2023台州高三下学期二模试题英语含解析（含听力）

台州市2023届高三第二次教学质量评估试题

英语

本试卷满分150分, 考试时间120分钟。

注意事项: 微信公众号IAI English

1. 答卷前, 考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。

2. 作答选择题时, 选出每小题答案后, 用. 2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑; 如需改动, 用橡皮擦干净后, 再选涂其他答案。答案不能答在试卷上。

3. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答, 答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上; 如需改动, 先划掉原来的答案, 然后再写上新的答案; 不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。

4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后, 将答题卡交回。

第一部分听力(共两节, 满分30分)

做题时, 先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后, 你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节(共5小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后, 你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1. What does the woman want to do?

A. Stay indoors.          B. Change her clothes.          C. Find her sunglasses.

2. Where does the conversation probably take place?

A. In a lab.          B. In a library.          C. In a bank.

3. How does Harry feel now?

A. Tired.          B. Thankful.          C. Excited.

4. What is the weather like?

A. Wet.          B. Warm.          C. Cold.

5. What are the speakers mainly talking about?

A. A class.          B. A present.          C. A friend.

第二节(共15小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分22.5分)

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前, 你将有时间阅读各个小题, 每小题5秒钟; 听完后, 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料, 回答第6、7题。

6. What is probably the woman?

A. A baker.          B. A waitress.          C. A ticket seller.

7. Why is the man in a hurry?

A. To see a movie.          B. To try dessert.          C. To get tickets.

听第7段材料, 回答第8至10题。

8. What does the woman dislike about the new apartment?

A. Its price.          B. Its size.          C. Its location.

9. How much rent will the speakers pay per month?

A. 2,000yuan.          B. 2,500 yuan.          C. 3,000 yuan.

10. What is the woman going to do next?

A. Make a call.          B. Start packing.          C. See an apartment.

听第8段材料, 回答第11至13题。

11. Where probably are the speakers?

A. In an office.          B. At a shopping mall.          C. At a bus stop.

12. What time is it now?

A. 7:45a. m.          B. 8:05 a. m.          C. 8:15a. m.

13. What does the woman decide to do?

A. Wait for a ride.          B. Keep walking ahead.          C. Go for a bike ride.

听第9段材料, 回答第14至16题。

14. Where does Elena live now?

A. In Russia.          B. In France.          C. In Italy.

15. What did Elena do to improve her drawing techniques in 2018?

A. She attended classes.

B She took part in contests.

C. She learned from her father.

16. What does Elena plan to do next?

A. Collect artworks.          B. Hold an exhibition.          C. Organize competitions、

听第10段材料, 回答第17至20题。

17. What is the speaker probably doing?

A. Hosting a program.          B. Recommending books.          C. Making an announcement.

18. How long will the book fair last?

A. For four days.          B. For five days.          C. For six days.

19. What can we say about LeUyen Pham?

A. She is an author and illustrator.

B. She will visit the school in person.

C. She won the 2021National Book Award.

20. Why does the school hold the book fair?

A. To collect money.          B. To encourage students.          C. To communicate with parents.

第二部分阅读(共两节, 满分50分)

第一节(共15小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分)

阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中, 选出最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

A

Family: Poems—by Mr. Keith Keenan

·Kindle $0.00, Hardcover $12.50, Paperback $7.00

The poet describes personal thoughts and feelings in a lyrical journey to understand and celebrate his family. “Family” looks at living honestly in places, not illusions. Figurative language, a love of metaphor and sharp images all make the poems work.

Time to Heal—by Alexandra Vasiliu

·Kindle $9.99, Hardcover $21.94, Paperback $12.64

From the bestselling author comes an inspirational poetry book about love, healing, and growth. It is a reminder to strive to change for the better. Featuring more than 130 uplifting poems and black-and-white illustrations, it’s a great companion when you need to embrace self-love and personal transformation.

