2023年浙江省杭州市临安区中考一模英语试题(含答案)
展开2022学年第二学期中考模拟英语试题卷
考生须知:
1.本试卷满分120分,考试时间100分钟。
2.答题前,在答题纸上写姓名和准考证号,并在试卷首页的指定位置写上姓名和座位号。
3.必须在答题纸的对应答题位置上答题,写在其他地方无效。1至50小题在答题纸上涂黑作答,答题方式详见答题纸上的说明。
4.做听力题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有1分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。
5.考试结束后,试卷和答题纸一并上交。
第I卷
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你有10秒钟的时间来回答相关小题和阅读下一小题,每段对话仅读一遍。
1.What’s the weather like today?
A. Sunny. B. Cloudy. C. Rainy.
2. What will the two speakers do together this evening?
A. See a film. B. Clean the house. C. Do homework.
3. Where will Alex go tomorrow?
A. To Shanghai. B. To Beijing. C. To Guangzhou.
4. What’s the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Mother and son. B. Doctor and patient. C. Teacher and student.
5. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. In a shop. B. In a restaurant. C. In a library.
第二节(共10小题,每小题2分,满分20分)
听下面三段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你有时间阅读各小题,每小题5秒钟,听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6至8三个小题。
6. What was Alice doing at half past two yesterday afternoon?
A. She was giving a report.
B. She was listening to a report.
C. She was preparing for a report.
7. What is the report about?
A. The food and health. B. The invention and life. C. The science and technology.
8. Which invention is useful according to Alice?
A. The telephone. B. The plane. C. The Internet.
听下面一段对话,回答第9至11三个小题。
9. How often does Gina go to the old people’s home?
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Once a month.
10. What does Gina often do at the old people’s home?
A. Looks after pets. B. Cleans the rooms. C. Reads the newspaper.
11. How will the boy go to the old people’s home next Sunday?
A. By bus. B. On foot. C. By bike.
听下面一段独白,回答第12至15四个小题。
12. How long will the visitors stay in the city?
A. For three days. B. For four days. C. For five days.
13. When can the visitors have free breakfast?
A. 7:30 a.m. B. 6:30 a.m. C. 9:00 a.m.
14. Where can the visitors swim and play tennis?
A. On the second floor. B. On the third floor. C. On the fourth floor.
15. What is the telephone number of the front desk?
A. 65217321. B. 65217211. C. 65217312.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出最佳选项。
A
A blog by Frank, aged 15
I didn’t like attention drawn to myself in class. Unless assigned (指定) a seat by the teacher, I always chose to sit at the back of the classroom.
All these changed after I joined a sports team. It began when a teacher suggested I join a Ping-Pong team. At first I refused because I couldn’t even play Ping-Pong. But the teacher kept encouraging me “going for it”, so I decided to give a try.
Getting up the courage to go to the tryouts (选拔赛) was only the half of it. Luckily, I passed them. Before attending the practice sessions (练习赛), all the players need to know the rules of the game. I was the only one “new” at the game, so I decided to do my best at each training. Soon I knew the rules and the “moves”. Being part of a team was fun and encouraging. With time, I learned how to play and made friends in the process. I never had so much fun and was so confident!
Now I have more self-confidence in myself. Every time I meet problems, my teacher’s “going for it” rings in my ears.
16. Who encouraged Frank to join a Ping-Pong team?
A. His teacher. B. His friends. C. His parents. D. His classmates.
17. What need Frank do before attending the practice sessions?
A. Learn to encourage others. B. Learn the rules.
C. Learn how to make friends. D. Learn how to play.
18. What does this passage want to tell us?
A. Joining sports teams is helpful. B. Go for it, and we will make it.
C. Team spirit is very important. D. Pay more attention to study.
B
When did the first man appear? Although early humans didn’t leave any written records, they left many paintings on the walls of the caves (洞穴) where they lived. From these paintings, we know that early humans walked on four limbs. Also, they did not live at one place but moved from place to place in search of food and water.
Without any tools, early humans used stones and wood to dig and cut their food. They also used these to protect themselves from animals. Because stones were used to make tools, this age was called Stone Age.
With time going, tools made of stones and wood were replaced (代替) with metal ones. Metals(金属) were also used for farming and making knives.
