浙江省宁波市南三县2022-2023学年上学期期末抽测八年级英语试题（含答案）

这是一份浙江省宁波市南三县2022-2023学年上学期期末抽测八年级英语试题（含答案），共12页。试卷主要包含了听力，完形填空，阅读理解，任务型阅读，词汇运用，语法填空，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
一、听力（本题共15小题，第一节每小题1分，第二、三节每小题2分；共计25分）
第一节：听小对话，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
1. When is Sam's birthday?
A. On August 13th.
B. On August 16.
C. On August 19.
2. Hw ften des the bus run n Sundays?
A. Every 10 minutes.
B. Every 15 minutes.
C. Every 20 minutes.
3. Why is Tm ging t New Yrk next summer?
A. T g sightseeing.
B. T have a business trip.
C. T visit friends.
4. What will the man d tnight?
A. Buy sme shes.
B. G t the bank.
C. Bk a htel rm.
5. Where des the cnversatin prbably take place?
A. In the hspital.
B. At hme.
C. On the playgrund.
第二节：听较长对话，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听下面一段较长的对话，回答第6、7两个小题。
6. What will the wman d this weekend?
A. Play basketball.
B. Eat dinner with a friend.
C. G t a mvie with the man.
7. When will the speakers meet utside Mvie Wrld?
A. At eight this Thursday.
B. At seven this Saturday.
C. At seven next Mnday.
听下面一段较长的对话，回答第8~10三小题。
8. Hw is the wman getting t the fruit shp?
A. On ft.
B.By car.
C. By bus.
9. What can the wman see after turning right at the third crssing?
A. A fruit shp.
B.A bus.
C. A plice ffice.
10. What des the man ask the wman t d?
A. T call the pliceman.
B. T take a bus.
C. T mve her car right nw.
第三节：听短文，回答问题。请你根据短文内容从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
11. Jack always went t bed late because he
A. watched sprts games B. did his hmewrk
C. talked with his friends
12. What happened in class?
A. Jack culd answer all the questins.
B. Jack was s tired that he slept in class
C. Jack gt a prize frm his teacher.
13. Jack's mther was abut his schlwrk.
A.happy
B.angry
C. wrried
14. What can Jack get if he gets a hundred in the exam?
A. 10 dllars. B. 50 dllars. C. 100 dllars.
15. Hw many scres did Jack get in spelling?
A.40. B.60. C.100.
卷二笔试部分（满分95分）
二、完形填空（本题有15小题，每小题1分，共计15分）
阅读下面短文，掌握大意，然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Tw weeks ag, a friend wh had experienced many bad things in his life wrte t me. He said that his life was full f __16__. He was lw n hpe. At the end f the letter, he asked this questin: "We really can't change (改变) this crazy wrld, can we?" I __17__ him at nce, beginning with these wrds: "__18__, f curse we can.
I can still remember ne f the first times smene changed my __19__. She was the music teacher at my primary schl, the guitarist, and a family friend. I __20__ her s much that I wanted t impress (加深印象) her mre than anything. Hwever, I had n __21__ at any instrument (乐器). One day, she let me try playing her guitar. I did my best __22__ I still didn't play it well. When I was dne, I put my head dwn and tld her: "I guess I am nt very gd." She __23__ me with her kind eyes, smiled, and said: "Everyne is gd at smething. Yu just need t find ut __24__ yu are gd at. Then yu can __25__ it with the wrld."
Thse __26__ wrds changed me. They planted a seed (种子) in my heart that cntinues t grw t this day. They made me knw that I had __27__ t give t thers. I just had t find it, bring it __28__ and share it. And that is what I have tried t d all f the years since that day.
Yu can change the wrld and make it __29__ every day f yur life. Yu can change it frm ne chice, ne persn, and ne kind act at a time. Make yur lve great then! Live __30__! D gd! Change the wrld!