Seeds from a Birch Tree —by Clark Strand

·Kindle $9.99, Hardcover $26.80, Paperback $16.95

Seeds From a Birch Tree makes nature into a spiritual path. Its message was simple: Haiku teaches us to return to nature by following the seasons—seventeen syllables at a time. With its mix of poetry and memoir(回忆录), the book guides us to the joy hidden in plain sight, leading us to get into a good state of body and mind.

A Poem for Every Day—by Allie Esiri

·Kindle $9.99, Hardcover $28.05, Audio CD $18.05

This audio book is a collection of 366 poems which link to events on key dates—funny for April Fool’s Day, festive for Christmas. This is the perfect gift for poetry lovers of all ages. These poems are informative, peaceful, and energetic!

There are a large number of poetry collections on Amazon. More information, please click here.

1. How much will you pay if you are to buy a hardcover edition of haiku?

A. S12.50. B. $21.94. C. $26.80. D. S28.05.

2. According to the text, what can we learn about the books?

A. Family: Poems features plain language.

B. Time to Heal features colorful illustrations.

C. Seeds from a Birch Tree focuses on human nature.

D. A Poem for Every Day focuses on festive celebrations.

3. Where is this text probably taken from?

A. A website. B. A magazine.

C. A book review. D. A travel brochure.

B

Air Tag, a small Bluetooth-and-GPS-enabled device, was released by Apple in April 2021. This small device aimed at making our lives easier was originally designed to end the trouble of losing keys, wallets or other little objects. However, it may become the “perfect” tracking tool if in the wrong hands. My ex-husband was an early adopter of the AirTag. He and I had a falling out, leading to a divorce battle. In order to win custody battle, he used the little device to track me.

As a tech giant, the Apple company brought great convenience to the users, including me. I had never given a thought to tracking via Air Tag until it happened to me. So I started scanning stories about Air Tag. I was surprised to find that I was not alone. There were so many people tracked by these seemingly innocent electronic tags in their daily life. AirTag which was originally launched for a better life should have such a dark side in the wrong hands.

People have found that the digital device has the potential for abuse. What matters is how to avoid its danger. Apple has released updates to the AirTag’s functionality very quickly since they hit the market. Meanwhile, Apple has also improved its customer service to deal with the bugs of this kind. If you find an unwanted AirTag following you, don’t panic. Just disable it. You can follow the prompts on your Apple device to learn more about disabling the device. Once you’ve completed the above step, the tag’s original owner can’t keep track of you any more.

Almost every digital technology creates security issues. Nobody can go and live in a cave to remain unaffected. While enjoying its convenience, you need to be aware of the risks it poses, and know how to deal with them. Prevention is more effective in security issues than fixes. After all, a stitch in time saves nine.

4. What is the original function of AirTag?

A. To track one’s location secretly. B. To help find one’s easily lost items.

C. To locate one’s phone accurately. D. To ensure the safety of one’s phone.

5. Why did the author scan stories about AirTag?

A. Her ex-husband tracked her via AirTag.

B. Many people suffered from security problem.

C. AirTag was a newly released electronic device.

D. She intended to know about its great convenience.

6. What is advised to do when you are followed by an unwanted AirTag?

A. Have it updated. B. Make it unable to work.

C. Pay no attention to it. D. Contact its original owner.

7. What are the last two paragraphs mainly about?

A. People should keep pace with the times.

B. People should use technology in a proper way.

C. People should handle potential digital risks actively.

D. People should bear the responsibility to fix the bugs bravely.

C

Why do we choose to help one another? There are many reasons. You may be a selfless person or lending a hand may be a cultural expectation.

Now, researchers are raising the possibility that good sleep may be a wonderful ingredient that promotes the alacrity to offer help between human beings. Indeed the better sleep you have, the more willing you will be to lend a hand. And a surprising new set of research studies have found that sleep loss may affect our generosity at different levels.