The first fire that early humans noticed was natural fire caused by lightning. With fire, early humans could now light up dark caves. They could keep themselves warm during cold weather and cook meat. Also the fire could drive animals away.
Early humans noticed new trees growing from the seeds (种子) that fell to the ground from the fruits. This gave them the idea that they could make their own food by planting seeds, which led to farming. With the beginning of farming, early humans began to live in one place. They moved out of the caves and lived on farms and near the fields together, then the first villages appeared.
Raising animals changed the life of early humans. The wild dogs were probably the first animal to be raised. As time went, goats, sheep, cows, and horses were kept, too. This led to herding (畜牧业).
19. Why did early humans have to move from place to place?
A. To look for food and water. B. To look for stones to make tools .
C. To look for seeds to plant trees. D. To look for a safer place to live in.
20. What did early humans do with fire?
A. Make knives. B. Drive animals away.
C. Plant seeds. D. Raise animals.
21. When did early humans begin to live in one place?
A. When they could make tools. B. When they could light up dark caves.
C. When they knew how to farm. D. When they knew how to make fire.
22. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. The first tools were made of metals.
B. The first animal to be raised was goats.
C. The first villages appeared before Stone Age.
D. The first fire noticed by early humans was caused by lightning.
C
Sea turtles (海龟) live in the sea most of the time. The beaches in Florida are home to sea turtles. Female sea turtles come here from the ocean to lay eggs. Then they return to the ocean. However, the number of some of these turtle species is falling. They are in danger. So people in Florida work together as a community to protect them.
Some volunteers take direct action to help the turtles. They look closely at the sand to find out where the sea turtles lay their eggs. Then they help bury (埋藏) the eggs in order to save them from being destroyed. They also help people who are studying sea turtles.
Florida’s government has passed laws to save the turtles. One of these laws is “Florida’s Marine Turtle Protection Act”. This law prevents anyone from destroying sea turtles nests or eggs. It helps protect the turtles from dying out.
People also work together to save the turtles through organizations (组织) like the Sea Turtle Conservancy. For example, the bright light from buildings near the beach can influence sea turtles. The baby turtles may get lost. Many of them do not make it to the ocean and die. The Sea Turtle Conservancy works with house owners to make the lighting in their buildings sea turtle-friendly. They also advise people to turn off their lights at night if they live close to a beach.
In a word, everyone can do their part to protect sea turtles and their living places. People in Florida can work as volunteers to clean up the beaches and pick up their own litter. Everyone in the community has the power to make a difference!
23. What does the underlined word “They” in Paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Some volunteers. B. Sea turtles. C. Sea turtle eggs. D. Communities.
24. What does Florida’s government do to help sea turtles?
A. Pass laws. B. Bury the eggs. C. Study turtles. D. Set up organizations.
25. What is the fourth paragraph mainly about?
A. The bright light has a bad influence on sea turtles.
B. The baby turtles are in danger of getting lost.
C. The Sea Turtle Conservancy offers help to save sea turtles.
D. People who live near beaches turn off their lights at night.
26.Which of the following best shows the structure of the text? (P=Paragraph)?
A. B. C. D.
D
Should I repair it or replace (更换) it when a much-used home appliance (家用电器) suddenly stops working? It is hard to decide.
Almost every family has faced this difficult question. There are so many things to consider, from the cost to the influence on the environment. However, you may not have much time to make a decision just imagine living without a fridge in the summer.
According to a recent survey, more than 94 percent of the 12500 participants (参与者) chose to repair a broken appliance. Only 6 percent chose to replace the appliance. Did they make a wise decision?
I think it is helpful for you to make a decision if you can work out the current (当前的) value of your appliance. When you buy a new home appliance, write down its cost and the number of years you expect it to last. Divide the cost by the number of years and you will know how much value the appliance loses each year. When the appliance breaks down, you can quickly work out its current value. If a repair costs more than the appliance’s current value, you should buy a new one to replace the appliance. Otherwise (否则), you can consider repairing it.
According to this rule, if a washing machine breaks down when it is eight years old, you should replace it. For fridges, that number is nine. And for vacuum cleaners, it is seven. What do you think of this rule? How do you decide whether to repair a broken appliance or to replace it? Have you ever felt sorry about your decision?
