2023徐州高二下学期期中联考英语试卷含答案

高二英语答案                       

第一部分  听力

1-5 CCBBA    6-10 BAAAC  11-15 CCABA   16-20 BAACA

第二部分 阅读

第一节: 21-25BAADC    26-30 BBBCC       31-35 DCDDD

第二节: 36-40 BDCGA 

第三部分 语言运用

第一节: 41-45 ABCAD   46-50 CCADB   51-55 BCDAA

第二节:56. missions   57. has received  58. and     59. were       60. officially

61. with       62. a         63. which     64. is expected   65. to form

第四部分 写作

第一节:应用文写作

One possible version

Dear Jack,

How are you doing? I'd like to invite you to join us for the reading festival of our school, which is scheduled to be held in our lecture hall on Monday.

According to the arrangement, our headmaster will give us a speech, appealing to us students to read more classic books. After that, some students will share their experience with us on reading. And you are welcomed to share your ideas of the activity with us. It's a good chance for us to enrich our knowledge.

Your early reply is highly appreciated.

                                                                       Yours,

Li Hua

第二节: 读后续写

Para.1: We immediately put the boy in the ambulance. We knew that if we stopped even for a second, the boy would lack oxygen and suffer brain damage. The boy's mother, still scared, followed us into the ambulance. Amanda held a resuscitator mask over the child's face. I attempted to gain intravenous access. I pushed the sharp needle into the child's arm. The young man went to the hospital with us and helped us comfort the mother. About 15 minutes later, the ambulance arrived at the hospital and the medical workers had already prepared, sending the boy to the operating room immediately.

Para.2: We met the boy six weeks later. When we saw the boy running towards us, everyone's face lighted up with wide smiles. The boy happily extended his arms for a hug. Amanda and I hugged the boy happily. The boy's mother thanked us again and and again."He couldn't unlock the doorway, but that day he could...Thanks for getting here on time. Thank you so much, the mother said and tears filled her eyes. We spent an hour together, taking photos and playing. I was amazed that life is precious.

试卷评分标准

第一部分：略

第二部分：略

第三部分：略

第四部分：写作

第一节：应用文写作

（一）评分原则：

1．本题总分为15分，按4个档次给分。

2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言质量初步确定其档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。

3．评分时应考虑：内容是否完整，条理是否清楚，交际是否得体，语言是否准确。

4．拼写、标点符号或书写影响内容表达时，应视其影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。

5．词数少于50，从总分中减去1分。

（二）各档次的给分范围和要求：

第一档（13分～15分）完全完成了试题规定的任务。内容完整，条理清楚；交际得体，表达时充分考虑到了交际对象的需求；体现出较强的语言运用能力。完全达到了预期的写作目的。

第二档（9分～12分）基本完成了试题规定的任务。内容、条理和交际等方面基本符合要求；所用语法和词汇满足了任务的要求；语法或用词方面有一些错误，但不影响理解。基本达到了预期的写作目的。

第三档（4分～8分）未恰当完成试题规定的任务。内容不完整；所用词汇有限，语法或用词方面的错误影响了对写作内容的理解。未能清楚地传达信息。

四档（1分～3分）未完成试题规定的任务。写了少量相关信息；语法或用词方面错误较多，严重影响了对写作内容的理解。0分未传达任何信息；写的内容与要求无关。

第二节：读后续写

（一）评分原则：

1．总分25分，按5档给分。

2．评分时，先根据所给短文的内容和语言初步确定所属档次，然后以该档次要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。

3．词数少于130词，总分扣除2分。

4．主要从以下4个方面考虑：

 a.与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；

 b.内容丰富性；

 c.语法结构及词汇的丰富性和准确性；

 d.上下文连贯性。

5．拼写与标点符号准确性也是评分的一个重要方面。

6．若书写较差，分数降低一档。

（二）读后续写评分档次标准

试题详解

第一部分：听力原文

Text 1

M: Is Jane looking forward to coming home for the summer?

W: She's counting the days.

