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2021年安徽省芜湖市市区九年级毕业暨升学模拟考试（二）英语试题（含答案）
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这是一份2021年安徽省芜湖市市区九年级毕业暨升学模拟考试（二）英语试题（含答案），共12页。试卷主要包含了 B等内容，欢迎下载使用。
2021年九年级毕业暨升学模拟考试（二）
英语试卷
（满分120分，120分钟）
（答案写在答题卷上）
第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分）
I．短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. How do they go to the railway station?
A. B. C.
2. Which festival is the conversation about?
A. B. C.
3. What’s the probably relationship between the two speakers?
A. Husband and wife. B. Teacher and student. C. Salesman and customer.
4. How much did Justin pay for the T-shirt?
A. $ 10. B. $ 20. C. $ 40.
5. Where will Timmy be this weekend?
A. In Ben’s school. B. In the cinema. C. At home.
II. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至7小题。
6. Who is the woman talking to?
A. A hotel worker B. A manager. C. A policeman.
7. Where does the conversation most probably take place?
A. In the manager’s office. B. In the room of the guest. C. At the police station.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题
8. Who didn’t watch TV yesterday?
A. Linda B. Linda’s husband C. Linda’s son
9. What TV program was there on Channel 3 at half past six?
A. A soccer match B. An action movie C. A wonderful concert
10. What will Linda buy next week?
A. A soccer B. A mobile phone C. A TV set
III．短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. What does the speaker like best?
A. Dance music B. Pop music C. Rock music
12. Who is Li Yan?
A. The speaker’s sister B. The speaker’s deskmate C. The speaker’s friend
13. What kind of music does Kate like?
A. Music that she writes. B. Music that is exciting. C. Music that she can dance to.
14. What does the speaker’s mother think of pop music?
A. Boring B. Exciting C. Relaxing
15. Who likes country music?
A. The speaker’s father. B. The speaker’s mother. C. The speaker’s brother.
IV．信息转换（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
A two-day trip to Mount Huang
Starting time
At 7:00 a.m on 16 18th.
Returning
At about 5 p.m. the following day
The number of people taking the trip
About 17
Things to take
Good walking 18
A 19 and a warm jacket
Some plastic 20
第二部分 英语知识运用（共两大题，满分30分）
V．单项填空 (共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. --This problem is far _______ me. I'm afraid I can't work it out.
--Don't worry, we will help you.
A. beyond B. beside C. behind D. between
22. -- Mr. Smith, would you please speak a little more _______?
-- Sorry! I thought you would follow me.
A. politely B. slowly C. seriously D. quickly
23. -- The question was very easy, wasn’t it?
-- Yes, but I don’t think _______ would work it out.
A. somebody B. anybody C. everybody D. nobody
24. --Will you go to the park tomorrow? ---If you don’t, _______.
A. so do I B. so will I C. neither do I D. neither shall I
25. - I’d like to make a good plan but it is too difficult for me.
-- If you set your mind on it, you should find a way to ________ it.
A. achieve B. choose C. suppose D. remember
26.You don’t know _______ I want to see you again. It’s years since I last saw you.
A. how soon B. how long C. how often D. how much
27. I know a little about Singapore, as I _______ there years ago.
A. have been B. am going C. will go D. went
28. --How do you like the dishwasher you bought last week?
--_______. Life has become much easier now.
A. It couldn’t be better B. Nobody can do a worse job
C. I must complain about it D. It’s out of control
29. --Let's go to the museum this weekend.
--Good idea! We can discover basic ________ about history there.
A. stories B.ideas C. facts D. names
30. If the weather _______ to be rainy, we may have to cancel the sports meeting.
A. runs out B. turns out C. finds out D. breaks out
VI．完形填空 (共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分)
阅读下列短文, 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
“Survival Holidays” is popular with children now. It is for children to go into the 31 place for exciting activities. People like “Survival Holidays” 32 they think being close to nature is good for children.
Many children in big cities spend most of the time 33 and playing computer games at home. It can give them an important change. Children need 34 free time to play outside. They need to be left on their own, 35 adults disturbing（打扰）them. Many children don’t know what to do when they are 36 . Even something like crossing a small river seems to be a hard 37 .
Survival Holidays helps children learn a lot. Some have learned how to keep 38 . Some have learned to 39 calm in different times. 40 have learned how to work in a team. All these skills will help them a lot in their lives.
31. A. modern B. lonely C. busy D. dirty
32. A. but B. so C. because D. and
33. A. playing sports B. watching TV C. going swimming D. going shopping
34. A. more B. all C. no D. less
35. A. by B. with C. for D. without
36. A. in danger B. in a hurry C. in surprise D. in control
37. A. choice B. change C. challenge D. chance
38. A. silent B. safe C. shy D. strange
39. A. enjoy B. help C. stay D. make
40. A. Other B. Another C. The other D. Others
B
Life in the 22nd century will be different from life in the 21th century, because many changes will take place in the new century. But what will the changes be?
The population is 41 fast. There will be more and more people in the world and most of them will live 42 than before. 43 will be much smaller and more useful, and there will be at least one in every home. And computer studies will be one of the important subjects at 44 .
People will work fewer hours than they did in the 21th century, and they will have more free time for sports, 45 TV and traveling. Traveling will be more 46 . And many more people will go to other countries for holidays.