Researchers at University of California, Berkley, led three small studies to explore generosity. In one study, they exposed a group of healthy adults to a night of 8 hours of sleep and a night with no sleep. Researchers scanned the participants’ brains after each night. After a sleepless night, areas of the brain involved in empathy and helping behavior were less active. In fact, when the study participants were sleepless at night, 78% of them demonstrated a reduction in the desire to help others.

In the next study, researchers tracked 136 people through online questionnaires and sleep diaries for a few days. They wanted to see if nightly variations in sleep affected their desire to help others. They found that, when sleep quality worsened from one night to the next, there was a major decrease in “helping choices” and vice versa.

The third study looked at how sleep loss affected generosity on a larger scale. The researchers analyzed data from over 3 million charitable donations made in the U.S.. They focused on donations during the transition to Daylight Saving Time(DST)in spring each year. During the spring time change, we lose an hour of sleep.

Interestingly, researchers found a 10% drop in donations in regions that change their clocks. This drop wasn’t seen in regions that didn’t observe the time change. It showed that insufficient sleep triggered by the time change impacted donation behavior.

All these results suggest that insufficient sleep makes us less compassionate and helpful. Throughout the world, more than half of adults don’t get enough sleep during the workweek, but we should all start valuing adequate sleep rather than treating it like something optional or unproductive. If so, it will enable us to be more helpful and to be the best versions of ourselves.

8. What’s the writing purpose of the first paragraph?

A. To start a heated discussion. B. To introduce the topic of the text.

C. To present a social phenomenon. D. To show the author’s conclusion.

9. What does the underlined word “alacrity” mean in the second paragraph?

A. Understanding. B. Ability.

C. Awareness. D. Eagerness.

10. What can we infer from the three studies?

A. People observing DST are likely to donate less.

B. People change their clocks to have more empathy.

C. Sleep quality determines the desire to give a hand.

D. Sleep loss can severely affect helping behavior.

11. Which of the following is the best title for the text?

A. Sleep Triggers Behavior B. Adequate Sleep: A Healthy Person

C. Sleep Influences Generosity D. Sound Sleep: A Productive Person

D

Alarming levels of dangerous chemicals known as Perfluorinated Alkylated Substances (PFAS) were discovered in food packaging at a number of well-known fast-food restaurants and grocery store chains, a new report found. The report comes more than two years into the Covid-19 pandemic, when the public has relied heavily on takeout and grocery deliveries.

Often called “forever chemicals” because they do not break down in the environment, PFAS are used in food packaging to prevent grease (油脂) and water from soaking through food wrappers and cups. PFAS can also be found in the ink used to print logos and instructions on food containers.

The US Centers for Disease Control and Prevention calls exposure to PFAS a “public health concern”, citing that the human-made chemicals can harm the immune system and reduce a person’s resistance to infectious diseases.

Regulatory limits for how much PFAS food packaging should contain can vary greatly. For instance, a new law in California set the limit at less than 100 ppm. “Compared to America, Denmark sets a much lower regulatory limit of 20 ppm with great success,” said Xenia Trier, an expert at the European Environment Agency. “It does work to set limits and enforce them. PFAS do migrate from the paper into the food. Even though it was not 100%, we still saw considerable transmission. In general, transmission from packaging to food is increased as the temperature of the food rises. It is the same with the time spent in wrapping materials.” Trier told NBS, one of the major American mass-media companies.

In response to the issue, Whole Foods became the first grocery chain to publicly commit to remove PFAS from takeout containers and bakery paper. Many other companies followed suit. Experts say people who want to avoid PFAS in their takeout and food delivery packaging should favor companies that have promised to remove the chemicals. “As soon as you receive your takeout, you’d better take food out of the container immediately, and never reheat food in its original container. Instead, remove your food and heat it in ceramic (陶瓷的) or glass containers.” Trier said.