Text 2

M: The new T-shirts should arrive today. If I'm pleased with the quality, I think I'll order fifty more.

W: Do we really need to order more?

M: With the yearly autumn sale starting next month, business should be on the rise.

W: That's true.

Text 3

M: Could I get another cup of coffee?

W: Sorry, sir. We're going to take off.

M: Oh, in that case I'd better fasten my seat belt.

Text 4

W: Hello, I'd like some coffee with nonfat milk, please.

M: Okay, coming right up. And would you like something to eat？

W: No, thank you. Just the coffee, please.

Text 5

W: David, I hardly recognize you in this picture! You look just like your brother！

M: Yeah, a lot of people have told me that. It's probably because I had just gotten my hair cut. Text 6

M: It is a little hot today. It is forecast that the temperature will rise to 30 degrees centigrade. It seems summer is coming.

W: It can be really hot in spring here.

M: You're right. I have gained a lot of weight last winter. I need to lose some weight.

W: I can't wait for summer to come. I like wearing dresses.

M: It seems that you have to join me to lose weight. How about cycling together?

W: Sounds great!

Text 7

W: Hello, Jay. Did you get back from holiday on Friday or Saturday？

M: Neither. I came back on Sunday.

W: Where did you stay during your holiday?

M: We stayed in an excellent hotel right on the beach.

W: Wow, what did you do there?

M: There were tennis courts in it, but you know I'm no good at tennis. But the swimming pool was so great that I went there every day. Of course my dad spent a lot of time playing golf there. And at dusk, I also went for a walk with my mum to enjoy the sunset on the beach.

W：So was it a good holiday？

M：Sure. The hotel was really comfortable and not too noisy. It wasn't expensive either, so we may go back again.

Text 8

W: Hi, Edward. How are you feeling?

M: I'm much better now. Thank you.

W: How's your leg?

M: Hmm, still hurts.

W: What happened? How did you break your leg? Did you slip on a stone or water？

M: No, I played football with some friends yesterday. Suddenly, I slipped on banana skins and fell and broke my leg.

W: I have something to tell you, but please don't get angry with me.

M: OK, I'll try.

W: I went to watch you play yesterday. I was eating bananas and couldn't find a rubbish box for the skins.

M: And you threw the skins onto the playing field？

W: Well...I did. You slipped on the banana skins and fell. I'm sorry.

M: Never mind. I won't have to go to school, but I'll miss the football practice.

Text 9

M: I think it's a great idea. Studying abroad offers plenty of new opportunities. Are you planning on going abroad？

W: Yes, I hope so. I'm studying for my IELTS right now.

M: Which country do you want to go to？

W: I'd like to study in the UK, but it's really expensive.

M: Oh, there are a lot of world-famous universities there. Have you applied to any schools there？

W: Yes. I received a conditional offer from Oxford University a few days ago.

M: Congratulations! That's excellent news. What do you have to do to get an unconditional offer？

W: I have to get an IELTS score of 7.5 overall. Do you think I can do that?

M: If you study hard, I don't see why you shouldn't. Have you received any other offers？

W: I was also accepted into Yale University and Sydney University.

M: If you're worried about money, the cost of living is the lowest in America. However, if you go to Oxford University, you'll probably be able to get any job you want in the future.

W: I just can't decide where to go. It's not an easy decision to make.

M: If I were you, I'd apply for some scholarships before I decide. Whatever you do, I know you'll succeed.

Text 10

Hello, everyone! My name is Harry Mar-shall, and I want to tell you about my recent school trip to a place called Markham. Our teacher, Mr Griffiths, who actually teaches us maths, is also really interested in geography, so he wanted to take us and he thought we'd get material for other subjects like art and photography, too. I was surprised to find that the cave we were in was completely dry, apart from a stream that ran right through it, which I wanted to examine a bit more closely. And there was also a waterfall that dropped into a black hole at the back of the cave. Needless to say, no one really wanted to explore that part! The guide also asked us what different shapes we could see in the rocks. Many people thought one rock was shaped like a snake, and several in my group thought they saw a horse in another rock, but I didn't manage to see anything more exciting than a rock that looked a bit like a rabbit. The final part of our visit was to an exhibition about the history of the caves. We saw videos about how the caves were explored, and photos of the brave divers who first went into the caves. But I was even more impressed by the machines we were shown. They really brought the history of the place to life for me.