More land will be used for building new towns and houses. Then there will be less room for cows and sheep, so 47 will be more expensive. Maybe no one will eat it every day. 48 they eat more vegetables and fruit. Maybe people will be healthier.
Work in the future will be 49 , too. Dangerous and hard work will be done by robots. 50 of this, many people will not have enough work to do. This will be a problem.
41. A. making B. growing C. running D. doing
42. A. 1onger B. shorter C. faster D. taller
43. A. Trains B. Cars C. Computers D. Houses
44. A. factory B. hospital C. farm D. school
45. A. watching B. seeing C. 1ooking D. buying
46. A. interesting B. convenient C. expensive D. difficult
47. A. fruit B. milk C. meat D. bread
48. A. Instead B. Sometimes C. Still D. However
49. A. dangerous B. difficult C. heavy D. different
50. A. One B. Some C. Because D. All
第三部分 阅读理解（共两大题，满分45分）
VII．补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。
A：Excuse me, sir?
B：Yes ? 51
A：I want to go to the train station, but I don't know how to get the ticket from the
TVM(自动售票机).
B： 52 Well, just press here.
A：How much is the ticket?
B： 53
A：All right. By the way, how often do the trains come?
A. This way, please.
B. What can I do for you?
C. What time is the last one?
D. With pleasure.
E. 30 Yuan.
F. It takes forty minutes.
G. It's my pleasure.
B：About every six minutes.
A： 54
B：At 11：00 p. m.
A：OK. Got it. Thank you for your help.
B： 55
A：Goodbye!
B：Bye-bye!
VIII．阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
I just installed (安装) the ThingsToDo app on my phone. It's so easy to use, and it is really useful when you've got lots of things to do and not much time! You just create a list and then add items (项目) to it. Once a week it sends you a list of everything you've done.
Juan
Have you heard about SkyWatch? It's great. You just point your phone at the night sky and it tells you what the stars are. You can also type in the name of a planet and the programme tells you where to look for it.
Katya
I've just installed Tunespotter. If you hear a song you like but you don't know what it is, you can use this app. It tells you the name of the song and the singer. And if you like it, you can buy the song really easily. I've had it for a week and I've been using it a lot.
Martin
I've been using Crazy Faces a lot recently. It's very silly, but it's fun. You just take photos of your friends and then you can change their faces. You can make them look older or younger, fatter or thinner, and you can add beards (胡须) and glasses. I've seen lots of photos where people have put baby faces on adult bodies and they make me laugh every time!
Luke
56. What does the underlined word “it” refer to?
A. a phone. B. SkyWatch. C. a planet. D. the night sky.
57. If you are a music lover, which app might you like?
A. ThingsToDo. B. SkyWatch. C. Tunespotter. D. Crazy Faces.
58. What does Luke think of the Crazy Faces app?
A. Useful. B. Interesting. C. Safe. D. Expensive.
59. What are the four children talking about?
A. Their favourite apps. B. Their small inventions.
C. Their free time activities. D. Their favourite phone games.
B
The first robots were invented in the 1920s. Robots have appeared in many American films. In some films, they are stronger, faster and cleverer than people.
In real life, robots are mainly used in factories. They do some dangerous and difficult jobs for humans.
Robots also help disabled people, for example, blind people. Today many blind people have a guide dog to help them．In the future, guide dogs might be robot dogs. One kind of robot guide dogs has wheels. It moves in front of the owner. It is very clever. It knows the speed of its owner’s walk. The owner wears a special belt (带子). This belt sends instructions to the owner from the dog, such as “Stop here” “Turn left” or “Turn right”.
In the United States, another kind of robot helps disabled people to take care of themselves in their daily life. The robot hears the sound of its owner’s voice. It follows instructions such as “Turn the page” or “Make a cup of coffee”.
Robots are also used in American hospitals. They can do simple jobs. At one hospital, for example, a robot takes meals from the kitchen to patients’ rooms. It never gets lost because this robot has a map of the hospital in its computer memory.
Though robots can help people in many different ways, they will never take the place of humans.
60. From the passage，we know robots cannot be _______.
A. guide dogs B. factory workers
C. dangerous animals D. hospital helpers
61. A robot guide dog _______.
A. goes in front of blind people B. walks side by side with blind people
C. has a map in its head D. helps patients with their meals
62. Some disabled people need robots' help to _______.
A. talk to other people B. look after themselves
C. become scientists D. do dangerous jobs
63. In the passage，the writer wants to tell us that _______.
A. robots are stronger and cleverer than humans
B. disabled people cannot look after themselves without robots
C. robots will take the place of humans some day in the future
D. robots can help humans in many different ways
C
Detective Wolf and Miss Fox
Detective Wolf has waited in the doorway all the morning. He is going to meet Miss Fox. She bought a bag of diamonds（钻石） from Africa. A few hours ago, someone told the police that a group of thieves would try to steal the diamonds, so the police asked Detective Wolf to make sure Miss Fox and her diamonds would be safe.
Miss Fox arrived at the airport. Detective Wolf quickly helped her get into the police car and took her to the hotel. While they were talking, Detective Wolf noticed that Miss Fox was left-handed. Half and hour later, they got to the room, two policemen checked it over and made sure there wasn’t anyone else in it. Miss Fox said she was tired and wanted to have a shower. She asked Detective Wolf and the policemen to keep the diamonds for her.
