model weighs over 220 1bs and is just one of the many objects in the film series, each one created to surprise and please customers as they explore.

    Stepping inside Harry Potter New Yorkfans are invited to pose at one of many photo opportunities, including posing inside a London phone box for a photo as if transporting themselves into the Ministry of Magic! For those who have always dreamed of bringing their favorite Harry Potter character to life, the interactive wand(魔杖)table lets them pick up a wand and put it to the test.

    When it comes to buying gifts, the store says its personalization area offers a huge number of excellent products. And fans can choose from a lot of personalization choices, including putting their own name on a robe(睡袍). While the store adds the finishing touches to 935 Broadway, many products are available to be bought from the Harry Potter online shop.

    32. What is the new standard that Harry Potter New York set?

    A. It's a themed store.

    B. It's a three-floor store.

    C. It locates in the heart of New York City.

    D. It offers different shopping experiences.

    33. What's in sight at the entrance of the store?

    A. A model overhead.

    B.A Harry Potter film.

    C.A phoenix on the floor.

    D. An area designed to take photos.

    34. What could fans do in Harry Potter New York?

    A. They could get a robe for free.

    B. They could select their favorite wand.

    C. They could enter a phone box in London.

    D. They could transport themselves into the Ministry of Magic.

    35. What is the main idea of the text?

    A. Broadway is adding a decoration to itself.

    B. New York is popular with Harry Potter fans.

    C. A Harry Potter store is taking on a new look.

    D. Many fans come to visit Harry Potter New York.

    第二节(5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5)

    根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

    Aside from a nursing degree, work experience and a desire to be a travel nurse, there are several must have "softskills that you need to be suitable for the job.

    Adaptability is one of the most important skills needed to be a travel nurse.  36  Moving from place to place every few months and jumping into a new hospital while growing personally and professionally requires adaptability.

    Being able to change in response to a situation is a key skill in being a good travel nurse. To be flexible, you need to be capable of quickly changing the way you work to best fit your boss’ needs.   37 

    Joining a new team for a short time means you need to communicate effectively. Keeping important things to yourself and being too closed won't win you any friends.   38   Ask yourself: Do I consider who I am speaking towhat he/she needs to know and how to best express that message before I speak?

    Relationships play a big part in the success of your lives.   39   Developing relationships takes emotional intelligence. To develop relationships, you must be able to understand and negotiate with other people.

      40   Some nurses consider taking a travel assignment only for money. However, they are unhappy with moving around constantly. You need to love exploring new cities and seeing new things.

    A. Not everyone can get used to it.

    B. You need to communicate in a clear. friendly way.

    C. Besides, a love of traveling is vital to being a travel nurse.

    D. Soft skills enable you to get along with others and form relationships.

    E. If you can adapt to a new environment quickly, you have an advantage.

    F. People who can meet changing requirements are seen as valuable team players.

    G. Developing relationships quickly and meaningfully will help your travel nursing career.

    第三部分语言运用(共两节,满分30)

    第一节(15小题;每小题1分,满分15)

    阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的ABCD四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

    When the covID-19 pandemic start, chef Kim Calichio's life changed overnight. Calichio's business stopped completely. leaving her with no   41   . Her husband. Omar, also a chef, continued working in narrow space that put him at   42   in the spreading virus.

    In an industry where people   43   live paycheck to paycheck and many don't qualify for unemployment benefits. Calichio knew many restaurant workers   44   a safety net. So. in early March 2020. the couple   45   a Go Fund Me with the idea of purchasing groceries wholesale(以批发价) and   46   them directly to those in   47   in their Astoria, Queens. community. Within a week. they raised $ 10.000.

    We thought the pandemic was going to be over soon. Calichio said. "So, we thought, "We'll   48   this 10 grand(一千美元)and then go back to work. And that never   49   .

    Soon, they realized the need extended beyond their community, and the program quickly grew to   50   anyone in Queens. So the non-profit The Connected Chef was born. It delivers----   51   groceries to 550 households each week.