第二部分  阅读（共两节，满分50分）

第一节：阅读理解

A篇 【文本大意】介绍了春天的一些赏花胜地。

21. B 细节理解题。根据文章第三段很容易找到观赏郁金香的胜地是荷兰。

22. A 细节理解题。在Akureyri, Iceland的段落中：Nearby, travellers find short hiking trails and bird watching sites in the Kjarnaskógur Forest, daring ski slopes, and a local obsession with junk food. The most popular is a massive burger stuffed with French fries, called the Akureyringur.我们可以得知冰岛，游客可以徒步旅行、看鸟、滑雪或者吃垃圾食品。因此B为正确答案。

23. A。推理判断题。文章介绍了春季的几个赏花胜地，因此出现在网站的旅游板块。

B篇 【文本大意】听莫扎特的音乐对孩子智力的提升没多大影响。

24. D 推理判断题。根据文章的第一段可知，那些支持艺术教育的人，售卖莫扎特音乐的零售商还有孕妇都可能认可莫扎特效应。因此D为正确答案。

25. C 细节理解题。根据文章第三段的最后一句话：Campbell’s claims about the amazing powers of Mozart’s music were repeated endlessly in the media and sped up enthusiasm for Mozart-based enrichment activities.可以得知媒体不断地重复Campbell关于莫扎特音乐神奇力量的论断加速了人们对听莫扎特音乐行为的痴迷。

26. B词义猜测题。根据文章的最后一段：Since then, scientists have examined the claim that Mozart boosts intelligence and found no evidence for it。可以得知莫扎特音乐可以得知莫扎特音乐可以提升智力并没有什么科学证据。因此这个单词的意思是“微不足道的”。选B合适。

27. B 写作意图题。纵观全文，文章主要是想纠正一个育儿方面的误区。

C篇 【文本大意】介绍了在某些方面比人类皮肤更有优越性的人造皮肤。

28. B 细节理解题。根据文章的第二段可知：这种人造皮肤可以感知物体是否在附近并且能够识别物体的制造材料。因此，B为正确选项。
29. C  细节理解题。根据问题的信号词定位到文章第四段：The sensing performance of the capacitor, which Wang claims is between 10 and 100 times more sensitive than a standard capacitor. 可以得知应用在人工皮肤中的电容比普通电容要灵敏很多。其他各个选项细节上均跟原文有误差。
30. C 推理判断题。根据文章倒数第二段Jonathan Aitken 说的话...but at present the skin relies on machine learning techniques to identify how the object it detects compared with data on known materials.但是，这种人工皮肤依赖于机器学习技术来识别物体的，那就证明还不够智能会，因此还有提升空间。
31. D 文章标题猜测题。文章介绍了这种新型的近距离免接触就能识别物体的皮肤，因此D为正确答案。

D篇 【文本大意】介绍了研究发现，早期人类使用过的工具可能不一定是特意制造的。

32. C 细节理解题。根据第一段中：巴西卷尾猴在岩石中制造出了石头薄片用来打击食物和挖掘。但是这些石头薄片又不是特意制造的。因此C为正确答案。

33. D 细节理解题。根据第二段最后一句话：During 100 hours of footage(镜头), the team witnessed monkeys accidentally creating flakes as they struck nuts between two stones and then leaving the broken stones to find new, whole stones.可知在100小时的镜头中，科学团队观察到了猴子在两块石头间击打坚果时意外制造了石头薄片。第三段开头又提到了那正是在早期的研究中短尾猴做的。因此，D是正确答案。

34. D 推理判断题。根据文章第三段：The monkeys’ thin, flat, wide stone flakes－ranging from 1.3 to 7.9 centimetres in length－were “almost the same” with flakes that were associated with ancient humans up to 3.3 million years ago.可知猴子意外制造的石头薄片跟早期人类的相关的石头薄片几乎是一样的。因此D为正确答案。