Half an hour later, Miss Fox didn't get out. Detective Wolf felt a little strange. Just then he got a call from the airport─a woman was found bound (绑着) in the toilet. She said she was Miss Fox and reported the criminal was left-handed. Detective Wolf rushed to the bathroom but saw nobody in it. He opened the bag immediately and found there were only stones in it.
64. Why did the police ask Detective Wolf to go to the airport?
A. To make sure the plane would be safe. B. To catch some thieves.
C. To protect a woman and her things. D. To check the plane for something.
65. Who was the criminal?
A. Miss Wolf. B. A left-handed woman.
C. One of the policemen. D. Detective Wolf.
66. Where were the diamonds in the end?
A. They were in the bag. B. They were on the plane.
C. They were in the bathroom. D. They were taken away by the criminal.
D
As we know, all the people need amusement (娱乐，消遣). We can not work all day if we are going to keep healthy and enjoy life．
Everyone has his own way of relaxing. Perhaps the most popular form is to take part in sports. There are team sports, such as basketball and football. There are also individual (个人的) sports, such as swimming and running. Skating and mountain climbing are the most popular amusement for people who like to be outdoor.
Not everyone who enjoys sports likes to take part in them. Many people like watching them on TV or listening to them on the radio. So many people like some forms of indoor amusement, such as watching TV, singing and dancing.
It doesn't matter whether we like indoor amusement or take part in outdoor sports. It is important for everyone to relax from time to time, and enjoy some forms of amusement.
67. People want to take part in sports in order to _________.
A. make friends B. keep healthy and enjoy life
C. find a good job D. make more money
68. Why do many people like watching sports on TV or listening to them on the radio?
A. Because they like sports, but they don't like to take part in them.
B. Because they don't enjoy sports or enjoy life at all.
C. Because they like to guide others to do sports and give suggestions.
D. Because they are so busy that they don’t need amusement.
69.The passage tells us that _________.
A. basketball is a kind of team sports
B. everyone who enjoys sports should take part in them
C. different people have different ways of relaxing
D. indoor amusement is not as important as outdoor sports
E
The summer vacation is coming. During the vacation, you can do what you like and prepare yourself well for the future. You'll enjoy your summer vacation with the help of the following suggestions.
▲Take exercise. After studying hard for months, you must be bored and tired. Taking exercise is the best way to get energy again. Swimming and walking are perfect choices for you. All kinds of exercise are good for your health.
▲Master some basic life skills. You will live an independent life one day. Therefore, you should learn some necessary and useful basic life skills such as washing clothes and cooking. At the same time, you should help your parents with housework to express thanks to them.
▲Go travelling. The world is a book. Those who don't travel only read one page. Travelling is so interesting. Have you made your own plan? If not, do it at once. During the trip, you will have a chance to get more knowledge. While learning about different cultures and customs, you will also make a lot of friends.
▲Enjoy the time with family members. Family members play an important role in your life. They give you love, care and support all the time. Don't forget to spare some time together with them. You will find it great to stay with them, talking about dreams, hobbies or anything you like.
As long as you follow the suggestions mentioned above, you will have a wonderful vacation.
70. Which is the best way to get energy according to the passage?
A. Swimming. B. Walking. C. Taking exercise. D. Rum
71. Why should we learn basic life skills?
A. Because we will live an independent life one day.
B. Because we like to share housework with our family.
C. Because we don't want to express our thanks.
D. Because doing housework is difficult for us.
72. The material mainly tells us ________.
A. the suggestions about basic life skills B. the suggestions about taking exercise
C. the suggestions about travelling D. the suggestions about summer vacation
阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题后面的词数要求）。
F
Tom lived with his grandfather, who is regarded as the wisest man in the village. Many people went to Grandfather for advice or help.
One day, Tom saw three men were walking together. They found a single-log (独木) bridge halfway, below which there was a deep river.
The first man didn’t hesitate (犹豫) to step on the bridge and he made it to the other side of the river. The second man came close to the bridge. When seeing the deep river, he was so afraid that he made no move. Encouraged by the first man, he put his feet on the bridge. Although his right foot was hurt in the middle of the bridge, he got there safely. But the third man was the least brave to cross the river. It was getting dark. Behind him were some hungry wolves, he felt hopeless. But he had to be brave to cross the river. Only after few steps, he fell into the river.
Seeing the puzzled look on Tom’s face, Grandfather said sincerely (由衷地，语重心长地), “When in difficulties, the more time it takes to hesitate, the higher price you’ll have to pay.”
73. What did the three men find halfway one day? (不超过10个词)
74. How many of the three men crossed the river successfully? (不超过10个词)
75. What can we learn from the story? (不超过20个词)
第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分）
IX．单词拼写 (共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
76. The airport has been in s (服务) for ten years.
77. The man was badly hurt because he couldn’t operate the machine p (适当地).
78. We c (比较) the two watches carefully, but found nothing different.
79. We should make every e_______(努力) to include everyone in this activity.
80. I’m very happy that I’ve made much p_______ (进步) in my English.
X．书面表达（共1小题；满分20分）
假定你是李华。你校和社区即将在本周六联合组织一次志愿者活动，请你给你班交换生Tom写一封英文邀请信，告知他活动安排。
内容要点如下：
1. 活动地点：大江社区（Dajiang Community）；
2. 集合时间：上午八点；
3. 集合地点：学校大门口；
4. 活动内容：帮助老人，清洁社区，分发口罩（mask）等。
注意： 1. 词数80 ～ 100；
2．请不要逐句翻译，可适当发挥；
3．文中不能出现真实的校名和人名；
4．信的开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Tom，
We'll have a volunteer activity this Saturday morning. I’m writing to invite you to join us.
