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所属成套资源：2023自贡高三上学期第一次诊断性考试及答案(九科)
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2023自贡高三上学期第一次诊断性考试英语试题含答案
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这是一份2023自贡高三上学期第一次诊断性考试英语试题含答案，共12页。试卷主要包含了5分，满分7，15等内容，欢迎下载使用。
秘密★启用前
自贡市普高2023届第一次诊断性考试
英语试题卷
本试卷共150分，考试时间为120分钟。答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证写在答题卡上，并在规定位置粘贴考试用条形码。答卷时，须将答案答在答题卡上，在题卷、草稿纸上答题无效。考试结束后，本试题卷由学生自己保留，只将答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例How much is the shirt？
A.₤19.15. B.₤9.18.C.₤9.15.
答案是C。
1.What does the man want the woman to do？
A.Help cut his hair. B.Pay for his haircut. C.Go to a barbershop
2.How much are the two seat tickets？
A.$35. B.$60. C.$70.
3.What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A.Mother and son. B.Teacher and student. C.Classmates.
4.Why is the woman upset
A.She doesn't art. B. She has to do many tasks. C.She doesn't like her teacher.
5. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A.Having activities. B.Joining a club. C.Taking a trip.
第二节（共15小题每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6.Where are the speakers now?
A.At a cinema. B.At school. C.In a palace.
7.What will the speakers do next?
A.Watch a movie. B.Visit a museum. C.Go back home.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What is the problem about the woman's living situation?
A.She dislikes the food there.
B.She dislikes the family members.
C.She has no chance to make friends.
9.What does the man advise the woman to do?
A.Move into a dormitory.
B.Have some meals by herself.
C.Spend more time on her program.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. Why does the man come to the hotel?
A.To check in.B.To do an interview.C.To make a complaint.
11.What will the woman do at 14:30?
A.Have lunch with managers.
B.Meet a group of entertainers.
C. Arrange photographs of the models.
12.How long does the tea and fashion show last?
A.15minutes. B.30minutes. C.90minutes.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13.How did the woman learn about the job?
A.From a sign in the window.
B.From a newspaper ad.
C.From a website.
14.Why does the woman want the job?
A.She likes to shop for herself.
B.She can help people shop.
C. She wants a challenge.
15.How does the woman feel about the job?
A.Confident. B.Nervous. C.Disappointed.
16. When will the interview start?
A.Next Wednesday. B.Next Thursday. C.This Thursday.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17.What happened to the woman?
A.Her car broke down. B.She lost her way. C.Her car key was missing.
18.What did the woman do before meeting the stranger?
A.She sat by the road. B.She stayed in her car. C.She made a phone call.
19.How did the stranger help the woman?
A.By calling for help. B.By driving her home. C. By accompanying her.
20.How did the woman thank the stranger ?
A. She offered him some money.
B. She expressed her thanks.
C. She treated him to dinner.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Few things offer a much-needed change of scenery like hitting the great outdoors—sharing the experience in a family tent can make it ever more special. Whether you're going away for a casual weekend or packing light for a hard hike, here are a few of the best family tents.
Tahoe Gear Ozark Tent
If you're looking for the best family tent to accommodate upwards of a dozen people, there are few better options than this three-season tent from Tahoe Gear. The interior boasts a height clearance of seven feet, consists of two separate rooms.
MSR Habituate Tent
The Habituate from MSR is one of the best family tents for packing light, weighing just over 13 pounds and packing down to an incredibly small 23x10x10 inches. Despite its unassuming weight, this lightweight family tent includes durable aluminum poles, guidelines, and storage bags.
Coleman Cabin Tent
Traveling with family often means juggling（尽力同时应付）a lot of responsibilities，and this easy-to-assemble cabin tent from Coleman can offload some of the efforts. This family tent features per-assembled（提前安装好的）*poles and an integrated rain fly， so the setup is as simple as unpacking, flexing the poles, and staking the tent into the ground.
White-duck Alpha Canvas Wall Tent
If you're traveling with family or a large group that wants the absolute most out of a camping experience, this canvas tent from White-duck will do. It boasts a generous 320 square feet of floor space. Wind and wet weather don't stand a chance against it, either. While this is certainly not a lightweight or portable tent by any means, its high-quality construction and durability make it a great investment.
21.Which one is the best choice for a family preferring light package?
A.Tahoe Gear Ozark Tent. B.MSR Habituate Tent.
C.Coleman Cabin Tent. D.White-duck Alpha Canvas Wall Tent.
22.What is special about White-duck Alpha Canvas Wall Tent?
A.It has two separate rooms. B.It is easy to set up.
C.It has portable storage bags. D.It is wind-resistant.
23. What is the purpose of this text?
A.To promote the sales of tents. B.To argue against risky trips.
C.To list safety rules on travelling. D.To offer advice on putting up a tent.
B
Ranked as one of the poorest states in America, Louisiana is often struck by coastal storms and hurricanes. The sky-high poverty and crime rates are destructive for residents—especially for young people. Despite the unfavorable situation,there is a spirit of survival and hope for people living in Baton Rouge.“We choose to live by joy and community more than look at horrible issues and challenges that sometimes feel too big for us to take on," said Dustin La Font, whose nonprofit, Front Yard Bikes, supports hundreds of students in Baton Rouge, Louisiana, every year as they pedal towards a brighter future.