27. What may most people do when a much-used home appliance suddenly stops working according to the survey?
A. Have it repaired. B. Buy a new one.
C. Go on living without it. D. Make a decision slowly.
28. What does the underlined phrase “breaks down” in paragraph 4 mean?
A. Stops working. B. Costs much. C. Loses value. D. Gets repaired.
29.After how many years should we replace a fridge when it is broken?
A. Six years. B. Seven years. C. Eight years. D. Nine years.
30. Which of the following should be the best title for the passage?
A. Is it a wise decision? B. Felt sorry about your decision?
C. Repair or Replace? D. How to repair home appliances?
第二节(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
下面文章中有五处(第31—35题)需要添加小标题。请从以下选项(A、B、C、D、E和F)中选出符合意思的标题。选项中有一项是多余选项。
How to achieve your goals?
We all have goals that are important to us. Do you want to know how to achieve them? Here are some useful tips for you.
31.____________
Set one clear goal at a time for yourself. Without a clear goal, you may feel lost at the beginning. Make sure that it has personal meaning to you. Try to remember your goal as you try to achieve it.
32. _____________
The act of writing down what you are going to do is a strong motivator (动力). Use action verbs to write down your goals. Also record what your reward will be for achieving the goal.
33. _____________
Share your goal with a trusted friend or with your family and ask them for advice. The help from others will help you keep going, especially when you meet difficulties.
34._____________
Small wins are a way to achieve a bigger goal. Break a big goal down into smaller and easier steps. You can finish your small goals in a short period each time. Small wins add up to big ones!
35._____________
Being active and open can help you face difficulties. No matter how bad the situation is, you can always find something good in it. Believing that you can achieve your goals makes all the difference in your success.
A. Stay positive (乐观)
B. Use “small wins”
C. One goal at a time
D. Give yourself time
E. Get help from others
F. Put your goals in writing
第Ⅱ卷
第三部分 英语知识运用(共两节,满分25分)
第一节∶完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分l5分)
通读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后在各题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A group of boys wanted to help some orphans (孤儿) .They planned to ___36____ money for them so that they could go to school.
They wanted to ask people for donations (捐赠). The first man they ___37____ was a person sitting on a chair. They saw him through the door. He was scolding(责备) a boy for tearing (撕扯) a piece of unused paper into ___38____. He was very angry and ___39____ the boy not to waste paper.
The boys didn’t want to waste time there. When they decided to ___40____ away, the gentleman called them in and asked them to take a seat. They didn't know ___41____ to begin. They looked at one another when the gentleman asked the ___42____ of their visit. When they ___43____ him they wanted to collect money for the orphans, he asked them to wait. As they were waiting, hot snacks were ___44____ to them.
The gentleman gave an envelope to them and asked them to open it and have a look. They are ___45____ to see a check for $1,000,000. He told them to make good use of it and donate it to the local ___46____. The gentleman knew that they were not going to enter the house ___47____ they saw him scolding the boy for wasting paper. He said to them, “I am not unkind, but saving what we have is a good ___48____. We can spend every penny we save on the most ___49____ thing this way.” That day the boys were extremely delighted. They couldn't thank ___50____ enough.
36. A. collect B. have C. save D. spend
37. A. turned on B. turned down C. turned to D. turned off
38. A. groups B. points C. books D. pieces
39. A. advised B. warned C. forced D. allowed
40. A. put B. give C. go D. stay
41. A. that B. how C. which D. what
42. A. purpose B. result C. situation D. value
43. A. asked B. thanked C. ordered D. told
44. A. bought B. served C. cooked D. prepared
45. A. surprised B. interested C. comfortable D. proud
46. A. schools B. hospitals C. cinemas D. theaters
47. A. if B. when C. until D. although
48. A. habit B. duty C. chance D. future
49. A. interesting B. embarrassing C. important D. exciting
50. A. us B. them C. her D. him
第二节:(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。将答案填写在答题纸的相应位置。
Do you find that you learn things faster than your parents sometimes? Congratulations, you could be right. Scientists have found the reason 51. ________ children learn faster than adults.
