河南省安阳市第一中学等2校2022-2023学年高三下学期开学考试英语试题（原卷 解析版）

高三英语考试

(考试时间：120分钟试卷满分：150分)

注意事项：

1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。

2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。

3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分)

做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上：

第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

例： How much is the shirt?

A. £19.15.  B. £9.18.  C. £9.15.

答案是C。

1. What did the woman do on Sunday?

A. She went sailing.  B. She went fishing.  C. She went cycling,

2. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?

A. Workmates.  B. Classmates.   C. Brother and sister.

3. What is the weather like in the morning?

A. Fine. B. Windy.  C. Rainy

4. What do we know about the lost luggage?

A. It’s red.  B. It’s brown.  C. It’s quite big.

5. What are the speakers mainly discussing?

A. A paper.  B. A weekend.   C. A typewriter.

第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。

6. What’s on in the Capital Museum?

A. An art exhibition.

B. An exhibition of the Tang Dynasty.

C. An exhibition of foreign paintings.

7. When will the speakers visit the Capital Museum?

A. This Saturday morning.

B. Next Sunday afternoon.

C. Next Sunday morning.

听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。

8. How many attractions does the man list?

A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.

9. Where will the speakers begin their journey?

A. The Summer Palace.  B. The Great Wall.

C. The Olympic Park.

10. How will the speakers get to their destination first?

A. By bus.  B. On foot.  C. By car,

听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。

11. Which of the following is Shirley’s summer plan?

A. To do a part-time job.

B. To prepare for the exam.

C. To read books about Australia.

12. What does Tom want to do in the summer holiday?

A. Practice oral English.

B. Get some social experience.

C. Learn something about engineering.

13. Which country will Shirley travel to?

A. England.  B. Australia.  C. Egypt.

听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。

14. Who is Kim?

A. The man’s friend.

B. The man’s neighbor.

C. The woman’s roommate.

15. Who is Kim always complaining about?

A. Her roommates. B. Her parents. C. Her friends.

16. What does the man think of Kim?

A. Mean and talkative.

B. Generous and popular.

C. Sociable and humorous.

17. Why does the woman say it’s worth listening to Kim’s problems?

A. Kim often puts up ads for her.

B. Kim works in a travel agency.

C. She can get benefit from Kim.

听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。

18 What is the speaker mainly talking about?

A. His acting roles.

B. His spare hobbies.

C. His political career.

19. What does the speaker say about The New Statesman?

A. Not everyone approved it.

B. It has never stopped so far.

C. It was based on a true story.

20. Why is Henri in A Family Affair the speaker’s favourite part?

A. It contains serious messages.

B. It is directed by his good friend.

C. Henri’s character is similar to his.

第二部分阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)

第一节 (共15小题;每小题2分，满分30分)

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。

A

FIFATicketingCentres

The Last-Minute over the counter sales in Doha, Qatar starts on 18 October 2022 at the FIFA Main Ticketing Centre (MTC), and from 30 October at the Ticketing Centre(TCX). Both ticketing centres will be open until the final match day of the competition on 18 December 2022.

The exact location of the FIFA Main Ticketing Centre (Doha Exhibition &. Convention Center—DECC) can be found here and the exact location of the Ticketing Centre (Ali Bin Hamad Al Attiyah Arena) can be found here.

Please find below the opening hours of the FIFA Main Ticketing Centre;

Dates/Openinghours (Dohatime)

18.10.2022- 17.12.2022/Sat-Thu:10:00-22:00; Fri:14:00-22:00

18.12.2022/10:00-18:00

Please find below the opening hours of the Ticketing Centre:

Dates/Openinghours (Dohatime)

30.10.2022- 17.12.2022/Sat-Thu:10:00-22:00; Fri:14:00-22:00

18.12.2022/10:00-18:00

In addition to ticket sales, you may visit the FIFA Main Ticketing Centre and Ticketing

Centre for customer service enquiries and mobile ticket supports.

Please note that it is not possible to purchase tickets in the Ticketing Service Point (TSP) located in Hamad International Airport as this facility is dedicated for customers arriving in Qatar and needing information about ticketing or support on how to download the FIFA Ticketing Application and their respective tickets.

All tickets purchased over the counter at the FIFA Main Ticketing Centre as of 18 October or at the Ticketing Centre from 30 October during the Last-Minute sales phase will be delivered as paper tickets, in-person directly after completing the ticket application process and paying for tickets.

Please treat your tickets with care and keep them safe at all times as duplicate (复制) tickets will not be issued.