At Front Yard Bikes, students work to build their own bicycle, learning skills like mechanics, welding and cycling safety, while receiving mentoring, academic support, and job training opportunities.
"We had to put a ton of energy and love into it,''La Font said."Students learned to saw, drill, measure, cut. They learned to paint, design, and plan. And they built their own program from scratch. Our mission is to create safe spaces that empower our kids to learn about their intrinsic worth as they learn, grow, and build.”
Many kids now gather after school in this safe place to ride, play, and help out in the garden. "Pretty much any kid can find a place here to belong,”La Font said.“For the fact that they built their park, there's ownership over it. They take care of their park.”
Front Yard Bikes serves nearly 400 young people a year. To date, 50 students have been certified in mechanics, and 2,000 kid:s have benefited from the program.
“People say to me, 'Thank you for keeping kid:s busy and out of the streets,""La Font said."I don't like that because it says kids are the problems to be solved. But they are our greatest resource for our community challenges; they are problem solvers, not trouble makers. My constant fight is trying to get people to see who our kids really are... and to see that they have something to offer right now.”
24.How do people in Baton Rouge feel about their life?
A.Desperate. B.Hopeful.
C.Over-stressed. D.Satisfied.
25.What do we learn about Front Yard Bikes from paragraph 4?
A.It is energy-consuming. B.It brings money for kids.
C.It builds a sense of competition. D.It frees kids from worries about school-life.
26. Why do kids find a sense of belonging in the garden?
A. They created the garden themselves.
B. They are well protected in the garden.
C. They find the garden similar to their home.
D. They receive good education in the garden.
27. What role do kids play in the community according to La Font?
A. They serve as part-time workers.
B.They bring about many problems.
C. They fall victim to violence and poverty.
D. They are helpful in the face of challenges.
C
Research has found that storing crucial pieces of information on an electronic device does not rot your memory.skills and can actually increase your ability to remember things you would otherwise forget. Storing important information or smartphones may free up our own memory to store a larger amount of less crucial information, allowing us to keep more in total across our internal and electronic memory banks.
Researchers took 158 participants aged between 18 and 71 and showed them up to 12 numbered circles on a screen. Some of the circles would briefly appear pink or blue before all fading to a yellow colour, indicating that they had to be dragged to either the pink side or the blue side of the screen at a later point.
Some of the circles were classed as“high value”, some as“low value”and some as zero value. Users had to remember which side of the screen to drag the circles to in order to earn points. In some of the experiments they had to rely on their own memories. In others, they could set an electronic reminder on a device.
Researchers found subjects tended to use digital devices to store information about which were the highest-value circles. This led to an 1896 increase in accuracy when placing these circles. They also found, to their surprise, using electronic reminders for high-value circles led to a 27% increase in accuracy when differentiating from memory between the low and zero-value circles, even when no electronic reminders had been set for these.
The study said that when people store important information on an external device, their brains tend to delete it from their“internal memory”， reallocating（ 再分配） that space for “low-value content”.
“The results show that external memory tools work. Far from causing digital dementia', using an external memory device can even improve our memory for information that we never saved. But we need to be careful that we back up the most important information. Otherwise, if a memory tool fails, we could be left with nothing but lower-importance information in our own memory.”
28. What do the underlined words "electronic memory banks”probably refer to?
A.People's brains. B.To-do lists.
C. Self-service banks. D.Cellphones.
29.How do volunteers earn points in the research?
A.By changing the color of the circles.
B.By moving the circles to the right side.
C.By remembering the number of the circles.
D.By classing the circles according to their values.
30. What will happen to important information after it is stored in digital devices?
A.It will be regarded as low-value content.
B.It will be removed from people's brains.
C.It will be grouped automatically based on importance.
D.It will be well-preserved despite the failure of digital devices.
31. What can be a suitable title for the text?
A.Information Age: Phones Are Everywhere
B.Promising Future: Phones Shape the World
C.Note to Self: Phones Don't Rot Memory
D.Controversial Issue: Phones Act as a Double-edged Sword
D
Climate change has increased average temperatures by I degree Celsius over the past century, making heat waves like this one more frequent and intense than those from any other point in recorded history. As the heat soars, so does the death toll. A worldwide study published last month in the journal Nature Climate Change found global warming was responsible for 37% of heat-related deaths between 1991 and 2018.As temperatures tick ever higher, that figure may well rise.
"There's still a lot we don't know about heatstroke and who's most likely to be affected by it,”Kenney said.“That's because we can't morally study it in humans in the laboratory. A lot of what we know comes from studies on animal models, like mice and rats, or from examinations of people who have died of heat stroke.”
We are also learning more,about how to avoid overheating. A 2019 study by University of Sydney researcher Ollie Jay found that electric fans cooled body temperatures and reduced cardiovascular（心血管的）strain in hot，humid weather. But in dry heat， fans actually increase body temperature—meaning access to air conditioning is crucial.