Looking forward to seeing you there.
Yours,
Li Hua
2021年九年级毕业暨升学模拟考试（二）
英语试题参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力理解
I-III. 1~5. BAABC 6~10. ABACC 11~15. CBCAB
IV. 16. August 17. 65/sixty-five 18. shoes 19. raincoat 20. bags
评分标准：1~20题每小题1分。16-20题中的单词拼写错误可酌情扣分。
第二部分 英语知识运用
V. 21~25．ABCDA 26~30．DDACB
评分标准：21~30题每小题1分。
VI. 31~35．B CBAD 36~40. ACBCD 41~45．BACDA 46~50．BCADC
评分标准：31~50题每小题1分。
第三部分 阅读理解
VII. 51~55. BAECG
评分标准：51~55题每小题1分。
VIII. 56~60. CCBAC 61~65. ABDCB 66~70. DBACC 71~72. AD
73. (They found) a single-log bridge (halfway).
74. Two (of the three men crossed the river successfully).
75. When in difficulties, the more time it takes to hesitate, the higher price we’ll have to pay.
评分标准：56~75题每小题2分。(73～75题意对即可。)
第四部分 写
IX. 76. service 77. properly 78.compared 79. effort 80. progress
评分标准：76~80题每小题1分。
X. One possible version
Dear Tom，
We'll have a volunteer activity this Saturday morning. I'm writing to invite you to join us.
We are going to meet at 8 o’clock at the school gate and walk to Dajiang Community together. It will take us about 5 minutes to get there. In the community, we will do some voluntary work, such as helping the old do some shopping and carry the things they buy to their homes. We can also clean up the community and make it more beautiful. Besides, the community needs us to hand out masks to the persons in the community to help them keep healthy.
Looking forward to seeing you there.
一、 评分原则：
1． 本题总分为20分，按五个档次给分。
2． 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，结合内容和语言表达，综合给定分数。
3． 考生可以根据要点适当发挥，加入自己的观点。
4． 词数少于80的，从总分中减去1分。
5． 拼写错误多，书写较差以致影响表达，在所确定档次的分数范围内，减去1分。
二、 各档次的给分范围和要求：
第五档（很好）：（20~17分）
完全完成了试题规定的任务，涵盖了所有内容要点，或在发挥时内容有新意或亮点；语言基本无误，行文连贯，表达清楚。
第四档（好）：（16~13分）
完成试题规定的任务，涵盖了基本的内容要点；语言有少量错误，行文基本连贯，表达基本清楚。
第三档（一般）：（12~9分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务，写出了一些内容；语言有一些错误，行文不够连贯。
第二档（较差）：（8~5分）
未能恰当完成试题规定的任务，只能写出个别要点；语言错误较多，未能清楚传达信息。
第一档（差）：（4~0分）
未能完成试题规定的任务，只能写出与内容有关的一些单词；语言错误很多，未能清楚传达信息。
听力部分录音文字稿
Ⅰ. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到十段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. W: Would you please drive faster?
M: No hurry, Kate. We have enough time before our train leaves.
2. M: Could you tell me if there is a Chinese festival next month?
W: Yes. We call it Dragon Boat Festival.
3. W: It’s my birthday today. I’d like to eat something special.
M: What about eating out tonight? We can try some French food.
4. W: Justin, what did you buy yesterday?
M: Oh, a T-shirt. It costs me 20 yuan.
W: Oh, really? I’d like to have one.
5. W: What will you do this weekend, Timmy?
M: I will watch Hi,Mom at home with my cousin Ben.
II. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至7小题。
W: Excuse me, was my bedroom cleaned this morning?
M: Yes, madam. All the rooms were cleaned in the morning.
W: Well, then I have a problem. I can’t find my watch.
M: I’m sorry, madam. Can you tell me a little bit more about it?
W: This morning I left my watch here on the table by the bed, but it’s just nowhere to be found.
M: Don’t worry, madam. I will report this to the manager right away.
听下面一段对话，回答第 8 至 10 小题。
M: Linda, did you enjoy yesterday’s TV program?
W: No, I mean I didn’t watch TV yesterday.
M: Why? You enjoy music. Didn’t you know there was a wonderful concert on Channel 3 at half past six?
W: Of course I did. But there was an important soccer match on Channel 5 and both my husband and my son are soccer fans. What could I do?
M: What a pity! But you could have watched it online.
W: Oh, yes. But the screen of my mobile phone is too small. I’m afraid I’ll buy another TV next week.
III．短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
I think music is an important part of our life.
Different people have different ideas about music. For me, I like rock music best because it’s so exciting. And my favorite rock band, the Doors, is one of the most famous rock bands in the world. My deskmate Li Yan loves light music while my best friend, Kate, likes music that she can dance to.
“I like pop music very much,” says my brother, “because they are amazing. And nowadays I have been learning to write music.”
My mother thinks pop music is boring. “I like some relaxing music,” she says. That’s why she likes country music, I think.
IV. 信息转换（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Our class is organizing a two-day trip to Mount Huang. We will leave at 7:00 am on August 18th, and return at about 5 p.m. the following day. About fifty students and fifteen teachers will take the trip.
