2023宁波慈溪高二上学期2月期末英语试题含答案

慈溪市2022学年第一学期高二期末测试卷英语学科试题

第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）

第一节（共5小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1. Why does the man need a map?

A. To tour Manchester.

B. To find a restaurant.

C. To learn about China.

2. When will the concert start?

A. At 7:30 pm.

B. At 8:00 pm.

C. At 8:30 pm.

3. What is the relationship between the speakers?

A. Husband and wife.

B. Mother and son.

C.Colleagues.

4. What does the woman say about Jack's race result?

A. It's exciting.

B. It's unfair.

C. It's a pity.

5. What are the speakers talking about?

A. A video.

B.A singer.

C. A program.

第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟：听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。

6. Where does the conversation take place?

A. In an office.

B. In a restaurant.

C. Over the phone.

7. What will the man do tomorrow morning?

A. Deliver a suit.

B. Attend a meeting.

C. Pick up someone.

听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。

8. What is the woman's plan for tonight?

A. Learning to bake.

B. Reviewing for a test.

C. Attending a party.

9. What dessert does the woman like best?

A. Tea ice cream.

B. Banana cupcakes.

C. Strawberry pancakes.

听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。

10. How does the woman sound?

C.Excited.

A.Satisfied.

B.Unhappy.

11. What does the woman probably do?

A. She's a lawyer.

B. She's a doctor.

C. She's a salesperson.

12. When will the woman take her holiday?

A. In the summer.

B.In the fall.

C. In the winter.

听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。

13. What is the woman doing?

A. Hosting a show.

B. Giving a lecture.

C. Having a class.

14. How did Steven's mother influence him?

A. By sending him to poetry classes.

B. By teaching him to write business plans.

C. By asking him to read from early childhood.

15. What does Steven find most difficult in writing?

A. Finding the right words.

B. Choosing a suitable topic.

C. Describing real experiences.

16. What is Steven's opinion on his own writing?

A.Creative.

B. Successful.

C. Encouraging.

听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。

17. What is the rate of the average global temperature increase?

A. 0.15 to 0.20C per year.

B. 0.15 to 0.20C every five years.

C.0.15 to 0.20C per decade.

18. At what average temperature will coral reefs begin to die?

A.35℃.

B.37C.

C.38C.

19. What will happen if the average temperature reaches 39C to 41C?

A. Sunflowers won't survive anymore.

B. Most countries will be drowned.

C. Sea animals will die massively.

20. What does the speaker mean in the end?

A. We should make some changes.

B. We have lost our last chance.

C. We can stop global warming.

第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分）

第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。

A

All about the FIFA World Cup: a thrilling festival of football

Get ready for the spectacular sporting event with our fact-packed tournament guide. On 20th November, the FIFA World Cup tournament kicks off in Qatar. Around five billion football fans around the world are expected to watch live on T'V as the best men's teams battle it out for football's ultimate prize.

Who are some of the star players to watch?

From Son Hueng-min to Gareth Bale, there are more top talent on show than ever in this tournament. It's the first time teams can take a squad of 26 players, rather than the usual 23. Sadly, it's likely to be the last World Cup for two of the greatest players in the game: Lionel Messi and Cristiano Ronaldo. It's also a chance for some fresh talent to shine, however, look out for younger players such as England's Jude Bellingham, Germany's Jamal Musiala and Pedri from Spain.

Which teams are at the World Cup?

Thirty-two teams compete for the trophy. For the first time ever, Qatar takes part in the tournament. As hosts, they qualified automatically but the other 31 teams had to win a number of qualifying matches. The next World Cup in 2026 will be even bigger-forty-eight teams will be in competition.

How does the tournament work?

The 32 teams have been drawn into eight groups of four. The teams in each group play against each other once in a mini-league, and the top two from each group progress to the knockout stage. Teams must win that game, then a quarter-final and a semi-final to reach the final on 18 December. As well as the World Cup trophy for the winning team, there are individual trophies for the best player (Golden Ball) and top scorer (Golden Boot). England's Captain Harry Kane won the Golden Boot in 2018.