But the most likely assurance against dying of extreme heat is preventing the rise of global >temperatures. Last year tied 2016 for the hottest ever recorded worldwide. Despite a brief drop in planet-heating emissions as the COVID-19 pandemic shuttered factories and idled cars, we're on track to see global temperatures increase this century by about 3 degrees Celsius. Changing that trend requires rapidly and greatly reducing fossil fuel use and finding ways to remove more carbon from the atmosphere than we release. Efforts so far have not been enough. Global oil demand, the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries predicted last month, will jump by 5 million barrels per day in the second half of 2022 compared with the first six months.
32. What can we know about temperature rise from paragraph I?
A. It didn't happen until the 21st century.
B. It is brought about by the progress of history.
C.It will lead to more deaths if it isn't stopped.
D.It contributes to 37% of deaths between 1991.and 2018.
33.Why does some knowledge about heat stroke remain unknown to humans?
A.Humans are too complex to study.
B.Animal models are hard to deal with.
C.Heat stroke happens to humans randomly.
D. Using humans as subjects for lab experiments is immoral.
34. How to stop the rise of global temperatures?
A.By banning fossil fuel use.
B.By using more air conditioners.
C.By reducing carbon in the atmosphere.
D.By containing the COVID-19 pandemic.
35.What does the writer think of the current efforts in handling climate change?
A.Fruitless. B.Improper. C.Inadequate. D.Unexpected.
第二节（共5小题每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
You're out on a hike, snacking on an apple,a banana, or a handful of nuts. When you're finished, all that's left is a core, a peel, perhaps a shell.“It's natural,”you tell yourself, throwing it away carelessly. After all， food waste is biodegradable（可生物降解的）.__36__It could take years to biodegrade, endanger animals, or even put other people at risk.
Food waste doesn't decompose as fast as you think
__37__.But fewer people are aware that food waste like orange and banana peels can take up to two years to break down in the wild. And even if those food waste finally biodegrade, they can lead to many serious problems.
Animals are attracted to food waste
“Animals have a super advanced sense of smell compared to us,”says Jeff Marion, a biologist. All human food can attract animals. This can cause“attraction behavior”, which refers to human actions that cause animals to overcome their natural caution of people. __38__
Human food can make animals sick
Animals becoming attracted to and subsequently used to human food can lead to far-reaching health issues in animals. Food waste by the roadside may cause animals deaths because wildlife attracted to that food can be hit by a vehicle. __39__.Most food waste is never animals’ normal diet, which can be deadly.
__40__
To prevent any of these unwelcome effects, the best thing to do is to store and deal with food waste well. Don't throw it about. Don't burn it,as it is more difficult to burn. And if you pass other food waste on the trail or in the park, pick it up, even if it's not yours.
A.Most people know food waste is biodegradable
B.Play your part by keeping your food to yourself
C.Make sure you won't throw food waste randomly
D. The food itself can also make animals sick and even kill them
E. Animals can't get to know the harm that human food contains
F. This sort of attraction behavior can quickly become dangerous
G. But food waste can cause a lot more damage than you may think
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节（共20小题每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C、和 D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Ten minutes to go and I could close up the shop. There were still a few __41__who couldn't decide what to buy， who__42__this perfume and then that one. I had a fake（假的）smile__43__on my face as I waited for them to make up their minds. They__44__without buying anything.It was ten minutes past 5:00.They had__45__my time.
Sometimes I wondered if this was really what__46__was about. __47__ from 8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.,I caught just a glimpse of the sunrise on my way to work. Going home after a day's work isn't much__48__.At home, a family was waiting for my__49__ While preparing dinner, I did the washing. After dinner, I washed the dishes.
Both my body and soul were__50__.I can't go on like this. It's my own__51__that I don't make time for myself. Even on weekends, I get up early to clean the house __52__ , while the family sleeps in. I needed__53__ time for myself, time to recharge my batteries. I was determined to make a__54__.
A family meeting was the first step, during which everyone came up with ideas for how they could help me __55__my goal to have at least one hour per day. Finally, we agreed on taking turns to cook, do the laundry and __56__after dinner. Now, the plan is working__57__.I am impressed by how__58__my family is to make life easier for me. Now, I don't mind if customers.are lingering（逗留）when it's time to__59__the door. My smile is no longer fake.I have lost that__60__bit of weight that was bothering me.
41.A.customers B.cashiers C.friends D.strangers
42.A.chose B.tested C.delivered D.returned
43.A.painted B.glued C.deserted D.lifted
44.A.turned around B.worked out C.looked around D.walked out
45.A.interrupted B.remembered C.wasted D.appreciated
46.A.experience B.shopping C.family D.life
47.A.Travelling B.Working C.Complaining D.Dragging
48.A.confusion B.encouragement C.relief D.sympathy
49.A.care B.opinion C.anxiety D.exchange
50.A.preferred B.frightened C.tired D.opposed
51.A.blessing B.pity C.fault D.strategy
52.A.secretly B.normally C.naturally D.properly
53.A.serious B.useful C.legal D.average
54.A.plan B.choice C.story D.change
55.A.understand B.achieve C.discover D.set
56.A.put up B.wake up C.clean up D.show up
57.A.perfectly B.casually C.slightly D.deliberately
58.A.willing B.hesitant C.grateful D.cautious
59.A.repair B.lock C.replace D.strike
60.A.obvious B.wrong C.temporary D.extra
第二节（共10小题每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
As the curtain on the stage falls slowly,Lincoln Center bursts into__61__(thunder)applause. Chinese ballet dancer Chun Wai Chan once again impresses the audience from all over the world __62__his perfect performance in George Balanchine's The Nutcracker.