Anyone who wants to travel will have to wear good walking shoes, for we will climb the mountains. We should bring a raincoat and a warm jacket. We also need to take some plastic bags for rubbish. All students will be taken good care of and we are sure to have a good time.
2021年九年级毕业暨升学模拟考试（二）
英语试卷
（满分120分，120分钟）
（答案写在答题卷上）
第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分）
I．短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. How do they go to the railway station?
A. B. C.
2. Which festival is the conversation about?
A. B. C.
3. What’s the probably relationship between the two speakers?
A. Husband and wife. B. Teacher and student. C. Salesman and customer.
4. How much did Justin pay for the T-shirt?
A. $ 10. B. $ 20. C. $ 40.
5. Where will Timmy be this weekend?
A. In Ben’s school. B. In the cinema. C. At home.
II. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至7小题。
6. Who is the woman talking to?
A. A hotel worker B. A manager. C. A policeman.
7. Where does the conversation most probably take place?
A. In the manager’s office. B. In the room of the guest. C. At the police station.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题
8. Who didn’t watch TV yesterday?
A. Linda B. Linda’s husband C. Linda’s son
9. What TV program was there on Channel 3 at half past six?
A. A soccer match B. An action movie C. A wonderful concert
10. What will Linda buy next week?
A. A soccer B. A mobile phone C. A TV set
III．短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. What does the speaker like best?
A. Dance music B. Pop music C. Rock music
12. Who is Li Yan?
A. The speaker’s sister B. The speaker’s deskmate C. The speaker’s friend
13. What kind of music does Kate like?
A. Music that she writes. B. Music that is exciting. C. Music that she can dance to.
14. What does the speaker’s mother think of pop music?
A. Boring B. Exciting C. Relaxing
15. Who likes country music?
A. The speaker’s father. B. The speaker’s mother. C. The speaker’s brother.
IV．信息转换（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
A two-day trip to Mount Huang
Starting time
At 7:00 a.m on 16 18th.
Returning
At about 5 p.m. the following day
The number of people taking the trip
About 17
Things to take
Good walking 18
A 19 and a warm jacket
Some plastic 20
第二部分 英语知识运用（共两大题，满分30分）
V．单项填空 (共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. --This problem is far _______ me. I'm afraid I can't work it out.
--Don't worry, we will help you.
A. beyond B. beside C. behind D. between
22. -- Mr. Smith, would you please speak a little more _______?
-- Sorry! I thought you would follow me.
A. politely B. slowly C. seriously D. quickly
23. -- The question was very easy, wasn’t it?
-- Yes, but I don’t think _______ would work it out.
A. somebody B. anybody C. everybody D. nobody
24. --Will you go to the park tomorrow? ---If you don’t, _______.
A. so do I B. so will I C. neither do I D. neither shall I
25. - I’d like to make a good plan but it is too difficult for me.
-- If you set your mind on it, you should find a way to ________ it.
A. achieve B. choose C. suppose D. remember
26.You don’t know _______ I want to see you again. It’s years since I last saw you.
A. how soon B. how long C. how often D. how much
27. I know a little about Singapore, as I _______ there years ago.
A. have been B. am going C. will go D. went
28. --How do you like the dishwasher you bought last week?
--_______. Life has become much easier now.
A. It couldn’t be better B. Nobody can do a worse job
C. I must complain about it D. It’s out of control
29. --Let's go to the museum this weekend.
--Good idea! We can discover basic ________ about history there.
A. stories B.ideas C. facts D. names
30. If the weather _______ to be rainy, we may have to cancel the sports meeting.
A. runs out B. turns out C. finds out D. breaks out
VI．完形填空 (共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分)
阅读下列短文, 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
“Survival Holidays” is popular with children now. It is for children to go into the 31 place for exciting activities. People like “Survival Holidays” 32 they think being close to nature is good for children.
Many children in big cities spend most of the time 33 and playing computer games at home. It can give them an important change. Children need 34 free time to play outside. They need to be left on their own, 35 adults disturbing（打扰）them. Many children don’t know what to do when they are 36 . Even something like crossing a small river seems to be a hard 37 .
Survival Holidays helps children learn a lot. Some have learned how to keep 38 . Some have learned to 39 calm in different times. 40 have learned how to work in a team. All these skills will help them a lot in their lives.
31. A. modern B. lonely C. busy D. dirty
32. A. but B. so C. because D. and
33. A. playing sports B. watching TV C. going swimming D. going shopping
34. A. more B. all C. no D. less
35. A. by B. with C. for D. without
36. A. in danger B. in a hurry C. in surprise D. in control
37. A. choice B. change C. challenge D. chance
38. A. silent B. safe C. shy D. strange
39. A. enjoy B. help C. stay D. make
40. A. Other B. Another C. The other D. Others
B
Life in the 22nd century will be different from life in the 21th century, because many changes will take place in the new century. But what will the changes be?
The population is 41 fast. There will be more and more people in the world and most of them will live 42 than before. 43 will be much smaller and more useful, and there will be at least one in every home. And computer studies will be one of the important subjects at 44 .
People will work fewer hours than they did in the 21th century, and they will have more free time for sports, 45 TV and traveling. Traveling will be more 46 . And many more people will go to other countries for holidays.
More land will be used for building new towns and houses. Then there will be less room for cows and sheep, so 47 will be more expensive. Maybe no one will eat it every day. 48 they eat more vegetables and fruit. Maybe people will be healthier.