1. When does FIFA World Cup Qatar 2022 end?

A. On 18 October 2022. B. On 30 October 2022.

C. On 18 December 2022. D. On 30 December 2022.

2. Which place should you avoid when buying tickets?

A. MTC. B. TSP. C. TCX. D. DECC.

3. How can you get the Last-Minute tickets bought over the counter?

A. By mail. B. By contacting agents.

C. By downloading digital tickets. D. By picking up in person.

B

Coming of age is that time in each of our lives when we begin to see the possibilities. The world opens up in ways that mature our vision and give us a sense of responsibility and gratefulness. Connor had just started college and loved being at that stage in his life where he could eat all the pizza he wanted, get engaged in adult conversations with his parents about the responsibility to make life better for others. Connor’s optimism was infectious. There was so much he could do, and so much he could become.

But it all ended one night when Connor was distracted while driving on a Colorado high- way. A young man,who gave off so much light, suddenly went dark.

Connor’s father, David, took it particularly hard. A father sees more than his own traits (性格) in his son; he sees greater possibilities than he achieved. Taking that hope away left David feeling at a loss. But Connor’s optimism was one of those traits passed on to him by his father. So, David got to work.

First, he established the Honor Connor Scholarship Fund to reward students who served in the community. Next, he went to work creating a research-based curriculum that educates University of Colorado Boulder students and their families about the dangers of texting while driving. It includes a very simple three part promise: Do not text or use social media while driving, speak out if riding with a driver who is distracted and encourage friends and family to drive phone-free

David now works with lecturers at various colleges and high schools, ensuring young minds understand how statistically at risk they are when they text while driving. He’s become a passionate advocate for preparing young people to drive safely and not reach for their phones while they’re at the wheel. “I just don’t want other parents to go through what I did when I lost Connor,” says David. “It’s just so preventable.”

4. What’s the purpose of paragraph 1?

A. To give the background of a funny story.

B. To explain why David chose to volunteer.

C. To set off David’s great pain of losing his son.

D. To sing high praise for Connor’s healthy growth.

5. What happened to Connor on a Colorado highway?

A. The headlight of his car went wrong.

B. He drove carelessly and died in an accident.

C. He suffered an accident for his father’s fault.

DHe died from another driver’s careless driving.

6. From whom did Connor get the positive attitude towards life?

A. His coach. B. His grandfather.

C. His teacher. D. His father.

7. Why did David work with lecturers under a research-based curriculum?

A. He wanted to take a job in a college.

B. He took the classes that Connor hadn’t finished.

C. He wanted to prevent the sad event that he had suffered.

D. He honored Connor for what he had done in the community.

C

Doctors and nutritionists have been telling that one should not eat right before going to bed. However, one should also not eat late at night, according to a recent study. It has been said that when we eat late at night, we’re going against our body’s rhythm.

According to the researchers from Brigham and Women’s Hospital, eating late at night increases the risk of obesity and weight gain. The analysis of the study revealed that the time when a person eats their last meal impacts the calories burned, appetite and how the body stores fat.

To conduct their study, a total of 16 participants with the body mass index (BMI) that is of the obese range or considered overweight were studied. Every one was given the same meals and they were divided into two groups: The first group was required to eat their meals early in the day and the other with each meal 250 minutes late.

The team of researchers found that eating late had a significant impact on the regulation of hunger hormones. The level of leptin (瘦蛋白) inhibits the human appetite. It was reduced across the period of 24 hours due to late eating. It was observed that eating late doubled the chance of being hungry. When participants ate later, they burned calories at a much slower rate.

In a press release the first author Nina Vujovic said, “In this study, we asked a simple question, ‘Does the time that we eat matter when everything else is kept consistent?’ and we found that eating four hours later makes a major difference to the hunger levels, the way calories burn after we eat, and the way our body stores fat.”

This study adds to a growing body of evidence showing just how important meal timing can be when it comes to body weight. Based on what this and other studies have shown, people who are watching their weight may want to get rid of the late night snacks and eat most of their meals earlier in the day.