Born in Huizhou City in 1992,Chan has become__63__(attach) to dance since childhood. However, his parents preferred him to be a doctor or a lawyer in the future. The uncompromising boy then wrote a seven-page letter to his parents describing his__ 64 __(determine)to study dance. Thanks to the sincere letter, Chan__65__(eventual) gained the support of his family, and at 12, he was admitted to Guangzhou Arts School,__66__(mark)the start of his dream-seeking journey.
To get more people __67 __(know) and love ballet, he often shares ballet teaching videos on social media,__68__provides ballet enthusiasts with a free chance to learn ballet. For every role he plays, he integrates Chinese culture and his understanding of life into his body language.
Chan__69__(try) hard to promote the Chinese culture on __70 __western ballet stage now. Liang Zhu(Butterfly Lovers), a ballet adaptation of an ancient Chinese legend choreographed by him, will be performed at Lincoln Center in New York soon.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 短文改错（共10小题每小题1分，满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加在缺词处加一个漏字符号（Λ），并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。
修改在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意
1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词
2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。
My mom is a middle-aged woman, who really Fays great attentions to health. She often asks
me to eat food which is rich on protein, vitamin, fiber and other nutrients, but I just eat that I like.
One day,I felt too dizzy that I was sent to the hospital to checked. The doctor told me I was nothing seriously and advised me to take more exercise as well as having a balanced diet in the
future. Now I am concerning about my health.Also I make an exercise plan. I ate healthy food
my mom cooks it for me every day. I don't feel dizzy anymore.
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
假定你是李华，你的外教约翰对上周末你们为社区留守儿童所做的志愿者活动很感兴趣。请写封邮件介绍此次活动，内容包括∶
1.活动目的
2.活动内容
3.个人感受。
注意
1.词数100左右
2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。参考词汇∶留守儿童 left-behind children
Dear John,
Yours,
Li Hua
秘密★启用前
自贡市普高2023届第一次诊断性考试
英语参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
1-5 ACCBB 6-10 CBCAB 11-15BCABA 16-20C AACB
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
21-23 BDA 24-27 BAAD 28-31 DBBC 32-35 CDCC
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
36-40 GAFDB
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
41-45ABBDC 46-50 DBCAC 51-55 CDADB 56-60 CAABD
第二节（共10小题；每小题15分，满分15分）
61.thunderous 62.with 63.attached 64.determination 65.eventually
66.marking 67.to know 68.which 69.is trying 70.the
评分标准:61-70小题，每小题1.5分，有任何错误，包括用词错误、单词拼写错误（含大小写）或语法形式错误，均不给分。
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
My mom is a middle-aged woman, who really pays great attentions to health. She often asks
attention
me to eat food which is rich on protein, vitamin,fiber and other nutrients, but I just eat that Hike.
in what
One day, I felt too dizzy that I was sent too the hospital to A checked The doctor told me I was
so
nothing seriously and advised me to take more exercise as well as having a balanced diet in the
serious have
future.Now I am concerning about my health.Also I make an exercise plan.I ate healthy food
concerned eat
my mom cooks for me every day. I don't feel dizzy anymore.
评分标准∶有任何错误，包括用词、单词拼写（含大小写）或语法形式，均不给分。
第二节 书面表达 满分25分）
评分原则
1.本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 词数少于80和多于120的，从总分中减去2分。
4.评分时应注意的主要内容为∶内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6.如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
二、内容要点∶
1.写信缘由；2.活动目的；3.活动内容4.个人感受。
三、要点认定
1. 考生必须有较完整的句子表达出要点。如只有关键词而无主谓结构，不可视为要点写出。
2. 围绕要点的发挥，如有语言错误，则扣语言分。
四、扣分参考依据∶
1.表达未能达成正确句意的；不给分、如∶写出了主语或谓语等关键词，但未能达成符合要点要求 意义正确的句子
2.向子结构完整、但关键点出现错误或漏掉部分关键词，扣半个要点分，如∶主谓一致错误，或关键词拼写错误。如主语、关键性名词等），或谓语动词时态或语态错误等；
3.凡使用铅笔答题、或答题中使用了涂改液或不干胶条，一律不给分；
4. 应多次出现非关键性单词拼写错误或其它同类错误，原则上每4处扣1分；
5. 文章内容要点全面，但写出了一些多余内容（连接或过渡词句不在此列），原则上不扣分；
6. 书写潦草凌乱，但基本不影响阅卷的，酌情扣卷面分1-2分
五、One possible version∶
Dear John,
Learning that you show great interest in the volunteer activity we had last Sunday,I'm more than delighted to give you a brief introduction.
The activity,scheduled from 8:30 to 11:30,was aimed at expressing our love and care to the left-behind children in the community. On arriving, we gave away some gifts such as toys, school supplies to them. Then we shared some inspirational stories to encourage them. Finally, a party was held, where we sang and danced together. All of us enjoyed a good time.