Work in the future will be 49 , too. Dangerous and hard work will be done by robots. 50 of this, many people will not have enough work to do. This will be a problem.
41. A. making B. growing C. running D. doing
42. A. 1onger B. shorter C. faster D. taller
43. A. Trains B. Cars C. Computers D. Houses
44. A. factory B. hospital C. farm D. school
45. A. watching B. seeing C. 1ooking D. buying
46. A. interesting B. convenient C. expensive D. difficult
47. A. fruit B. milk C. meat D. bread
48. A. Instead B. Sometimes C. Still D. However
49. A. dangerous B. difficult C. heavy D. different
50. A. One B. Some C. Because D. All
第三部分 阅读理解（共两大题，满分45分）
VII．补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。
A：Excuse me, sir?
B：Yes ? 51
A：I want to go to the train station, but I don't know how to get the ticket from the
TVM(自动售票机).
B： 52 Well, just press here.
A：How much is the ticket?
B： 53
A：All right. By the way, how often do the trains come?
A. This way, please.
B. What can I do for you?
C. What time is the last one?
D. With pleasure.
E. 30 Yuan.
F. It takes forty minutes.
G. It's my pleasure.
B：About every six minutes.
A： 54
B：At 11：00 p. m.
A：OK. Got it. Thank you for your help.
B： 55
A：Goodbye!
B：Bye-bye!
VIII．阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
I just installed (安装) the ThingsToDo app on my phone. It's so easy to use, and it is really useful when you've got lots of things to do and not much time! You just create a list and then add items (项目) to it. Once a week it sends you a list of everything you've done.
Juan
Have you heard about SkyWatch? It's great. You just point your phone at the night sky and it tells you what the stars are. You can also type in the name of a planet and the programme tells you where to look for it.
Katya
I've just installed Tunespotter. If you hear a song you like but you don't know what it is, you can use this app. It tells you the name of the song and the singer. And if you like it, you can buy the song really easily. I've had it for a week and I've been using it a lot.
Martin
I've been using Crazy Faces a lot recently. It's very silly, but it's fun. You just take photos of your friends and then you can change their faces. You can make them look older or younger, fatter or thinner, and you can add beards (胡须) and glasses. I've seen lots of photos where people have put baby faces on adult bodies and they make me laugh every time!
Luke
56. What does the underlined word “it” refer to?
A. a phone. B. SkyWatch. C. a planet. D. the night sky.
57. If you are a music lover, which app might you like?
A. ThingsToDo. B. SkyWatch. C. Tunespotter. D. Crazy Faces.
58. What does Luke think of the Crazy Faces app?
A. Useful. B. Interesting. C. Safe. D. Expensive.
59. What are the four children talking about?
A. Their favourite apps. B. Their small inventions.
C. Their free time activities. D. Their favourite phone games.
B
The first robots were invented in the 1920s. Robots have appeared in many American films. In some films, they are stronger, faster and cleverer than people.
In real life, robots are mainly used in factories. They do some dangerous and difficult jobs for humans.
Robots also help disabled people, for example, blind people. Today many blind people have a guide dog to help them．In the future, guide dogs might be robot dogs. One kind of robot guide dogs has wheels. It moves in front of the owner. It is very clever. It knows the speed of its owner’s walk. The owner wears a special belt (带子). This belt sends instructions to the owner from the dog, such as “Stop here” “Turn left” or “Turn right”.
In the United States, another kind of robot helps disabled people to take care of themselves in their daily life. The robot hears the sound of its owner’s voice. It follows instructions such as “Turn the page” or “Make a cup of coffee”.
Robots are also used in American hospitals. They can do simple jobs. At one hospital, for example, a robot takes meals from the kitchen to patients’ rooms. It never gets lost because this robot has a map of the hospital in its computer memory.
Though robots can help people in many different ways, they will never take the place of humans.
60. From the passage，we know robots cannot be _______.
A. guide dogs B. factory workers
C. dangerous animals D. hospital helpers
61. A robot guide dog _______.
A. goes in front of blind people B. walks side by side with blind people
C. has a map in its head D. helps patients with their meals
62. Some disabled people need robots' help to _______.
A. talk to other people B. look after themselves
C. become scientists D. do dangerous jobs
63. In the passage，the writer wants to tell us that _______.
A. robots are stronger and cleverer than humans
B. disabled people cannot look after themselves without robots
C. robots will take the place of humans some day in the future
D. robots can help humans in many different ways
C
Detective Wolf and Miss Fox
Detective Wolf has waited in the doorway all the morning. He is going to meet Miss Fox. She bought a bag of diamonds（钻石） from Africa. A few hours ago, someone told the police that a group of thieves would try to steal the diamonds, so the police asked Detective Wolf to make sure Miss Fox and her diamonds would be safe.
Miss Fox arrived at the airport. Detective Wolf quickly helped her get into the police car and took her to the hotel. While they were talking, Detective Wolf noticed that Miss Fox was left-handed. Half and hour later, they got to the room, two policemen checked it over and made sure there wasn’t anyone else in it. Miss Fox said she was tired and wanted to have a shower. She asked Detective Wolf and the policemen to keep the diamonds for her.
Half an hour later, Miss Fox didn't get out. Detective Wolf felt a little strange. Just then he got a call from the airport─a woman was found bound (绑着) in the toilet. She said she was Miss Fox and reported the criminal was left-handed. Detective Wolf rushed to the bathroom but saw nobody in it. He opened the bag immediately and found there were only stones in it.