12. What can we learn about PFAS in food packaging?

A. They have been used for two years.

B. They do little harm to consumers’ health.

C. They are used to break down the chemicals.

D. They can make wrappers resistant to grease and water.

13. What is Xenia Trier’s attitude to setting a lower limit of PFAS?

A. Favorable. B. Neutral.

C. Ambiguous. D. Opposed.

14. What does the underlined word “it” refer to in paragraph 4?

A. Considerable migration of grease and water.

B. PFAS transmission from packaging to food.

C. Wrapper exposure to high food temperature.

D. Regulatory limits concerning food packaging.

15 What is the main idea of the text?

A. Food packaging contains dangerous chemicals.

B. Consumers are recommended to have PFAS—free products.

C. PFAS found in food packaging has become a great concern.

D. The government has taken measures to reduce PFAS exposure.

第二节(共5小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分12.5分)

根据短文内容, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

You don’t need to be an astronomer with a giant telescope to enjoy a simple but spellbinding activity: stargazing. ___16___ It’s so interesting to discover what’s going on. With a bit of practice, and know-how from books and websites, stargazers can spot particular stars and also groups of stars.

There is plenty to take in using just your eyes but some people use a telescope for a more detailed look. For the best results, choose a clear night when the moon is not very bright. ___17___

It can be harder to see the stars in towns and cities. It is because of light pollution. The night sky is brightened by light from street lamps, shops and car headlights. The best places for stargazing are open, hilly areas or the coast. ___18___ It is our home galaxy stretching across the night sky and is best seen in summer and fall evening skies. If the full moon is up, it will be hard to see. Try going for a night hike instead! Let your eyes adjust to the moonlight and keep your flashlight turned off.

 ___19___ That is camping in a national park under a star-filled sky. Many national parks offer various night sky programs, from telescope astronomy events to full moon walks with rangers. Besides, national parks are also great places to know about the animals that are awake at night and asleep during the day. Sit quietly and listen for these creatures.

When you head out at night, always go with an adult. Dress warmly and take a blanket or a chair to sit on, plus a hot drink to warm you up. You might want to take a camera with you as well, so you can take a photo if you see something amazing in the sky. A whole new world comes alive at night and is waiting to be explored. ___20___

A. Get prepared for the wonder above.

B. Just go outside at night and look up.

C. You are supposed to avoid the full moon.

D. It also matters which direction you observe.

E. In these places, you can look for the Milky Way.

F. What is the better way to experience the great wonder?

G. Where do you prefer to have a stargazing trip at night?

第三部分  语言运用(共两节, 满分30分)

第一节  完形填空(共15小题; 每小题1分, 满分15分)

阅读下面短文, 从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中, 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

My name is Sara Li from China. Last spring, my family moved to Portland. Our ___21___ home had no yard. So my parents ___22___ an indoor garden. Mama planted seeds in pots and Papa hung them from hooks. With green vines of plants ___23___ down, the house looks rather fantastic. Jill, a gardening ___24___ living next door, spent much time at my home.

One morning, Jill and her mother came to my family. On arrival, Jill’s mother said, “Jill ___25___ your garden. She has told me so much about it.” Mama explained that she had learned how to ___26___ small space. With a glow in eyes, Jill’s mother asked ___27___ , “Can you help us with a ___28___ ? Our community wants to plant so much but our plot is very small.” Papa and Mama nodded with ___29___ .

That afternoon, everyone in the community agreed to ____30____ . Neighbors brought seeds, tools and dirt. The next day we started the project. Papa built boxes of different sizes. We filled them with ____31____ . The tallest stood against the back wall while the ____32____ was in the front. It ____33____ that all the plants would get sunlight.

All summer Jill and I worked there. Autumn approaching, we picked enough to have a cookout for the community, everyone ____34____ the joy of harvest. I was so proud that Papa and Mama ____35____ a bit of ours to Portland.