What we did has not only enriched our spare time, but made us realize we should love and care more for those in need to make our life more meaningful.
Yours,
Li Hua
秘密★启用前
自贡市普高2023届第一次诊断性考试
英语试题卷
本试卷共150分，考试时间为120分钟。答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证写在答题卡上，并在规定位置粘贴考试用条形码。答卷时，须将答案答在答题卡上，在题卷、草稿纸上答题无效。考试结束后，本试题卷由学生自己保留，只将答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例How much is the shirt？
A.₤19.15. B.₤9.18.C.₤9.15.
答案是C。
1.What does the man want the woman to do？
A.Help cut his hair. B.Pay for his haircut. C.Go to a barbershop
2.How much are the two seat tickets？
A.$35. B.$60. C.$70.
3.What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A.Mother and son. B.Teacher and student. C.Classmates.
4.Why is the woman upset
A.She doesn't art. B. She has to do many tasks. C.She doesn't like her teacher.
5. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A.Having activities. B.Joining a club. C.Taking a trip.
第二节（共15小题每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6.Where are the speakers now?
A.At a cinema. B.At school. C.In a palace.
7.What will the speakers do next?
A.Watch a movie. B.Visit a museum. C.Go back home.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What is the problem about the woman's living situation?
A.She dislikes the food there.
B.She dislikes the family members.
C.She has no chance to make friends.
9.What does the man advise the woman to do?
A.Move into a dormitory.
B.Have some meals by herself.
C.Spend more time on her program.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. Why does the man come to the hotel?
A.To check in.B.To do an interview.C.To make a complaint.
11.What will the woman do at 14:30?
A.Have lunch with managers.
B.Meet a group of entertainers.
C. Arrange photographs of the models.
12.How long does the tea and fashion show last?
A.15minutes. B.30minutes. C.90minutes.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13.How did the woman learn about the job?
A.From a sign in the window.
B.From a newspaper ad.
C.From a website.
14.Why does the woman want the job?
A.She likes to shop for herself.
B.She can help people shop.
C. She wants a challenge.
15.How does the woman feel about the job?
A.Confident. B.Nervous. C.Disappointed.
16. When will the interview start?
A.Next Wednesday. B.Next Thursday. C.This Thursday.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17.What happened to the woman?
A.Her car broke down. B.She lost her way. C.Her car key was missing.
18.What did the woman do before meeting the stranger?
A.She sat by the road. B.She stayed in her car. C.She made a phone call.
19.How did the stranger help the woman?
A.By calling for help. B.By driving her home. C. By accompanying her.
20.How did the woman thank the stranger ?
A. She offered him some money.
B. She expressed her thanks.
C. She treated him to dinner.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Few things offer a much-needed change of scenery like hitting the great outdoors—sharing the experience in a family tent can make it ever more special. Whether you're going away for a casual weekend or packing light for a hard hike, here are a few of the best family tents.
Tahoe Gear Ozark Tent
If you're looking for the best family tent to accommodate upwards of a dozen people, there are few better options than this three-season tent from Tahoe Gear. The interior boasts a height clearance of seven feet, consists of two separate rooms.
MSR Habituate Tent
The Habituate from MSR is one of the best family tents for packing light, weighing just over 13 pounds and packing down to an incredibly small 23x10x10 inches. Despite its unassuming weight, this lightweight family tent includes durable aluminum poles, guidelines, and storage bags.
Coleman Cabin Tent
Traveling with family often means juggling（尽力同时应付）a lot of responsibilities，and this easy-to-assemble cabin tent from Coleman can offload some of the efforts. This family tent features per-assembled（提前安装好的）*poles and an integrated rain fly， so the setup is as simple as unpacking, flexing the poles, and staking the tent into the ground.
White-duck Alpha Canvas Wall Tent
If you're traveling with family or a large group that wants the absolute most out of a camping experience, this canvas tent from White-duck will do. It boasts a generous 320 square feet of floor space. Wind and wet weather don't stand a chance against it, either. While this is certainly not a lightweight or portable tent by any means, its high-quality construction and durability make it a great investment.
21.Which one is the best choice for a family preferring light package?
A.Tahoe Gear Ozark Tent. B.MSR Habituate Tent.
C.Coleman Cabin Tent. D.White-duck Alpha Canvas Wall Tent.
22.What is special about White-duck Alpha Canvas Wall Tent?
A.It has two separate rooms. B.It is easy to set up.
C.It has portable storage bags. D.It is wind-resistant.
23. What is the purpose of this text?
A.To promote the sales of tents. B.To argue against risky trips.
C.To list safety rules on travelling. D.To offer advice on putting up a tent.
B
Ranked as one of the poorest states in America, Louisiana is often struck by coastal storms and hurricanes. The sky-high poverty and crime rates are destructive for residents—especially for young people. Despite the unfavorable situation,there is a spirit of survival and hope for people living in Baton Rouge.“We choose to live by joy and community more than look at horrible issues and challenges that sometimes feel too big for us to take on," said Dustin La Font, whose nonprofit, Front Yard Bikes, supports hundreds of students in Baton Rouge, Louisiana, every year as they pedal towards a brighter future.