Scientists at Brown University, US, found that school-aged children learn new knowledge and 52. ________ (skill) faster than grown-ups. This has something to do with a chemical (化学物质) called GABA in our brains. It reduces brain noise so that we can learn things more 53. ______ (easy). It also 54. _________(make) new knowledge stay longer in our heads.
The scientists scanned (扫描) the brains of children (8-11 years old) and adults (18-35 years old) before, during, and after doing 55. _________ learning task. It turned out that when children learn new things, the amount of GABA rises quickly. But there’s little change in adults’ brains. This tells us why children are 56. _________(good) learners than adults.
The finding, the scientists said, should encourage teachers and parents 57. _________(let) children learn anything from riding a bike 58. _________ playing an instrument in their childhood. It could also 59. _________(use) to help adults learn faster by increasing the amount of GABA in 60. ________(they) brains. The best way of increasing GABA is to get enough sleep and exercise.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分25分)
第一节∶单词拼写(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
根据下列句意及所给的首字母,在答题纸上按照题号写出各单词的正确,完全形式(每空限填一词)
61. Aron Ralston w___________ a book called Between a Rock and a Hard Place in 2005.
62. We value the t__________ we spend with our family and friends in our everyday lives.
63. It is very helpful to be able to s___________ a foreign language.
64. Mary loves all the subjects e___________ math because she thinks it is too difficult.
65. B_________ clouds are making the sky very dark. It is going to rain.
66. My sister likes chicken and salad for d_________ in the evening.
67. John f__________ to lock the door when he left the classroom yesterday.
68. Hangzhou is one of the most beautiful c________ in the world.
69. B________ Amy and Lisa can play the drums, but Amy plays them better than Lisa.
70. J_________ is the sixth month of the year in the Western calendar.
第二节∶书面表达(共1小题,满分15分)
假定你是李平,请阅读以下邮件并回复。词数80左右,可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
Hi Li Ping!
How is everything going? I plan to be at your school for the exchange visit next term. And I can spend the Mid-Autumn Festival with you. I’m really exited about it!
Well, why am I writing right now? For one thing, I really want to know something about this Festival. Also, I am interested in Chinese traditional art forms. So could you introduce one of them to me?
Hope to hear from you soon.
Jack
Dear Jack,
Li Ping
2023年临安区初中毕业升学文化模拟考试
英语 参考答案
听力材料:
第一部分 听力 (共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你再将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 (共5小题, 每小题2分,满分10分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
Text 1:
M: What’s the weather like today?
W: It’s fine, the sun is shining and there is not a cloud in the sky.
Text 2
W: David, let's go to the cinema this evening!
M: Good idea. But I have to clean my room first. Then we can go there.
Text 3:
W: Where are you going tomorrow, Alex?
M: My parents and I plan to go to Beijing. How about you, Kate?
W: I will go to Shanghai with my friends.
Text 4:
W: Bob, you are late. You never come to school late. What’s the matter?
M: I went over my lessons late last night. I was too tired this morning.
W: OK. Don’t be late again next time.
Text 5:
W: What would you like, sir?
M: I’m not sure yet. Are there any vegetables in the beef noodles?
W: Yes, there are some tomatoes.
M: OK, I’d like the beef noodles.
第二节 (共10小题, 每小题2分,满分20分)
听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟。听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的做答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6至第8三个小题。现在,你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
M: Hi, Alice. I called you at half past two yesterday afternoon, but there was no answer.
W: Sorry, David. I was listening to a report in the school meeting hall. All the phones should be turned off.
M: What is the report about?
W: The invention and life. It is really great. You know I’m interested in all kinds of inventions.
M: Did it last long?
W: Yes, it did. It was from 2:00 to 4:30 o’clock!
M: What do you think is the most important invention?
W: The most important one? It’s really hard to decide. However, I think the Internet is very useful.
M: I agree. The plane and the telephone are also very useful.
听下面一段对话,回答第9至第11三个小题。现在,你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
M: Hey, Gina. Do you often go to the old people’s home with Kate?
W: Yeah!
M: When do you usually go there?
W: Every Sunday afternoon. Usually we stay there for two hours.
M: What do you often do?
W: I often help them clean the rooms. Kate often reads the newspapers and looks after their pets.
M: Can I go there with you next Sunday?
W: Sure. We usually go there by bike.