三、阅读理解（本题有15小题，每小题2分，共计30分）
阅读下面材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
(A)
31. If yu want t enjy sme pian music in the evening, yu can buy tickets n _____________.
A. December 29, 2022 B. December 24, 2022
C. December 25.2022 D. December 28, 2022
32. Lily wants t watch a shw with her parents, but she nly has ￥200. They may watch _____________.
A. Revel's Wrld f Shakespeare
B. Tan Xiaging's Pian Sl
C. Yu are a Pianist
D. Cinnabar Ball
33. The text abve mst prbably cmes frm _____________.
A. a travel guide
B. a stry bk
C.a ntice bard
D. a sprts magazine
(B)
①"Why were yu s rude t yur brther?" Gladys asked. "He drve all the way ver here t send that package t yu. But yu didn't invite him inside yur rm. Yu didn't ffer him anything t drink r eat. Then, when he was talking t me, yu kept telling him t speak faster. He was speaking slwly because he knws my English isn't that gd - he was just being plite. Finally, when he and I sat dwn in the living rm, yu just went t yur cmputer and started typing away."
②William tried t explain t Gladys that what she saw between him and his brther was their nrmal interactin (互动). Rland was simply sending a package; there was nthing fr the tw f them t chat abut. Besides, Rland felt that William's rm had an unpleasant smell; he usually didn't even cme inside the rm when he visited. What's mre, Rland was very picky abut what he drank and ate - he wasn't interested in eating William"s "junk fd".
③Finally, William argued, he had tld Rland many times nt t "talk dwn" t Gladys. "He talks t yu like yu're a tw-year-ld," William said.
④She said she didn't mind; Rland was just trying t cmmunicate. She just wished that William wuld be mre plite t him. "When my sister visits me," she said, "I hug her, I invite her inside, we eat and drink and talk, and we just have a gd time with each ther."
⑤Well, William tld her, he and his brther were different. "N," she crrected him, "maybe yu and l are different."
34. Why did Rland speak slwly t Gladys?
A. Because Gladys asked him t speak slwly.
B. Because Rland was unable t speak English fast.
C. Because Rland knew Gladys was pr in English.
D. Because William kept telling Rland t speak slwly.
35. Which f the fllwing is true accrding t Paragraph 2?
A. The tw brthers had the same habit and interest.
B. As fr fd, the tw brthers had nthing in cmmn.
C. Rland hardly stayed in William's rm because f time.
D. Gladys thught the brthers gt n well with each ther.
36. What des the underlined wrd "He" (in Paragraph 3) prbably refer t?
A. Gladys'uncle. B. William. C. William's father. D. Rland.
37. The best title fr the passage is _____________.
A. Different Interactins
B. Implite Brthers
C. William's Junk Fd
D. Kind Gladys
(C)
One prblem that mst university students understand is nt having enugh mney. Here are sme mney-saving tips fr students we think will help.
Tip 1: Every mnth, make a list f yur cst in a ntebk. Write dwn what yu spend mney n, and when yu spend it. Als, write dwn hw much mney yu get each mnth. Ding this will help yu make better decisins abut when t spend-and when nt t spend.
Tip 2: If yu have the time, getting a jb is, f curse, ne f the best ways t make mney. But even better is getting a jb in a restaurant. Sme restaurants give fd t their wrkers, s yu wn't need t wrry abut paying fr meals.
Tip 3: Buy secndhand textbks whenever yu can. When yu buy them frm anther student, yu wn't even have t pay tax (税收). Many students sell lts f ther things when they leave. Make sure t lk arund fr lists f used things fr sale at yur university, and shp at secndhand stres if yu can.
Tip 4: Eating in restaurants can be very expensive. Yu can save mney by eating at hme with family r by eating breakfast, lunch, r dinner with yur rmmates and sharing the cst.
Tip 5: Yu can spend less mney n transprtatin if yu buy a bus r train ticket. This can save yu 30 percent r mre. Cars cst lts f mney, s if yu live n the university campus, leave the car at yur parents' hme.