At Front Yard Bikes, students work to build their own bicycle, learning skills like mechanics, welding and cycling safety, while receiving mentoring, academic support, and job training opportunities.
"We had to put a ton of energy and love into it,''La Font said."Students learned to saw, drill, measure, cut. They learned to paint, design, and plan. And they built their own program from scratch. Our mission is to create safe spaces that empower our kids to learn about their intrinsic worth as they learn, grow, and build.”
Many kids now gather after school in this safe place to ride, play, and help out in the garden. "Pretty much any kid can find a place here to belong,”La Font said.“For the fact that they built their park, there's ownership over it. They take care of their park.”
Front Yard Bikes serves nearly 400 young people a year. To date, 50 students have been certified in mechanics, and 2,000 kid:s have benefited from the program.
“People say to me, 'Thank you for keeping kid:s busy and out of the streets,""La Font said."I don't like that because it says kids are the problems to be solved. But they are our greatest resource for our community challenges; they are problem solvers, not trouble makers. My constant fight is trying to get people to see who our kids really are... and to see that they have something to offer right now.”
24.How do people in Baton Rouge feel about their life?
A.Desperate. B.Hopeful.
C.Over-stressed. D.Satisfied.
25.What do we learn about Front Yard Bikes from paragraph 4?
A.It is energy-consuming. B.It brings money for kids.
C.It builds a sense of competition. D.It frees kids from worries about school-life.
26. Why do kids find a sense of belonging in the garden?
A. They created the garden themselves.
B. They are well protected in the garden.
C. They find the garden similar to their home.
D. They receive good education in the garden.
27. What role do kids play in the community according to La Font?
A. They serve as part-time workers.
B.They bring about many problems.
C. They fall victim to violence and poverty.
D. They are helpful in the face of challenges.
C
Research has found that storing crucial pieces of information on an electronic device does not rot your memory.skills and can actually increase your ability to remember things you would otherwise forget. Storing important information or smartphones may free up our own memory to store a larger amount of less crucial information, allowing us to keep more in total across our internal and electronic memory banks.
Researchers took 158 participants aged between 18 and 71 and showed them up to 12 numbered circles on a screen. Some of the circles would briefly appear pink or blue before all fading to a yellow colour, indicating that they had to be dragged to either the pink side or the blue side of the screen at a later point.
Some of the circles were classed as“high value”, some as“low value”and some as zero value. Users had to remember which side of the screen to drag the circles to in order to earn points. In some of the experiments they had to rely on their own memories. In others, they could set an electronic reminder on a device.
Researchers found subjects tended to use digital devices to store information about which were the highest-value circles. This led to an 1896 increase in accuracy when placing these circles. They also found, to their surprise, using electronic reminders for high-value circles led to a 27% increase in accuracy when differentiating from memory between the low and zero-value circles, even when no electronic reminders had been set for these.
The study said that when people store important information on an external device, their brains tend to delete it from their“internal memory”， reallocating（ 再分配） that space for “low-value content”.
“The results show that external memory tools work. Far from causing digital dementia', using an external memory device can even improve our memory for information that we never saved. But we need to be careful that we back up the most important information. Otherwise, if a memory tool fails, we could be left with nothing but lower-importance information in our own memory.”
28. What do the underlined words "electronic memory banks”probably refer to?
A.People's brains. B.To-do lists.
C. Self-service banks. D.Cellphones.
29.How do volunteers earn points in the research?
A.By changing the color of the circles.
B.By moving the circles to the right side.
C.By remembering the number of the circles.
D.By classing the circles according to their values.
30. What will happen to important information after it is stored in digital devices?
A.It will be regarded as low-value content.
B.It will be removed from people's brains.
C.It will be grouped automatically based on importance.
D.It will be well-preserved despite the failure of digital devices.
31. What can be a suitable title for the text?
A.Information Age: Phones Are Everywhere
B.Promising Future: Phones Shape the World
C.Note to Self: Phones Don't Rot Memory
D.Controversial Issue: Phones Act as a Double-edged Sword
D
Climate change has increased average temperatures by I degree Celsius over the past century, making heat waves like this one more frequent and intense than those from any other point in recorded history. As the heat soars, so does the death toll. A worldwide study published last month in the journal Nature Climate Change found global warming was responsible for 37% of heat-related deaths between 1991 and 2018.As temperatures tick ever higher, that figure may well rise.
"There's still a lot we don't know about heatstroke and who's most likely to be affected by it,”Kenney said.“That's because we can't morally study it in humans in the laboratory. A lot of what we know comes from studies on animal models, like mice and rats, or from examinations of people who have died of heat stroke.”
We are also learning more,about how to avoid overheating. A 2019 study by University of Sydney researcher Ollie Jay found that electric fans cooled body temperatures and reduced cardiovascular（心血管的）strain in hot，humid weather. But in dry heat， fans actually increase body temperature—meaning access to air conditioning is crucial.
But the most likely assurance against dying of extreme heat is preventing the rise of global >temperatures. Last year tied 2016 for the hottest ever recorded worldwide. Despite a brief drop in planet-heating emissions as the COVID-19 pandemic shuttered factories and idled cars, we're on track to see global temperatures increase this century by about 3 degrees Celsius. Changing that trend requires rapidly and greatly reducing fossil fuel use and finding ways to remove more carbon from the atmosphere than we release. Efforts so far have not been enough. Global oil demand, the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries predicted last month, will jump by 5 million barrels per day in the second half of 2022 compared with the first six months.