35. D 推理判断题。根据文章最后一段：But what our study shows is that we can’t be 100 per cent certain that every single flake in the early Stone Age archaeological record was intentionally made. There may be a component within that record that’s unintentional.我们可以得知我们的研究不能百分百确定在早期石器时代记载中的每块石头薄片都是故意制造的。还有部分是非故意制造的。因此D为正确答案。

第二节 七选五

【文本大意】讲述了年长的作者想给年轻时的自己的一些忠告 。

36. B 设空处位段末。根据上下文的内容可以，这里句子功能主要是启下。自己想给自己几点忠告。
37. D设空处位于段中。根据句式一致原则，选出D。
38. C设空处位于段首。根据下文，尤其是最后一句话Achieve your goals one by one，可知作者希望年轻时的自己做事时能一件一件完成，C正确。
39. G设空处位于段末。此空设在段末做到总结全段的作用，和句首前后呼应：你可以提前做计划，但是要预想到计划可能会发生变化。
40. A 设空在句中。此空呼应段首句，没有确定人生目标没有关系。A为正确答案。

第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）

第一节：完形填空

【文本大意】作者通过自己的经历介绍了成功对他究竟意味着什么。

41. A 考查名词辨析：空格前意思为不同人对成功有不同的解读，因此这些不同的对成功的定义让我不知道真正的成功可能是什么。因此这里选择“定义”。

42. B 考查副词辨析：这里指当我走进初中历史课堂时，我知道我的生活被彻底改变了。选择B。

43. C 考查动词辨析：这里指老师对历史的爱以及我对接下来要学的知识的兴奋唤醒了隐藏在我内心的一些未知的事物。C符合题意。

44. A 考查形容词辨析：这里指我喜欢历史，每个部分都喜欢。

45. D 考查动词辨析：此处的意思是我知道从幼儿园以来我为自己计划好的生活已经改变了。下文47题前一句话也提到了作者是个有计划的人。D为正确答案。

46. C 考查名词辨析：这里指航空航天工程对我来说也失去它的吸引力。

47. C 考查动词辨析：此处意思为我这个一直都有计划人第一次没有了计划。那么此处作者的心情应该是惊慌害怕的。

48. A 考查动词辨析：根据上下文可知，学习历史让我觉得快乐。在这里pursue可以解释为从事，致力于。

49. D 考查介词辨析：我的老师和我的朋友们帮我度过了这个难关，through正有此意。

50. B 考查名词辨析：从下文可以看出他们的帮助使我的生活重新井然有序，因此给予的帮助可能是人生道路方面的建议。

51. B 考查名词辨析：这里的path指成功的道路。

52. C 考查名词辨析：呼应文章的主题，success。

53. D 考查形容词辨析：这里其实强调历史老师对历史的爱以及我对所要学的历史知识的兴奋让我爱上了历史，因此作者是偶然间爱上历史的，属于非常寻常的方式。

54. A 考查动词辨析：这里指成功由什么来衡量，A为正确答案。

55. A 考查形容词辨析：这里指创造一个让未来的孩子们自豪的世界。

第二节：语法填空

【文本大意】文章主要讲述了中国征集2023年载人航天任务的图标。

56. missions考查名词的复数, 前面有提示词three。
57. has received考查时态。根据前面的时间信号词：since the call out for logo designs on Feb 15，此处选用现在完成时态。

58. and考查连词，空格前后属于并列关系。    

59. were考查主谓一致，空格前which指代three logos, 所以是复数。      

60. officially查考词性转换。此处用副词来修饰动词release。

61. with考查短语。此处出现短语be filled with。     

62. a考查冠词。这里的Kun这种神兽第一次提及，用a。        

63. which考查从句。根据上下文，这里使用非限制性定语从句，指代物，使用which。 

64. is expected考查被动语态。这里指天舟六号货船被预计在五月份发射。  

65. to form考查非谓语。在这里表示目的，用to do。

第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）