38. Which tw tips talk abut saving mney n fd?
A. Tips 1 and 3. B. Tips 2 and 4.
C. Tips 3 and 5. D. Tips 1 and 5.
39. When is it NOT necessary t pay tax accrding t the passage?
A. When yu buy bks at a bkstre.
B. When yu buy things at a secndhand stre
C. When yu buy used textbks frm anther student
D. When yu leave yur car at yur parents' hme
40. What des the underlined wrd "transprtatin" mean in Tip 5?
A. Mney that peple spend in buying expensive cars.
B. Helpful ways in making mney and saving mney
C. Mney that students live n the university campus
D. Ways that peple travel frm ne place t anther
41. The main idea f the passage is t _____________.
A. give university students advice n saving mney
B. make sure university students dn't brrw mney
C. shw university students hw t make enugh mney
D. explain why university students ften dn't have enugh mney
(D)
Ants have the ability t smell ut cancerus cells (癌细胞) in humans, which has been fund by a new study, suggesting that they culd be used t find cancer in the future. Scientists frm the French Natinal Center fr Scientific Research (CNRS) fund that sme ants have a gd sense f smell. "But mre tests must be carried ut befre they culd be used in hspitals," the team said.
The scientists did tests with 36 ants, smelling cells in the lab. First, they let the ants smell sme cancerus human cells. Every time the ants smelt cancerus cells, they were rewarded with sugar slutin (糖液). In the secnd step, the ants were put int tw different smells. One was a new smell f healthy cells and the secnd was still the smell f the cancerus cells. Once the ants fund the cancerus cells successfully, the researchers made them smell different cancerus cells. As such, the scientists fund that ants culd tell between cancerus and healthy cells and between tw cancerus cells.
This isn't the first time that scientists have used the animals' sense f smell t find cancerus cells. "Dgs are gd at finding smething with their nses. Hwever, training dgs t d s needs several mnths t a year. On the ther hand, ants can be easily raised in a shrt time, they are inexpensive, and hundreds f them can be trained with fewer times." scientists pinted ut.
"This study shws that ants are able t learn very quickly. The way can be used fr ther tasks including finding danger r ther illnesses," scientists added.
42. What can we knw frm CNRS's study?
A. Ants help humans keep ff cancer
B. Dgs are used t find peple with cancer
C. Ants are able t smell ut cancerus cells.
D. Ants wrk better than dgs t find cancer
43. In the tests, what did the scientists d if the ants wrked well?
A. They set the ants free.
B. They ants play with dgs
C. They put the ants int different smells
D. They gave the ants sugar slutin.
44. Why are the ants better than dgs in the tests?
①They are cheaper. ②They are easier t be raised. ③They are better at finding things.
④They can be trained mre quickly. ⑤They have a sharper sense f smell.
A.①②③ B.①②④ C.①③④ D.②③⑤
45. What's the purpse (目的) f the writer writing the text?
A. T intrduce ants will be mre useful than imagined.
B. T teach peple t prtect ants frm nw n.
C. T shw ants and dgs are bth humans' friends.
D. T explain why ants are mre imprtant than dgs.
四、任务型阅读（本题有5小题，每小题1分，共计5分）
随着疫情防控政策的调整，加强公民自我防护意识变得尤其重要。以下是一些不同场合下的防护措施，请为以下文字匹配合适的图片(A-F),选项中有一项为多余选项。
With the changes f epidemic preventin measures(防疫政策)， we shuld care fr ur health and safety.
Here are sme ways t prtect urselves in different situatins.
46.____________ Befre ging ut, we shuld check ur temperature.Stay at hme if we have fever, cugh r ther COVID-19 symptms.
47.____________ When we take the elevatr (电梯) we need t wear a mask and keep away frm thers. Dn't talk with thers.
48.____________ When we g t wrk r cme back hme,we'd better drive ur wn cars,walk r ride bikes. Disinfect (消毒) the handlebar, seat and ther parts yu may tuch befre using a shared bike.
49.____________ When we are in ffice, we can talk with thers nline t reduce face-t-face interactins. We can als rganize smaller and shrter ffline meetings.
50.____________ When we g shpping,we can make a shpping list t get all the needed things in ne g and keep a 1-meter distance frm thers while waiting in line.