32. What can we know about temperature rise from paragraph I?
A. It didn't happen until the 21st century.
B. It is brought about by the progress of history.
C.It will lead to more deaths if it isn't stopped.
D.It contributes to 37% of deaths between 1991.and 2018.
33.Why does some knowledge about heat stroke remain unknown to humans?
A.Humans are too complex to study.
B.Animal models are hard to deal with.
C.Heat stroke happens to humans randomly.
D. Using humans as subjects for lab experiments is immoral.
34. How to stop the rise of global temperatures?
A.By banning fossil fuel use.
B.By using more air conditioners.
C.By reducing carbon in the atmosphere.
D.By containing the COVID-19 pandemic.
35.What does the writer think of the current efforts in handling climate change?
A.Fruitless. B.Improper. C.Inadequate. D.Unexpected.
第二节（共5小题每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
You're out on a hike, snacking on an apple,a banana, or a handful of nuts. When you're finished, all that's left is a core, a peel, perhaps a shell.“It's natural,”you tell yourself, throwing it away carelessly. After all， food waste is biodegradable（可生物降解的）.__36__It could take years to biodegrade, endanger animals, or even put other people at risk.
Food waste doesn't decompose as fast as you think
__37__.But fewer people are aware that food waste like orange and banana peels can take up to two years to break down in the wild. And even if those food waste finally biodegrade, they can lead to many serious problems.
Animals are attracted to food waste
“Animals have a super advanced sense of smell compared to us,”says Jeff Marion, a biologist. All human food can attract animals. This can cause“attraction behavior”, which refers to human actions that cause animals to overcome their natural caution of people. __38__
Human food can make animals sick
Animals becoming attracted to and subsequently used to human food can lead to far-reaching health issues in animals. Food waste by the roadside may cause animals deaths because wildlife attracted to that food can be hit by a vehicle. __39__.Most food waste is never animals’ normal diet, which can be deadly.
__40__
To prevent any of these unwelcome effects, the best thing to do is to store and deal with food waste well. Don't throw it about. Don't burn it,as it is more difficult to burn. And if you pass other food waste on the trail or in the park, pick it up, even if it's not yours.
A.Most people know food waste is biodegradable
B.Play your part by keeping your food to yourself
C.Make sure you won't throw food waste randomly
D. The food itself can also make animals sick and even kill them
E. Animals can't get to know the harm that human food contains
F. This sort of attraction behavior can quickly become dangerous
G. But food waste can cause a lot more damage than you may think
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节（共20小题每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C、和 D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Ten minutes to go and I could close up the shop. There were still a few __41__who couldn't decide what to buy， who__42__this perfume and then that one. I had a fake（假的）smile__43__on my face as I waited for them to make up their minds. They__44__without buying anything.It was ten minutes past 5:00.They had__45__my time.
Sometimes I wondered if this was really what__46__was about. __47__ from 8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.,I caught just a glimpse of the sunrise on my way to work. Going home after a day's work isn't much__48__.At home, a family was waiting for my__49__ While preparing dinner, I did the washing. After dinner, I washed the dishes.
Both my body and soul were__50__.I can't go on like this. It's my own__51__that I don't make time for myself. Even on weekends, I get up early to clean the house __52__ , while the family sleeps in. I needed__53__ time for myself, time to recharge my batteries. I was determined to make a__54__.
A family meeting was the first step, during which everyone came up with ideas for how they could help me __55__my goal to have at least one hour per day. Finally, we agreed on taking turns to cook, do the laundry and __56__after dinner. Now, the plan is working__57__.I am impressed by how__58__my family is to make life easier for me. Now, I don't mind if customers.are lingering（逗留）when it's time to__59__the door. My smile is no longer fake.I have lost that__60__bit of weight that was bothering me.
41.A.customers B.cashiers C.friends D.strangers
42.A.chose B.tested C.delivered D.returned
43.A.painted B.glued C.deserted D.lifted
44.A.turned around B.worked out C.looked around D.walked out
45.A.interrupted B.remembered C.wasted D.appreciated
46.A.experience B.shopping C.family D.life
47.A.Travelling B.Working C.Complaining D.Dragging
48.A.confusion B.encouragement C.relief D.sympathy
49.A.care B.opinion C.anxiety D.exchange
50.A.preferred B.frightened C.tired D.opposed
51.A.blessing B.pity C.fault D.strategy
52.A.secretly B.normally C.naturally D.properly
53.A.serious B.useful C.legal D.average
54.A.plan B.choice C.story D.change
55.A.understand B.achieve C.discover D.set
56.A.put up B.wake up C.clean up D.show up
57.A.perfectly B.casually C.slightly D.deliberately
58.A.willing B.hesitant C.grateful D.cautious
59.A.repair B.lock C.replace D.strike
60.A.obvious B.wrong C.temporary D.extra
第二节（共10小题每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
As the curtain on the stage falls slowly,Lincoln Center bursts into__61__(thunder)applause. Chinese ballet dancer Chun Wai Chan once again impresses the audience from all over the world __62__his perfect performance in George Balanchine's The Nutcracker.