What conditions does players face in this World Cup?

Since the first men's World Cup in 1930, the tournament has been played in June and July. However. Qatar is so hot in the summer that the 2022 competition was moved to November and December, when it's cooler. It's still warm, though, and each of the eight stadiums has air-conditioning. It takes the equivalent of 100 bathtubs of water a day just to keep the pitches in the stadiums green. As well as a brand-new city and airport, seven spectacular new stadiums were built for this World Cup.

21. What's special about the Qatar World Cup?

A. The number of fans watching the live on TV is about five billion.

B. The squad for each country can be made up of 26 players.

C. Some fresh talent players shine in the football game

D. It cost much water to keep the pitches green.

22. Which of the following statement is correct according to the passage?

A. Qatar had to win a number of qualifying matches to participate.

B. Messi and Ronaldo will take part in the 2026 World Cup.

C. It's the first time the World Cup is held in November

D. England's Harry Kane was the best player in 2018.

23. Who is the passage intended for?

A. Football enthusiasts.

B.Travel lovers.

C. Pop star fans.

D.Sports trainers.

B

David Brown is known as the world's fastest completely blind runner. He was diagnosed with Kawasaki disease at 15 months old, which led him to completely lose his sight by age13.

Brown says he was living in fear for a number of years until he discovered his passion for running. After winning an essay contest, he earned the ticket for the Olympic Games in Beijing in 2008. It was at that time that he knew he wanted to compete himself.

Paralympic runners train and compete alongside sighted guides. At the Rio Games in 2016, Brown and his partner Jerome Avery ran 10.99 in the men's 100-meter dash to take home the gold. Brown made his way to running from another sport. He explains that he lost his left eye when he was 3, and lost vision in his right eye over time. He played basketball as a kid, but was increasingly getting injured because he couldn't see the ball coming. "I took the opportunity to run on the playground, and realized I had some speed there,"he says.

He pursued his passion at the Missouri School for the Blind. Brown started at the school when he was 11, and it was there that he really started running track.

He got to his first Paralympic games by writing about running. Brown was one of the 25 winners of an essay contest that got to attend the event in Beijing. "He says he wrote about how he used sports to overcome obstacles, noting that as he grew up he struggled with depression.

It's important to be in sync (同步) with your running partner. His new partner Steward says he doesn't have to slow down when running with Brown, because he's fast. A 10-or 11-sccond race doesn't require much speaking, Steward says. "It's also an honor," Brown says. He notes that Paralympic runners can't do what they do without guides like Steward, who could theoretically run solo but choose not to. He calls it "a great honor".

24. What made David Brown decide to take part in the competition himself?

A. Winning an essay contest.

B. Winning an Olympic medal.

C. Attending the 2008 Olympics.

D. Attending the Missouri School.

25. What made David Brown change from basketball to running?

A. His change in personal interest.

B. The decline and loss of his vision.

C. The diagnosis with Kawasaki disease.

D. His participation in his first Paralympic games.

26. What can we know about David Brown's essay?

A.It was inspiring.

B. It was interesting.

C. It was pessimistic.

D. It was depressing.

27. Which proverb best describes David Brown's story?

A. All roads lead to Rome.

B. Every dog has its day.

C. Where there is a will, there is a way.

D. Hope for the best, prepare for the Worst.

C

The world's animal populations have decreased by more than two-thirds since 1970, according to a recent research from the World Wildlife Fund (WWF).

The London group provided information on 32,000 wildlife populations which included more than 5,000 species. The researchers found that population sizes had declined by 69 percent on average. They said the loss of forests, human exploitation (开发) of the environment, pollution, and climate change were great causes of the loss. Land-use change is still the biggest threat to wildlife. However, the researchers added, "if we cannot limit warming to 1.5"C, climate change is likely to become the dominant cause of biodiversity loss in the coming years."