五、词汇运用（本题有15小题，每小题1分，共计15分）
A.根据下列句子及所给汉语注释，写出空缺处各单词的正确形式，每空只写一词。
51. He _____________ (似乎) unhappy just nw because f the accident.
52. He pured _____________(他自己) a glass f water and sat dwn in the chair.
53.The _____________(魔术师) finished his last act and left.
54. Many Chinese are _____________(计划) t return t their hmeland.
55. I g t visit my dentist _____________(两次) a week.
56._____________(除非) we talk t smene, we'll certainly feel wrse
57. David Smith is a student, and ne f his _____________(业余爱好) is writing.
58. Did yu help yur mther _____________(准备) a meal?
59.Bth Tm and Sam have _____________(类似的) eating habits.
60. The new _____________(行星) is abut ten times the size f the earth.
B.用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，每词仅用一次（每空一词）。
Why is the cat nt in the Chinese zdiac (生肖)？
There is a famus Chinese flk stry abut this. The Emperr __61__ all animals t take part in a race. The first 12 animals t finish the race wuld becme part f the zdiac.
At that time, the cat and the rat were gd friends. When they heard abut the race, the cat said t the rat, " We shuld __62__ early t sign up fr the race, but I usually wake up late." The rat prmised t wake him up s they culd g tgether. But n the mrning f the race, the rat was __63__ excited when he wke up that frgt his prmise. He went t the race place __64__ after dressing up.
The cat wke up nly t find that the race was already ver. The cat hated the rat after that. But it is nly a stry. The real reasn is that there were n __65__ in China at that time. D yu believe it?
六、语法填空（本题有10小题，每小题1分，共计10分）
阅读下面短文，按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，在空格处填入一个适当的词或使用括号中词语的正确形式填空。
Everyne needs t study t imprve urselves. Which d yu lve t use when yu are studying, iPads __66__ bks? Here are answers abut it.
Sme students think that iPads are __67__ (gd), because iPads can give them mre chices. They can lk up infrmatin in an iPad mre __68__ (easy) than lking everything in different bks. At the same time, students can send pictures directly t a printer t phtcpy them. With an iPad, they can keep all __69__ (they) wrk in it. And they will nt frget hmewrk because teachers can send all the hmewrk __70__ their iPads.
__71__, thers think that bks are mre helpful fr learning. First, reading bks wn't hurt their eyes. __72__ (tw), bks can help them think harder and deeper, because they may ask themselves __73__ (questin) when they read alne. Third, sme students usually use iPads __74__ (play) games at schl, and it is nt gd __75__ their study. S they like studying with bks mre ften than iPads. And which d yu lve t use?
七、书面表达（本题有1小题，共计20分）
76.随着疫情的好转，电影院恢复营业了。同学们喜欢去电影院还是在家看电影？请你根据表格信息，写一篇文章介绍同学的不同想法，并谈谈你的看法。
注意：(1)短文须包括上述全部要点，应适当增加细节，以使行文连贯：
(2)文中不要出现真实的姓名和校名：
(3)词数：100左右。
(4)首句仅供参考（不计入总字数）：
Recently, I've dne a survey abut whether students like t watch mvies at hme r in the cinema.
2022学年第一学期期末抽测八年级英语试题
听力材料及参考答案
卷一参考答案
一、听力测试（本题共15小题，第一节每小题1分，第二、三节每小题2分；共计25分）
1-5. BCBCA 6-10. ACBAC 11-15. ABCAB
卷二参考答案 笔试部分（共六部分，满分95分）
二、完形填空（本题有15小题，每小题1分，共计15分）
16. C 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. C
21. D 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. B
26. B 27. C 28. C 29. D 30. A
三、阅读理解（本题有15小题，每小题2分，共计30分）
31. B 32. A 33. C 34. C35. B
36. D 37. A 38. B 39. C 40. D
41. A 42. C 43. D 44. B 45. A
四、任务型阅读（本题有5小题，每小题1分，共计5分）
46. D 47. B48. E 49. C 50. A
五、词汇运用（本题有15小题，每小题1分，共计15分）
51. seemed 52. himself 53. magician 54. planning 55. twice
56. Unless 57. hbbies 58. prepare 59. similar 60. planet
61. invited 62. arrive 63. s 64. quickly 65. cats
六、语法填空（本题有10小题，每小题1分，共计10分）
66. r 67. better 68. easily 69. their 70. t
71. Hwever 72. Secnd 73. questins 74. t play 75. fr
七、书面表达（本题有1小题，共计20分）
Pssible versin :
Recently, I’ve dne a survey abut whether students like t watch mvies at hme r in the cinema. Sme students like t watch mvies at hme. Fr ne thing, they can spend less mney. Fr anther,they will have mre chices f what t watch.