Born in Huizhou City in 1992,Chan has become__63__(attach) to dance since childhood. However, his parents preferred him to be a doctor or a lawyer in the future. The uncompromising boy then wrote a seven-page letter to his parents describing his__ 64 __(determine)to study dance. Thanks to the sincere letter, Chan__65__(eventual) gained the support of his family, and at 12, he was admitted to Guangzhou Arts School,__66__(mark)the start of his dream-seeking journey.
To get more people __67 __(know) and love ballet, he often shares ballet teaching videos on social media,__68__provides ballet enthusiasts with a free chance to learn ballet. For every role he plays, he integrates Chinese culture and his understanding of life into his body language.
Chan__69__(try) hard to promote the Chinese culture on __70 __western ballet stage now. Liang Zhu(Butterfly Lovers), a ballet adaptation of an ancient Chinese legend choreographed by him, will be performed at Lincoln Center in New York soon.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 短文改错（共10小题每小题1分，满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加在缺词处加一个漏字符号（Λ），并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。
修改在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意
1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词
2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。
My mom is a middle-aged woman, who really Fays great attentions to health. She often asks
me to eat food which is rich on protein, vitamin, fiber and other nutrients, but I just eat that I like.
One day,I felt too dizzy that I was sent to the hospital to checked. The doctor told me I was nothing seriously and advised me to take more exercise as well as having a balanced diet in the
future. Now I am concerning about my health.Also I make an exercise plan. I ate healthy food
my mom cooks it for me every day. I don't feel dizzy anymore.
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
假定你是李华，你的外教约翰对上周末你们为社区留守儿童所做的志愿者活动很感兴趣。请写封邮件介绍此次活动，内容包括∶
1.活动目的
2.活动内容
3.个人感受。
注意
1.词数100左右
2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。参考词汇∶留守儿童 left-behind children
Dear John,
Yours,
Li Hua
秘密★启用前
自贡市普高2023届第一次诊断性考试
英语参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
1-5 ACCBB 6-10 CBCAB 11-15BCABA 16-20C AACB
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
21-23 BDA 24-27 BAAD 28-31 DBBC 32-35 CDCC
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
36-40 GAFDB
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
41-45ABBDC 46-50 DBCAC 51-55 CDADB 56-60 CAABD
第二节（共10小题；每小题15分，满分15分）
61.thunderous 62.with 63.attached 64.determination 65.eventually
66.marking 67.to know 68.which 69.is trying 70.the
评分标准:61-70小题，每小题1.5分，有任何错误，包括用词错误、单词拼写错误（含大小写）或语法形式错误，均不给分。
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
My mom is a middle-aged woman, who really pays great attentions to health. She often asks
attention
me to eat food which is rich on protein, vitamin,fiber and other nutrients, but I just eat that Hike.
in what
One day, I felt too dizzy that I was sent too the hospital to A checked The doctor told me I was
so
nothing seriously and advised me to take more exercise as well as having a balanced diet in the
serious have
future.Now I am concerning about my health.Also I make an exercise plan.I ate healthy food
concerned eat
my mom cooks for me every day. I don't feel dizzy anymore.
评分标准∶有任何错误，包括用词、单词拼写（含大小写）或语法形式，均不给分。
第二节 书面表达 满分25分）
评分原则
1.本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 词数少于80和多于120的，从总分中减去2分。
4.评分时应注意的主要内容为∶内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6.如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
二、内容要点∶
1.写信缘由；2.活动目的；3.活动内容4.个人感受。
三、要点认定
1. 考生必须有较完整的句子表达出要点。如只有关键词而无主谓结构，不可视为要点写出。
2. 围绕要点的发挥，如有语言错误，则扣语言分。
四、扣分参考依据∶
1.表达未能达成正确句意的；不给分、如∶写出了主语或谓语等关键词，但未能达成符合要点要求 意义正确的句子
2.向子结构完整、但关键点出现错误或漏掉部分关键词，扣半个要点分，如∶主谓一致错误，或关键词拼写错误。如主语、关键性名词等），或谓语动词时态或语态错误等；
3.凡使用铅笔答题、或答题中使用了涂改液或不干胶条，一律不给分；
4. 应多次出现非关键性单词拼写错误或其它同类错误，原则上每4处扣1分；
5. 文章内容要点全面，但写出了一些多余内容（连接或过渡词句不在此列），原则上不扣分；
6. 书写潦草凌乱，但基本不影响阅卷的，酌情扣卷面分1-2分
五、One possible version∶
Dear John,
Learning that you show great interest in the volunteer activity we had last Sunday,I'm more than delighted to give you a brief introduction.
The activity,scheduled from 8:30 to 11:30,was aimed at expressing our love and care to the left-behind children in the community. On arriving, we gave away some gifts such as toys, school supplies to them. Then we shared some inspirational stories to encourage them. Finally, a party was held, where we sang and danced together. All of us enjoyed a good time.
What we did has not only enriched our spare time, but made us realize we should love and care more for those in need to make our life more meaningful.
Yours,
Li Hua
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