Wildlife populations in Latin American and the Caribbean Sea area were greatly affected. The research showed a 94 percent drop in those areas in over 50 years. Wildlife populations in river and lake habitats decreased the most. Freshwater populations have declined by an average of 83 percent since 1970. For example, one population of pink river dolphins in the Amazon River area of Brazil fell by 65 percent between 1994 and 2016.

These findings are a red flag that warns of a larger system failure on the horizon. Even one species' population decline can affect other species, eventually impacting the ecosystem's ability to function. Humans depend on a stable climate, predictable weather patterns, and productive farmland and fisheries to thrive (蓬勃发展), but the current trends are severe enough to threaten many life-sustaining systems.

Our future depends on reversing(扭转) the loss of nature just as much as it depends on dealing with climate change. And you can't solve one without solving the other. Everyone has a role in reversing these trends, from individuals to companies to governments. If nothing changes, animal populations will undoubtedly continue to fall, driving wildlife to extinction and threatening the integrity (完整) of the ecosystems on which we all depend.

28. What is the greatest threat to wildlife populations currently?

A. Illegal hunting.

B. Global warming.

C. Land-use change.

D. Environmental pollution.

29. How does the author explain the decline of freshwater wildlife in paragraph 3?

A. By listing figures.

B. By analyzing the causes.

C. By making a comparison.

D. By referring to a concept.

30. What can we learn from paragraph 4?

A. Climate change threatens many wild animals.

B. Farmland is the basis of life-sustaining systems

C. Species diversity is important to maintain a stable ecosystem.

D. Extreme weather events have become more and more frequent.

31. What is the main purpose of the text?

A. To explain the difficulty of restoring ecosystems

B. To call on people to take action to protect nature.

C. To present the increasing trend of climate change.

D. To show people's efforts in reversing the loss of nature.

D

In a clinical trial(试验) with 80 adults, a team of researchers found that sleep extension reduced energy intake and resulted in a negative energy balance in real-life settings among adults with overweight who habitually curtailed (缩减) their sleep duration. The findings appear in the journal JAMA Internal Medicine.

Obesity is a major public health concern. Much evidence suggests that sleeping less than 7 hours per night on a regular basis is associated with adverse health results. Particularly, insufficient sleep duration has been increasingly recognized as an important factor for obesity. However, it remains unknown whether extending sleep duration can be an effective strategy for preventing obesity.

The clinical trial involved 80 adults aged 21 to 40 years with a body mass index(BMI) between 25.0 and 29.9, and habitual sleep duration of less than 6.5 hours per night. The study was conducted from November 1, 2014 to October 30, 2020. The participants were able to increase their sleep duration by an average of 1.2 hours per night after a personalized sleep counseling (咨询) session.

Overall, participants who increased their sleep duration were able to reduce their calorie intake by an average of 270 kcal per day- which would translate to roughly 12 kg of weight loss over three years if the effects were maintained over a long term.

Ultimately, the researchers hope to examine the underlying (潜在的) mechanisms that may explain these results, and believe their work should encourage new, larger studies on weight control to determine if extending sleep can support weight-loss programs and help prevent or reverse obesity.

"In our earlier work, we understood that sleep is important for appetite regulation," Dr. Tasali said. "Now we've shown that in real life, without making any other lifestyle changes, you can extend your sleep and eat fewer calories. This could really help people trying to lose weight."

32. What's the new finding of the research?

A. Sleep extension can lead to weight problems.

B. Extending sleep duration helps reduce caloric intake.

C. Controlling energy intake is the key to losing weight.

D. Overweight adults often decrease their sleep duration.

33. What's the probable meaning of the underlined word "adverse" in paragraph 2?

A. Harmful.     B.Unique.      C. Lasting.       D.Apparent.

34. According the text, the subject of the study ____________.

A. usually slept 6.5 hours per night.

B. were 80 adults of the similar age group.

C. got advice on sleep tailored to themselves.

D. were particularly chosen from a certain place.

35. What do researchers think of the study?

A. Its results are hard to explain clearly.

B. It lays a foundation for further studies.

C. It's unreliable with many factors ignored.

D. It has solved all the puzzles of researchers.

第二节（共5小题：每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）

阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Do you ever compare yourself to other people and wish you could be more like them? Actually, accepting who you are can help you feel happier and more positive about yourself.