Hwever, thers prefer ging t the cinema. Frm their pint f view, they will have the chance t enjy huge screens and feel excellent sund in the cinema, which can always give them a wnderful watching experience.
Fr me, it’s a better idea t watch mvies at hme. I can be free t d what I want while watching mvies, like eating r talking abut the characters with my family.
书面表达评分标准
一、评分细则
1. 本题总分20分，按5个档次给分。
2. 根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整。
3. 词数少于60或多于120的，从总分中减去2分。
4. 应注意的主要内容：内容要点、应用词汇、语法结构及上下文的连贯性。
5. 如书写较差以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
二、档次划分
第一档 (17~20分) 包含所有要点，完全完成了试题规定的任务；有清晰的文本框架，较多的语法结构和词汇；有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑、行文连贯、表达清楚；语言基本无误。
第二档 (13~16分） 基本包含所有的要点，遗漏少量次要点，较全面地完成了试题规定的任务；有较清晰的文本框架，比较多样的语法结构和词汇；行文基本连贯、表达基本清楚；语言有少量错误。
第三档 (9~12分） 包含大多数要点，基本完成了试题规定的任务；少许语句不通顺，语言错误较多，但不影响整体理解。
第四档 (5~8分） 只包含少数要点，未恰当完成试题规定的任务；多数语句不完整，语法结构简单，词汇项目有限，语言有较多错误，影响理解。
第五档 (1~4分) 只包含个别要点，未完成试题规定的任务；多数语句不完整或意思不明，内容不连贯，错误很多。
0分未能传达给读者任何信息；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
听力材料
第一节：听小对话，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
本部分共有5道小题，每小题你将听到一段对话，每段对话只听一遍。在听每段对话前，你将有5秒钟的时间阅读题目；听完后，你还有5秒钟的时间选择你认为最合适的备选答案。
1.W: Sam, when is yur birthday?
M: Oh, it’s n August 16th.
2.W: Excuse me, hw ften des the bus run?
M: Every ten minutes n weekdays, and every twenty minutes n Sundays.
W: Thanks.
3. W: Hi, Tm. I heard yu went t travel in New Yrk. Did yu have fun?
M: Yes, and I will g there again n business next summer.
4. W: Oh, darling! Are yu ready fr the trip?
M: Let me see--bank, pst ffice, plane tickets, shes, we haven’t bked ur htel rm yet,
but I’ll d that n the telephne tnight.
5 W: Jasn, yu lk much better tday. I think yu’ll be hme in a few days.
M: I hpe s, dctr. Then I’ll be able t play in the ftball match next mnth.
第二节：听较长对话，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
本部分共有5道小题，你将听到两段较长对话，每段对话听两遍。在听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读相关小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，每小题你还有5秒钟的时间现选择你认为最合适的备选答案。
现在听一段较长对话，回答第6~7两小题。
W: Hell, Tny.
M: Hell, Shelly. Shall we g t a mvie at 8 ’clck this Thursday evening?
W: Let me see. Oh, I am srry. I’ll be having dinner with a friend then.
M: Hw abut Saturday r Sunday?
W: Srry, I have basketball practice.
M: What a pity! When will yu have time then?
W: Next Mnday. Is that OK with yu?
M: Fine. S shall we meet at seven utside Mvie Wrld?
W: All right. See yu there then.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10三小题。
W: Excuse me. Culd yu tell me hw t get t the fruit shp?
M: Yu can take Bus N. 5. The driver will tell yu where t get ff.