64. Why did the police ask Detective Wolf to go to the airport?
A. To make sure the plane would be safe. B. To catch some thieves.
C. To protect a woman and her things. D. To check the plane for something.
65. Who was the criminal?
A. Miss Wolf. B. A left-handed woman.
C. One of the policemen. D. Detective Wolf.
66. Where were the diamonds in the end?
A. They were in the bag. B. They were on the plane.
C. They were in the bathroom. D. They were taken away by the criminal.
D
As we know, all the people need amusement (娱乐，消遣). We can not work all day if we are going to keep healthy and enjoy life．
Everyone has his own way of relaxing. Perhaps the most popular form is to take part in sports. There are team sports, such as basketball and football. There are also individual (个人的) sports, such as swimming and running. Skating and mountain climbing are the most popular amusement for people who like to be outdoor.
Not everyone who enjoys sports likes to take part in them. Many people like watching them on TV or listening to them on the radio. So many people like some forms of indoor amusement, such as watching TV, singing and dancing.
It doesn't matter whether we like indoor amusement or take part in outdoor sports. It is important for everyone to relax from time to time, and enjoy some forms of amusement.
67. People want to take part in sports in order to _________.
A. make friends B. keep healthy and enjoy life
C. find a good job D. make more money
68. Why do many people like watching sports on TV or listening to them on the radio?
A. Because they like sports, but they don't like to take part in them.
B. Because they don't enjoy sports or enjoy life at all.
C. Because they like to guide others to do sports and give suggestions.
D. Because they are so busy that they don’t need amusement.
69.The passage tells us that _________.
A. basketball is a kind of team sports
B. everyone who enjoys sports should take part in them
C. different people have different ways of relaxing
D. indoor amusement is not as important as outdoor sports
E
The summer vacation is coming. During the vacation, you can do what you like and prepare yourself well for the future. You'll enjoy your summer vacation with the help of the following suggestions.
▲Take exercise. After studying hard for months, you must be bored and tired. Taking exercise is the best way to get energy again. Swimming and walking are perfect choices for you. All kinds of exercise are good for your health.
▲Master some basic life skills. You will live an independent life one day. Therefore, you should learn some necessary and useful basic life skills such as washing clothes and cooking. At the same time, you should help your parents with housework to express thanks to them.
▲Go travelling. The world is a book. Those who don't travel only read one page. Travelling is so interesting. Have you made your own plan? If not, do it at once. During the trip, you will have a chance to get more knowledge. While learning about different cultures and customs, you will also make a lot of friends.
▲Enjoy the time with family members. Family members play an important role in your life. They give you love, care and support all the time. Don't forget to spare some time together with them. You will find it great to stay with them, talking about dreams, hobbies or anything you like.
As long as you follow the suggestions mentioned above, you will have a wonderful vacation.
70. Which is the best way to get energy according to the passage?
A. Swimming. B. Walking. C. Taking exercise. D. Rum
71. Why should we learn basic life skills?
A. Because we will live an independent life one day.
B. Because we like to share housework with our family.
C. Because we don't want to express our thanks.
D. Because doing housework is difficult for us.
72. The material mainly tells us ________.
A. the suggestions about basic life skills B. the suggestions about taking exercise
C. the suggestions about travelling D. the suggestions about summer vacation
阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题后面的词数要求）。
F
Tom lived with his grandfather, who is regarded as the wisest man in the village. Many people went to Grandfather for advice or help.
One day, Tom saw three men were walking together. They found a single-log (独木) bridge halfway, below which there was a deep river.
The first man didn’t hesitate (犹豫) to step on the bridge and he made it to the other side of the river. The second man came close to the bridge. When seeing the deep river, he was so afraid that he made no move. Encouraged by the first man, he put his feet on the bridge. Although his right foot was hurt in the middle of the bridge, he got there safely. But the third man was the least brave to cross the river. It was getting dark. Behind him were some hungry wolves, he felt hopeless. But he had to be brave to cross the river. Only after few steps, he fell into the river.
Seeing the puzzled look on Tom’s face, Grandfather said sincerely (由衷地，语重心长地), “When in difficulties, the more time it takes to hesitate, the higher price you’ll have to pay.”
73. What did the three men find halfway one day? (不超过10个词)
74. How many of the three men crossed the river successfully? (不超过10个词)
75. What can we learn from the story? (不超过20个词)
第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分）
IX．单词拼写 (共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
76. The airport has been in s (服务) for ten years.
77. The man was badly hurt because he couldn’t operate the machine p (适当地).
78. We c (比较) the two watches carefully, but found nothing different.
79. We should make every e_______(努力) to include everyone in this activity.
80. I’m very happy that I’ve made much p_______ (进步) in my English.
X．书面表达（共1小题；满分20分）
假定你是李华。你校和社区即将在本周六联合组织一次志愿者活动，请你给你班交换生Tom写一封英文邀请信，告知他活动安排。
内容要点如下：
1. 活动地点：大江社区（Dajiang Community）；
2. 集合时间：上午八点；
3. 集合地点：学校大门口；
4. 活动内容：帮助老人，清洁社区，分发口罩（mask）等。
注意： 1. 词数80 ～ 100；
2．请不要逐句翻译，可适当发挥；
3．文中不能出现真实的校名和人名；
4．信的开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Tom，
We'll have a volunteer activity this Saturday morning. I’m writing to invite you to join us.