__36__ As well as appreciating what you're good at,it means valuing the parts of you that don't shine as brightly, like being forgetful or untidy. It's a habit that involves being kind to yourself even when you make a mistake. And it also means knowing your own weaknesses and strengths, and accepting who you are no mater what other people say or think.

When you accept who you are, you worry less about things you can't change. __37__ Anna Freud, founder of a mental health charity that supports young people, says, "We can always feel as if we have to appear perfect and are busy trying to meet others' standards. __38__." Some people may find letters or numbers hard to read, for example, but they might have strengths in other areas, like finding a creative way to overcome challenges. Learning to accept everything about yourself can also help you discover what you're really capable of.

__39__ Start by making a list of all the things you like about yourself. Maybe you're good at cooking, or people find it easy to talk to you. Ask your friends for help. Also, think up ways to treat yourself, like taking a long bath or watching your favorite film and spend some quality time on your own. __40__

A. You are different in your own way.

B. This makes you feel happier and more confident

C. Everyone is born with their strengths and weaknesses

D. That leads us to forget about the little things that make us unique.

E. There are some effective ways that can help you accept yourself

F. Self-acceptance means learning to accept the things that make you who you are

G It's also a good idea to say kind positive things to yourself in a mirror every morning.

第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分）

第一节（共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分）

阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

A 100-year-old woman whose name is Margaret Griffiths is taking IT classes in an effort to catch up on modem technology. Margaret Griffiths said she __41__ the weekly classes to keep her mind active and intended to "keep on doing what I desire to do as __42__ as I can".

Born in 1921, Ms Griffiths began a 40-year __43__ in teaching at a primary school and __44__ became a head teacher. She made a promise to herself to learn something  __45__ every day. "I __46__ my life to the world of education, and I am still exploring to this day. I have never __47__" she said

But her __48__ came before the introduction of computers and before long she deeply felt she was __49__. Now she is learning IT at Porth Plaza library which offers classes six days a week. She said she had no access to computers during her career, so she __50__ at the chance to keep up when she saw the IT classes __51__ offer.

"I don't know what the future is __52__ for me, but I will try my best to learn until the last second of my life. I am still __53__, even at my age, and I am always happy to learn-long may it continue." "At 100, all the other learners are younger than me, but I enjoy the classes and the __54__ very much indeed, which make me feel energetic and passionate." added Margaret Griffiths, whose life is a good __55__ of the saying: It's never too late to learn.

第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

The tea delighting and fascinating the world for thousands of years has finally received top-level global recognition as __56__ shared cultural treasure of mankind. Traditional tea processing techniques and their associated social practices in China __57__ (add) to UNESCO's Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity (人类非物质文化遗产代表作名录) on November 29th. The status was awarded by the Intergovernmental Committee for the Safeguarding of Intangible Cultural Heritage, __58__(host) in Rabat, Morocco. It consists __59__ knowledge, skills and practices __60__(concern) the management of tea plantations, picking of tea __61__(leaf), and the processing,drinking and sharing of tea. Acconding to UNESCO, in China, traditional tea processing techniques are __62__(close) associated with geographical location and __63__ (nature) environment, resulting in a distribution range between 180-37N and 940-122E. Tea-related customs are not only found across the country but also influenced the rest of the world through the ancient Silk Road and trade routes. In China, 44 registered national-level intangible cultural heritage entries are related to tea. There are over 40 vocational colleges and 80 universities in China __64__ have set up majors in tea science or tea culture, resulting in over 3,000 graduates specializing in tea __65__ (produce) and art every year.