W: Yes, but I’m driving my wn car.
M: Oh, drive alng this street, turn right at the third crssing f the rad, and then yu can see a
fruit shp.
W: Drive alng this street, turn right, and then I’ll find it.
M: That’s right. But I dn’t see any cars arund here. Where’s yur car?
W: I parked it ver there. Yu see?
M: Oh, n. Yu’d better mve it befre a pliceman sees yu parking there.Yu’re parking in a
place fr buses.
第三节：听短文，回答问题。请你根据短文内容从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。本部分共有5道小题，你将听到一篇短文，短文听两遍。在听短文前，你将有时间阅读相关小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，每小题你还有5秒钟的时间选择你认为最合适的备选答案。
Jack was nt interested in his lessns. He spent mst f his time playing cmputer games, ding sprts r watching TV. At night, he always went t bed late because f watching sprts games. In the mrning, he usually hurried t schl n ft. Smetimes he was s tired that he slept in class.
His mther was wrried abut his schlwrk. She tried t make him wrk harder. She tld him that if he culd get a hundred in the exam, he wuld be given ten dllars as a prize. Jack was very happy t hear that.
The next day, he came hme, very excited. “Oh, Mum. I gt a hundred,” he shuted. “I gt frty in reading this mrning and sixty in spelling this afternn.”
19. A. interest
20.A. helped
23. A. lked fr
25. A. cver
26. A. nrmal
B.hpe
B.answered
B.N
B. advice
B. upset
B.reslutin
B.and
B. lked at
B.why
B.share
B.simple
B.anything
B.back
B.fresher
B.quietly
C.wrries
C.frgt
C.Srry
C.reply
C.liked
C.mney
C.s
C. cared abut
C.when
C.build
C. careful
C.smething
C.ut
C. wrse
C.seriusly
D.surprises
D. remembered
D.Thanks
D. wrld
D. believed
D.talent
D. because
D. cared fr
D.what
D. discuss
D. lud
D.everything
D.dwn
D.better
D.carefully
Drama: Revel's Wrld f Shakespeare
Time: 7:30 pm n December 29, 2022
Place: Ningb |Tianran Stage
Price: ¥50-380 a persn
Cncert: Tan Xiaging's Pian Sl
Time: 7:30 pm n December 24, 2022
Place: Ningb| Ningb Musical Hall
Price: ¥180-580 a persn
Talk Shw: Yu are a Pianist
Time: 2:30 pm n December 25, 2022
Place: Ningb Ningb Musical Hall
Price: ¥80-280 a persn
Shaxing Opera: Cinnabar Ball
Time: 7:30 pm n December 28, 2022
Place: Ningb| Cixi Grand Theatre
Price: ¥80-480 a persn
quick arrive s cat invite
g t the cinema
watch mvies at hme
▲enjy huge screens
▲feel great sund
▲…
▲spend less mney
▲dn't need t g ut
▲…
yur pinins:..
采分点
满分
可给分值
1. 内容充实，覆盖要点（内容、要点）
7
6~7 描述了所有信息，内容合理、丰富
3~5 描述了大部分信息，内容比较合理
1~2 描述了小部分信息，内容不合理
0 没有作答或描述内容与主题无关
2. 用词适切，语法正确，句型多样（词汇、语法、句型）
7
6~7 用词适切，句型变化多样且有效，完全或基本没有语言错误
3~5 用词基本适切，句型较为单一，有少量语言错误但不影响理解
1~2 有较多语言错误，一定程度上影响理解
0 有大量语言错误，影响理解
3. 结构紧凑，意思连贯（语意、连词、指代）
4
3~4 行文连贯，连接词使用恰当，指代清晰
1~2 行文不够连贯，连接词使用不够恰当，指代不够清晰
0 没有连贯的意识
4. 书写规范，词数适宜（标点符号、大小写、词数）
2
大小写、标点正确，词数达标，书写规范整洁
大小写、标点有部分错误，词数达标，书写尚可辨认
0 大小写、标点错误较多，语言应用不规范，词数多于120个或少于60个，书写难以辨认