M: I see. I’ll get my bike ready.
听下面一段独白,回答第12至第15四个小题。现在,你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。独白连读两遍。
Ladies and gentlemen, here we are at the Green Hotel. We’ll stay here during our five-day trip. Our rooms are all on the fourth floor. You can enjoy beautiful sights of the sea in your rooms. The dining hall is on the second floor. You can have food at any time there. But remember, you can only have free breakfast from 7:00 to 8:30 in the morning. There is a sports centre on the third floor. It has a swimming pool and an indoor tennis court. You can swim or play tennis there. If you have problems, you can call the front desk at 65217321. That’s all. Hope you’ll have a wonderful holiday here!
现在你有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。
听力部分到此结束。请同学们继续做笔试部分。
参考答案:
第一部分 听力 (共两节,15小题,满分30分)
1-5 AABCB 6-10 BBCAB 11-15 CCABA
第二部分 阅读理解 (共20小题,满分40分)
16~20 ABBAB 21~25 CDAAC 26~30 CAADC 31~35 CFEBA
第三部分 英语知识运用 (共25小题,满分25分)
第一节 完形填空 (共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
36~40 ACDBC 41~45 BADBA 46~50 ABACD
第二节 语法填空 (共10小题,计10分)
51. why 52. skills 53. easily 54. makes 55.a
56. better 57. to let 58. to 59. be used 60. their
第四部分:写作(共二节, 满分25分)
第一节 单词拼写 (共10小题,计10分)
61. wrote 62. time 63. speak 64. except 65. Black
66. dinner 67. forgot 68. cities 69. Both 70. June
第二节 书面表达(共1题, 满分15分)
One possible version:
Dear Jack,
Everything is fine. I’m excited to know that you’ll come to China and we can spend the Mid-Autumn Festival together.
It falls on August 15th in Chinese lunar calendar every year. And it’s a time for the whole family to get together. We usually have a big dinner, admire the moon and share mooncakes. As for the Chinese traditional art forms, paper cutting is one of them. It has been around for over 1500 years. The red paper is cut with scissors and the pictures are usually flowers, animals and things about Chinese history.
Enjoy your stay in China.
Li Ping
评分标准
一、第1小题至第5小题,每题2分,不选、多选和错选均不给分。
二、第6小题至第15小题,每题2分,不选、多选和错选均不给分。
三、第16小题至第30小题,每题2分,不选、多选和错选均不给分。
四、第31小题至第35小题,每题2分,不选、多选和错选均不给分。
五、第36小题至第50小题,每题1分,不选、多选和错选均不给分。
六、第51小题至第60小题,每题1分,凡填错或拼写错误均不给分。
七、第61小题至第70小题,每题1分,凡填错或拼写错误均不给分。
八、书面表达共1题,共计15分。
评分原则:
1. 按5个档次给分。中档属第三档(9分—7分)。
2. 按学生所写内容和所用语言确定档次。
3. 总词数不足40个可在本题总得分中扣去3分。
4. 评分要点:
(1) 合适的开头和结尾(2分)。
(2) 介绍中秋节,如时间,家人聚餐,赏月,吃月饼等(至少两个方面)(6分)
(3) 介绍中国传统艺术形式,如多少年的历史,制作的材料,如何制作的,寓意等(至少两个方面)(6分)
(4) 书写端正清晰(1分)。
5. 各档次的给分范围和要求:
第五档(很好): (15分—13分) 完全完成试题规定的任务。
①信息全。② 语言可读性强,语言结构基本正确,有少量错误。
第四档(好): (12分—10分) 完全完成试题规定的任务。
①有主要信息。② 语言基本正确,有一些错误。
第三档 (还好):(9分—7分)基本完成试题规定的任务。
① 有主要信息。 ② 语言尚可读,有一些错误,但尚能达意。
第二档(较差):(6分—4分) 未能恰当完成试题规定的任务。
① 信息不全。 ② 只有个别句子可读,语言错误较多,且不能达意。
第一档 (差): (3分—1分)未能完成试题规定的任务。
① 不能表达有关信息。 ② 只有几个相关单词,语言错误很多,不能达意。
注意:凡不写任何内容、抄袭其它内容、所写内容无法看清者一律给0分。
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