    Calichio says 125 households have   52   the free program. They are now in a better place where they can ,   50   groceries on their own. Although this work started   54   the pandemic. for Calichioi is far from over. “Until we're able to create something that is self-sustaining, this work will   55   ," she said.

    41.A. income   B. food   C. employees  D. options

    42.A. ease   B. risk   C. rest   D. fault

    43.A. obviously  B. typically  C. secretly  D. willingly

    44.A. held   B. built   C. stressed  D. lacked

    45.A. started   B. managed  C. secured  D. reported

    46.A. selling   B. introducing  C. delivering  D. returning

    47.A. danger   B. need   C. amazement  D. anger

    48. A. spend   B. donate   C. collect   D. save

    49.A. ruled   B. changed  C. happened  D. answered

    50.A. comfort   B. charge   C. rescue   D. serve

    51.A. expensive  B. healthy  C. free   D. dirty

    52.A. adopted   B. refused  C. studied  D. quit

    53.A. plant   B. create   C. buy   D. borrow

    54.A. in response to B. in terms of  C. at the cost of D. with the exception of

    55.A. finish   B. fail   c. begin   D. continue

    第二节(10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15)

    阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

    There's just a l-in-3.700,000 chance that a person will be killed by   56   shark, but the fear is still enough to have swimmers worrying about   57   (be) seen as prey(捕获物).Now. new research supports the long-standing theory.   58   explains that it's a case of "mistaken identity" when great whites go in for a bite.

    A team of biologists   59  (compare)videos of seals swimming with those of humans swimming. They then edited the clips to simulate a great white's vision and found that from the ocean inhabitant's point   60   view, humans do indeed have a strong resemblance to seals.

    Usually, great white sharks   61  (regard) as 'mindless killers' and 'fond of human flesh' . However. this does not seem to be the case; we just look like   62  (they) food," Laura Ryan, lead author of the study, told Live Science.

    “They eat seals every day and bites on people are   63   (extreme) rare," said Catherine MacDonald. a marine scientist at the University of Miami. “So if they're not solving the problem visually, then how do we think they're solving it?   64   (hit) the right targets. sharks could be relying on other senseslike the scent. If that's the case,   65   (addition) studies on how great whites use those senses could help prevent further attacks.

    第四部分写作(共两节,满分40)

    第一节(满分15)

    假定你是李华,就读于一所国际学校。现阶段对个人未来发展产生了困惑,希望得到学校职业规划办公室(Career Planning Office)Mr. Smith的帮助。请按下列要求写一封求助信:

    1.本人简介;

    2.对未来职业的畅想;

    3.现阶段的困惑。

    注意:

    1.写作词数应为80左右;

    2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

    Dear Mr. Smith,

     

     

    Yours,

    Li Hua

    第二节(满分25)

    阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。

    I never knew how important life was until I almost lost my little brother. It all started when my brother got sick. I was nineand he was just nine months. At that time, he kept touching his car. The first doctor my mother took him to told her that it was an ear disease.

    After a week, he was still touching his ear continually. My mother took him to a different doctor. The doctor ran blood tests on him and thought he should be in the hospital as soon as possible. At first, the doctors did not know what was wrong with him. A couple of days later, they found out he had a type of bone marrow(骨髓)cancer.

    The doctors tried one round of treatment. It helped, but my brother lost his hair. Then he needed a bone marrow transplant(移植).They needed to find a bone marrow donor(捐赠者)so the doctors tested my family first.

    l was so afraid to get a shot. My sisters and I were all crying. We got it over with quickly, and it did not hurt as much as I thought it would. A couple of weeks later, we found out that one of my sisters and I were both matches. My parents had to choose which one of us should be the donor. After thinking about it for a long time, they made their decision one Sunday.

    That day, after having our lunch, my parents put me on the sofa. With tears filling their eyes, they told me that they wanted me to be the bone marrow donor because I was older. They asked me whether Id like to be the donor. Hearing it, I was excited and nervous.

    注意:

    1.续写词数应为150左右;

    2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

    I wondered whether to agree it or not.                                           

     

     

     

    About 45 days later, my brother's health improved a lot.                                                                             

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

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