21. A. big B. green C. new D. sweet

22. A. made B. rebuilt C. explored D. decorated

23. A. sliding B. hanging C. climbing D. running

24 A. dealer B. agent C. expert D. enthusiast

25. A. spots B. admires C. expects D. examines

26. A. take up B. search for C. make use of D. fit in with

27. A. eagerly B. proudly C. casually D. patiently

28. A. routine B. project C. business D. campaign

29. A. hesitation B. respect C. gratitude D. pleasure

30. A. donate B. continue C. contribute D. dig

31. A. dirt B. water C. seeds D. tools

32. A. most beautiful B. most special C. freshest D. shortest

33. A. proved B. suggested C. guaranteed D. confirmed

34. A. showing B. sharing C. finding D. treasuring

35. A. lent B. left C. gave D. brought

第二节(共10小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分15分)

阅读下面材料, 在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。

With a history of more than 2,000 years, the Silk Route dates back to Han dynasty. Through this route, the Chinese highly ___36___ (qualify)silk made its fame to the western countries. The merchants in different regions ___37___ (seek)the opportunity of trading Chinese silk ___38___ they indeed made their fortune along this route. That route functioned ___39___ the life blood of international trade at that time. Meanwhile, the Chinese civilization ___40___ (introduce)to the Western countries and vice versa. The Silk Route was considered as a new chapter ___41___ (record)the friendship between the European and Asian peoples.

Throughout all these years, many great figures have made significant contributions to the development of the Silk Route. Today, the Silk Route has a ___42___ (poet)name called One Belt One Road, aiming to help those connected regions in culture and economy exchange with a more advanced road. The main cities alongside it are becoming ___43___ (large)and more important in helping trade and culture exchange. Many countries have gained great ___44___ (benefit)along the trading process. All in all, the ancient Silk Road is more like ___45___ historical textbook for everyone to read and to know about what happened during that ancient time. It has been playing a significant role in the development of the civilizations of China.

第四部分写作(共两节, 满分40分)

第一节(满分15分)

46. 假定你是李华，你校将组织师生进行一次远足活动，请用英语给外教Jason写一封邮件邀请他一起参加，内容包括：1. 活动时间和地点；2. 注意事项；3. 表达期待。

注意：1. 词数80左右；2. 可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。

Dear Jason,

_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Yours, 

Li Hua

第二节(满分25分)

47. 阅读下面材料, 根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段, 使之构成一篇完整的短文。

My best friend Carla Hernandez called me on Thursday afternoon. “Daniel, meet me in the park near the playground in five minutes. I have a great idea!” This worried me because Carla’s great ideas almost always meant big trouble for me!

I dashed outside and jogged to the park. When I saw Carla, my heart sank because her large dog Perro was with her. I liked everything about Carla except Perro. I had never had a pet in my house, and I felt uncomfortable and nervous around animals. But I was embarrassed to say I was afraid of Carla’s dog.

Upon my arrival, Carla smiled in a joyful voice. “Isn’t this the perfect location for a pet show?” I was surprised at her words. Carla explained to me that all the kids in the neighborhood could show off their pets’ talents and demonstrated the things they did well. Besides, there were plenty of comfortable benches for our parents and friends to sit on as audience. Carla added that I could be the announcer since I didn’t have a pet for the show. What she said directly affected my mood because crowds always made me nervous and unsure. Looking into her eyes, I apologized, “I’m sorry, but that’s impossible! Besides, I don’t like animals, remember?”

“That’s nonsense,” said Carla. “There’s nothing to be concerned about because you’ll be great! ”Just at that time, Perro leaped up, slobbered all over me, and almost knocked me down.“ Yuck. Down, Perro! Stay! ”I shouted. Perro sat as still as a statue.“ Wow, you’re good at that, ”Carla raised her voice excitedly. "Now let’s get started because we have a lot to do.”

With her encouragement I decided to have a try. After going back home, I couldn’t wait to practise announcing each pet’s act. By Saturday morning I had practiced hundreds of times. However, my stomach was doing flip flops by the time the audience arrived at the park. The size of the crowd made me feel even more anxious.

注意:

1. 续写词数应为150左右;

2. 请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。

Paragraph 1: When the show began, I took a deep breath and announced the first pet.

_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Paragraph 2: Then it was Carla and Perro’s turn.

_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________