8. What’s the difference between the two groups in paragraph 3?

A. The variety of the diet. B. The fat content in their meals.

C. The calories in their meals. D. Their eating schedules.

9. What can we do to beat obesity according to the study?

A. Avoid eating late at night.

B. Keep a moderate sense of hunger.

C. Abandon consuming food low in fat.

D. Make sure to have supper at a set time.

10. What does the underlined word “It” in paragraph 4 refer to?

A. The human appetite. B. The leptin level.

C. The body mass index. D. The chance of being hungry.

11. From which is the text probably taken?

A. A health magazine. B. A biology textbook.

C. A travel brochure. D. A biography.

D

Each year, as many as one billion birds are killed in the US from collisions (相撞) with glass windows and buildings every year. Birds that crashed into Philadelphia buildings began to be collected in the 1890s. Nearly 100 species of birds are known to have died out from crashes with buildings and other structures in Philadelphia. Many other species are probably affected in the city.

Called Lights Out Philly, the voluntary program in Philadelphia encourages buildings to turn out or dim unnecessary external and internal lights between midnight and six o’clock early in the morning to protect birds as they pass through during migration seasons.

Bird migration seasons are from April l to May 31 in spring and from August 15 to November 15 in fall. Each year, millions of birds pass through Philadelphia along a migration route known as the Atlantic Flyway. Bird-glass crashes are very common for migrating birds, most of which travel at night. Glass is difficult for them to recognize as hard surfaces, and artificial light can fool them into crashing with buildings and outdoor structures. Turning off lights between midnight and sunrise helps minimize the effect of artificial light when most birds are migrating.

On Oct. 2, 2020, a stormy and foggy day, Philadelphia had its largest mass collision event in more than 70 years with an estimated 1,000 birds crashing with buildings in one 3.5-square block area in just one day. Paired with a terrible storm of weather and fog conditions, the bright city and building lights attracted and confused the migrating birds, causing them to crash with buildings and outdoor structures.

Even if you don’t play a part in managing the lights of a big building, you can help birds avoid crashes by making the glass opaque to reduce the amount and intensity of artificial light at night, changing the color of lighting to blue or green, shortening the duration lights are on, directing the lighting downward or screening lighting.

12. What is the first paragraph mainly about?

A. The rich biological diversity in Philadelphia.

B. Great efforts to protect migrating birds in Philadelphia.

C. The present and the past of the bird conservation in America.

D. The serious consequence of bird-glass crashes in Philadelphia.

13. What added the danger to the migrating birds on Oct. 2, 2020?

A. Bad weather conditions. B. Traveling in the day.

C. The mistaken route. D. Too many buildings.

14. What does the underlined word “opaque” mean in the last paragraph?

A. Light-reflecting. B. Delicate. C. Lightproof. D. Clean.

15. What is the best title for the text?

A. It Is Difficult to Save the Migrating Birds

B. Philadelphia Turns out Lights to Save Migrating Birds

C. External and Internal Lights Affect the Bird Migration

D. Lights Out Philly Program Helps Save Endangered Birds

第二节  (共5小题;每小题2分，满分10分)

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

TheHealthBenefitsofMusic

Music can have a big impact on your mental health. ____16____ But it can actually do more than just change your state of mind—music has an impact on you physically, too. Here are just a few of the transformative effects of music on your health!

It improves the cardiovascular (心血管的) health. Good music may just help your heart to be healthier. ____17____ One study found that music reduced the levels of the stress hormone cortisol in people’s systems, and reduced blood pressure.

____18____ If you’re looking to take your exercise performance to the next level you may want to consider doing it with the help of music. Studies have found listening to music as you exercise improves endurance, productivity, power, and strength. If you’ve ever wondered why professional athletes don’t listen to music during a race, it’s because they aren’t allowed to— for this very reason!

It boosts your immune system. With cold and flu season on the horizon, you may want to make sure you’ve got all your favorite songs downloaded. ____19____

It helps you sleep better. ____20____ A study showed that students who listened to relaxing classical music for 45 minutes before turning in slept significantly better than before. If you’re having trouble sleeping, try listening to a little soft music before bedtime.

It’s safe to say the next time you need a little pick-me-up, turning on your favorite tune is the smartest option—and the healthiest, too!

A. It enhances your performance.

B. It might help improve your creativity.

C. Over 30% of Americans suffer from poor sleep.

D. There has been a link found between heart health and classical music.

E. It can make you relaxed, increase your focus and help you deal with stress.

F. Some studies have found that music can change how people look at their lives.

G. Studies have found that listening to music helps to prevent infection and illness.

第三部分语言知识运用(共两节，满分45分)

第一节  (共20小题;每小题1.5分，满分30分)

阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

My mother, Donzella Washington, 80, graduated from Alabama A&M University on Dec.6 with a bachelor’s degree in social work. Along with her ____21____achievements, she made history as the oldest ____22____ in the history of Alabama A&M University.