第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分）

第一节（满分15分）

假定你是李华。你校正在举办一场以校园生活为主题的视频大赛(TikTok Video Contest)。作为此次大赛的一名宣传员，请你给交换生Jim写一封邮件，邀请他参加，并告知相关信息，内容包括：

1.作品内容和时长要求：2.参赛方式和截止时间。

注意：1.词数80左右：

2.请按规定格式作答。

Dear Jim,

___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Yours sincerely,

Li Hua

第二节（满分25分）

阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。

I stood there listening to the stern(严厉的)words of my father.

"Which of you did this ?" he asked with a sharp voice. We all stared down at the floor containing the art of a child's handwriting in chalk.

I stood there, trembling and hoped that no one else could see it. "Will he know it was me ?" I secretly wondered. Scared, I said,"Not me,Dad."

The others denied it as well. Of course, we knew that one of us must have done it. But I, being the youngest and smallest of us three, just couldn't find the courage to tell the truth. I wasn't a bad kid and lying was not normal for me. But the look on my dad's face that evening frightened me and somehow l couldn't bring myself to tell him.

Without saying a word, he disappeared for several minutes and came back with a piece of paper and a pencil, determined to find out who did it.

He asked each of us to write exactly what we saw on the floor. I wasn't a stupid kid though. When my turn came, I deliberately (故意地) wrote the words differently. So when my dad compared the handwriting, he still couldn't tell which one of us did it. Frustrated, he took a step towards us and looked at his three small kids.

"I'm going to give you one more chance to admit."

Not surprisingly, neither my brother nor my sister spoke up. Why should they?

I was the one who did it. "Should I say something? Is it too late? He will be mad." Again, frightened, I held my tongue.

He took us all in the house as tears suddenly filled my eyes. "Since none of you seemed to have done it, then you will all get a spanking(打屁股)." What? Still I stood there and said nothing. The last thing I wanted was a spanking.

注意：

1.续写词数应为150左右；

2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

Paragraph 1:

"I did it," someone said and I was pretty sure it wasn't me.

Paragraph 2:

It was a secret we kept for many years

慈溪市2022学年第一学期高二期末测试英语学科参考答案

第一部分：听力（共两节，每小题1.5分，满分30分）

1-5BCACA 6-10 CBBAB 11-15ACACA 16-20 CCBCA

第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分）

第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）

A篇BCA   B篇CBAC   C篇CACB    D篇BACB

第二节（共5小题：每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）

7选5 FBDEG

第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分）

第一节（共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分）

完型填空

CDABA  CDBAC  BCACB

第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）

56.a   57. were added   58.hosted   59.of   60.concerning

61.leaves   62.closely   63. natural   64.that/which   65.production

第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分）

第一节（满分15分）

Dear Jim,

I'm writing with good news. A TikTok Video Contest themed campus life is being held in our school, and knowing that you are good at filming videos, I was writing to invite you to have a try.

Topics concerning campus life, such as learning activities, class discussions, physical activity can all be covered in the video, which is required to be original. All videos should be kept within 5 minutes. The deadline falls on Sept.10th, 2022, and once you have created your video, you can just upload it to the school website. It is a good chance to prove your gift for shooting videos as well as win fans.

Exceedingly anticipate your active participation in the contest.

Yours,

Li Hua

第二节（满分25分）

Paragraph 1:

"I did it," someone said and I was pretty sure it wasn't me. Hearing this, I was surprised a lot. I looked around and saw that it was my sister who came forward. She did it? No, she didn't because I did it. Why was she taking the blame for something I did? Feeling guilty, yet still scared to admit, I stood there knowing my sister was going to get a spanking for something I did. And I let it happen. I didn't speak up.

Paragraph 2:

It was a secret we kept for many years. We didn't talk about that day until we were all older and I knew it was safe to finally tell my dad it was me. Certainly, my dad remained silent, with a smile. Why did my sister choose to take the blame for it? She would rather take the pain herself than see me suffer. Thinking back to that day, I learned the value of family and of a sister who would do anything for me. And I know now I will do the same for her.