Looking forward to seeing you there.
Yours,
Li Hua
2021年九年级毕业暨升学模拟考试（二）
英语试题参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力理解
I-III. 1~5. BAABC 6~10. ABACC 11~15. CBCAB
IV. 16. August 17. 65/sixty-five 18. shoes 19. raincoat 20. bags
评分标准：1~20题每小题1分。16-20题中的单词拼写错误可酌情扣分。
第二部分 英语知识运用
V. 21~25．ABCDA 26~30．DDACB
评分标准：21~30题每小题1分。
VI. 31~35．B CBAD 36~40. ACBCD 41~45．BACDA 46~50．BCADC
评分标准：31~50题每小题1分。
第三部分 阅读理解
VII. 51~55. BAECG
评分标准：51~55题每小题1分。
VIII. 56~60. CCBAC 61~65. ABDCB 66~70. DBACC 71~72. AD
73. (They found) a single-log bridge (halfway).
74. Two (of the three men crossed the river successfully).
75. When in difficulties, the more time it takes to hesitate, the higher price we’ll have to pay.
评分标准：56~75题每小题2分。(73～75题意对即可。)
第四部分 写
IX. 76. service 77. properly 78.compared 79. effort 80. progress
评分标准：76~80题每小题1分。
X. One possible version
Dear Tom，
We'll have a volunteer activity this Saturday morning. I'm writing to invite you to join us.
We are going to meet at 8 o’clock at the school gate and walk to Dajiang Community together. It will take us about 5 minutes to get there. In the community, we will do some voluntary work, such as helping the old do some shopping and carry the things they buy to their homes. We can also clean up the community and make it more beautiful. Besides, the community needs us to hand out masks to the persons in the community to help them keep healthy.
Looking forward to seeing you there.
一、 评分原则：
1． 本题总分为20分，按五个档次给分。
2． 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，结合内容和语言表达，综合给定分数。
3． 考生可以根据要点适当发挥，加入自己的观点。
4． 词数少于80的，从总分中减去1分。
5． 拼写错误多，书写较差以致影响表达，在所确定档次的分数范围内，减去1分。
二、 各档次的给分范围和要求：
第五档（很好）：（20~17分）
完全完成了试题规定的任务，涵盖了所有内容要点，或在发挥时内容有新意或亮点；语言基本无误，行文连贯，表达清楚。
第四档（好）：（16~13分）
完成试题规定的任务，涵盖了基本的内容要点；语言有少量错误，行文基本连贯，表达基本清楚。
第三档（一般）：（12~9分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务，写出了一些内容；语言有一些错误，行文不够连贯。
第二档（较差）：（8~5分）
未能恰当完成试题规定的任务，只能写出个别要点；语言错误较多，未能清楚传达信息。
第一档（差）：（4~0分）
未能完成试题规定的任务，只能写出与内容有关的一些单词；语言错误很多，未能清楚传达信息。
听力部分录音文字稿
Ⅰ. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到十段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. W: Would you please drive faster?
M: No hurry, Kate. We have enough time before our train leaves.
2. M: Could you tell me if there is a Chinese festival next month?
W: Yes. We call it Dragon Boat Festival.
3. W: It’s my birthday today. I’d like to eat something special.
M: What about eating out tonight? We can try some French food.
4. W: Justin, what did you buy yesterday?
M: Oh, a T-shirt. It costs me 20 yuan.
W: Oh, really? I’d like to have one.
5. W: What will you do this weekend, Timmy?
M: I will watch Hi,Mom at home with my cousin Ben.
II. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至7小题。
W: Excuse me, was my bedroom cleaned this morning?
M: Yes, madam. All the rooms were cleaned in the morning.
W: Well, then I have a problem. I can’t find my watch.
M: I’m sorry, madam. Can you tell me a little bit more about it?
W: This morning I left my watch here on the table by the bed, but it’s just nowhere to be found.
M: Don’t worry, madam. I will report this to the manager right away.
听下面一段对话，回答第 8 至 10 小题。
M: Linda, did you enjoy yesterday’s TV program?
W: No, I mean I didn’t watch TV yesterday.
M: Why? You enjoy music. Didn’t you know there was a wonderful concert on Channel 3 at half past six?
W: Of course I did. But there was an important soccer match on Channel 5 and both my husband and my son are soccer fans. What could I do?
M: What a pity! But you could have watched it online.
W: Oh, yes. But the screen of my mobile phone is too small. I’m afraid I’ll buy another TV next week.
III．短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
I think music is an important part of our life.
Different people have different ideas about music. For me, I like rock music best because it’s so exciting. And my favorite rock band, the Doors, is one of the most famous rock bands in the world. My deskmate Li Yan loves light music while my best friend, Kate, likes music that she can dance to.
“I like pop music very much,” says my brother, “because they are amazing. And nowadays I have been learning to write music.”
My mother thinks pop music is boring. “I like some relaxing music,” she says. That’s why she likes country music, I think.
IV. 信息转换（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Our class is organizing a two-day trip to Mount Huang. We will leave at 7:00 am on August 18th, and return at about 5 p.m. the following day. About fifty students and fifteen teachers will take the trip.
Anyone who wants to travel will have to wear good walking shoes, for we will climb the mountains. We should bring a raincoat and a warm jacket. We also need to take some plastic bags for rubbish. All students will be taken good care of and we are sure to have a good time.
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