What ____23____ me most was the challenge my mother had accepted to ____24____ her stuttering (口吃) problem, which ultimately ____25____ her to begin taking speech classes more than a decade ago.

My parents had been living on a farm in California. My mother said that her ____26____ behind going back to school was my father Jeff, who was her biggest ____27____. He was my mother’s No.1 fan. He supported everything she did, ____28____returning to school. Although my father did not have a traditional college education, he knew the ____29____ of gaining one. My mother wanted to finish her ____30____ in his honor.

However, my father ____31____ in 2010, and my mother ____32____ to Alabama to live with me two years later. The most challenging part was ____33____ her when she was missing my father badly. Those moments when she cried, all I could do was hold her and love her. I had seen my mother ____34____ from great sadness over my father’s death and ____35____ to achieve her education dream. And I was very ____36____ to be there to witness her final success.

Now, my mother says she is not slowing down so soon. She’s even ____37____ going back to school to obtain her master’s degree. She ____38____ to inspire and motivate others that. ____39____ is not a barrier. When it comes to ____40____ our dreams, it’s never too late to achieve them.

21. A. academic B. political C. musical D. scientific

22. A. servant B. librarian C. professor D. graduate

23. A. frightened B. disappointed C. impressed D. confused

24. A. analyze B. solve C. discuss D. realize

25. A. led B. allowed C. advised D. invited

26. A. possibility B. motivation C. excuse D. pressure

27. A. educator B. examiner C. instructor D. supporter

28. A. especially B. similarly C. generally D. usually

29. A. purpose B. chance C. value D. difficulty

30. A. degree B. task C. housework D. speech

31. A. showed up B. passed away C. set off D. fell ill

32. A. hurried B. rushed C. returned D. moved

33. A. commenting B. ignoring C. comforting D. reminding

34. A. learn B. recover C. escape D. keep

35. A. agree B. pretend C. struggle D. refuse

36. A. proud B. patient C. brave D. curious

37. A. enjoying B. considering C. regretting D. imagining

38. A. fails B. hesitates C. expects D. chooses

39. A. knowledge B. wealth C. health D. age

40. A. pursuing B. revealing C. explaining D. expressing

第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

Three Chinese astronauts landed in a northern desert on Sunday after six months in space. They had been working ____41____ (complete) the basic structure of the Tiangong space station, a symbol of the country’s ____42____ (ambition) space program. A capsule carrying commander Chen Dong and astronauts Liu Yang and Cai Xuzhe touched down at a landing site in the Gobi Desert in northern China at approximately 8:10 pm.

Before leaving the Chinese space station, they had spent almost five days with three ____43____ (colleague) who arrived on Wednesday in the Shenzhou-15 spaceship, ____44____ (mark) the first time China had six astronauts in space at the same time.

The astronauts ____45____ (carry) out of the capsule by medical workers about 40 minutes after landing. They all wore smiles and appeared to be in good condition, waving ____46____ (happy) at the workers at the landing site.

The three astronauts were part of the Shenzhou-14 spaceship, ____47____ was launched in June. After their arrival at Tiangong space station, Chen, Liu and Cai performed three spacewalks, held a live science lecture from the station and conducted ____48____ range of experiments.

Tiangong space station will be the only space station still up and running in the universe one day ____49____ the International Space Station _____50_____ (retire) by around the end of the decade as expected.

第四部分写作(共两节，满分35分)

第一节短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分)

51. 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加词。

删除：把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。

修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意：1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;

2.只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。

Last Sunday, I was on my way home after doing some shoppings in a supermarket. I stood on the road side and watched the traffic careful. When I saw it was safe, I begin to cross the road. All of sudden, a motorbike came over knocking me down but my things went all over. Thankfully, he was driving slowly and I had my leg injure a little. The driver apologized to me and called a taxi to send me to the nearer hospital in the town. I visited to a doctor on duty, and I was told there was something serious. The motorbike driver insisted on my paying the money for my medical examination, but I refused.

第二节书面表达(满分25分)

52. 假定你李华，你校英文网站将开设一个新专栏，旨在加强师生线上沟通。请你给外教 Jason写封邮件，请他帮忙指导。邮件内容包括：

1.表达问候；

2.介绍新专栏；

3.指导内容。

注意：

1.词数100左右；

2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。

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听力答案：1〜5 CBABA  6〜10 ACCBB  11〜15 AACCB  16〜20 BCAAC