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    2023年全国高考最后冲刺真题重组卷(一)(新高考地区专用)+听力含答案

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    这是一份2023年全国高考最后冲刺真题重组卷(一)(新高考地区专用)+听力含答案,共26页。试卷主要包含了 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁等内容,欢迎下载使用。

     冲刺2023年高考英语真题重组卷01(新高考地区专用)
    (考试时间:120分钟 试卷满分:150分)
    注意事项:
    1. 答卷前,考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用2B铅笔将试卷类型(A)填涂在答题卡相应位置上。将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。因笔试不考听力,选择题从第二部分的“阅读”开始,试题序号从“21”开始。
    2. 作答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑;如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案,答案不能答在试卷上。
    3. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答,答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上;如需改动,先划掉原来的答案,然后再写上新的答案;不准使用铅笔和涂改液,不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
    4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁:考试结束后,将试卷和答题卡一并交回。
    第一部分 听力(共两节,满分 30 分)
    第一节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
    1. What is the man?
    A. A student. B. A librarian. C. A job hunter.
    2. Where are the speakers?
    A. In an apartment. B. In a classroom. C. In a factory.
    3. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
    A. Choosing a new suit.
    B. Learning to send an email.
    C. Preparing for an interview.
    4. What does the woman imply?
    A. For the first time the team has become the league champion.
    B. The team did a good job again this time.
    C. The team has little chance to win this time.
    5. What will the man probably do to stay warm?
    A. Use a blanket.
    B. Turn on the heater.
    C. Drink some hot chocolate.
    第二节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
    听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听下面一段较长对话,回答6、7小题。
    6. What do we know about the camping area?
    A. It’s totally free. B. It’s a little cold. C. It’s very crowded.
    7. How long was the man gone for?
    A. One night. B. Two nights. C. Three nights.
    听下面一段较长对话,回答8、9、10小题。
    8. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
    A. Manager and salesperson. B. Friends. C. Salesperson and customer.
    9. What does the man value most when choosing a phone?
    A. Reliability. B. Speed. C. Price.
    10. What does the man mainly use his phone for?
    A. Surfing the Internet. B. Playing games. C. Watching movies.
    听下面一段较长对话,回答11、12、13小题。
    11. How many kinds of sharks are there according to the woman?
    A. About 80. B. Nearly 420. C. Over 500.
    12. What did the woman find more fascinating about sharks?
    A. How big they are.
    B. How scary they are.
    C. How old their species is.
    13. Why do sharks break and lose a lot of teeth?
    A. They bite too hard.
    B. They eat too much food.
    C. They often fight with each other.
    听下面一段较长对话,回答以14、15、16、17小题。
    14. What is the conversation mainly about?
    A. Fighting fires. B. Detecting fires. C. Using fires.
    15. How many fires did California have in 2020?
    A. Around 50. B. About 400. C. Over 8600.
    16. What size of fire can the new satellites discover?
    A. Size of a car. B. Size of a plane. C. Size of a sports field.
    17. What is the woman's main concern?
    A. Saving animals. B. Saving the trees. C. Saving humans.
    听下面一段独白,回答18、19、20小题。
    18. What did Catlin Powers find through her research?
    A. People used the stoves less often.
    B. Outdoor air pollution was not that serious.
    C. Indoor air pollution was related to the way of cooking.
    D. An increasing number of trees were cut down every year.
    19. According to Powers and Frank, what might be the solution to the problem?
    A. Taking advantage of greener energy.
    B. Building a base in the Himalayas.
    C. Depending on animal waste for fuel.
    D. Finding land covered with forests.
    20. Which of the following is special about the cooker designed by Powers’ team?
    A. It was resistant to water.
    B. It was easy to pack and move.
    C. It worked well on rainy days.
    D. It looked like a pot or a pan.
    第二部分 阅读(共两节, 满分50分)
    第一节(共15小题:每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分)
    阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
    A
    (2022,新高考I卷)Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature
    Grading Scale
    90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.
    Essays (60%)
    Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course: Essay 1 = 10%; Essay 2 = 15%; Essay 3 = 15%; Essay 4 = 20%.
    Group Assignments (30%)
    Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.
    Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework (10%)
    Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class' lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded.
    Late Work
    An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted.
    21. Where is this text probably taken from?
    A. A textbook. B. An exam paper. C. A course plan. D. An academic article.
    22. How many parts is a student’s final grade made up of?
    A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.
    23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?
    A. You will receive a zero. B. You will lose a letter grade.
    C. You will be given a test. D. You will have to rewrite it.
    B
    (2021,新高考II卷)I have worked as a keeper at the National Zoo, Paris for 11 years. Spot and Stripe are the first tiger cubs that have ever been born here. Globally, a third of Sumatran cubs in zoos don't make it to adulthood, so I decided to give them round-the-clock care at home.
    I've got two children—the younger one, Kynan, was extremely happy about the tigers arriving - but all of us really looked forward to being part of their lives and watching them grow. I wasn't worried about bringing them into my home with my wife and kids. These were cubs. They weighed about 2.5 kg and were so small that there was absolutely no risk.
    As they grew more mobile, we let them move freely around the house during the day, but when we were asleep we had to contain them in a large room, otherwise they'd get up to mischief. We'd come down in the morning to find they'd turned the room upside down, and left it looking like a zoo.
    Things quickly got very intense due to the huge amount of energy required to look after them. There were some tough times and I just felt extremely tired. I was grateful that my family was there to help. We had to have a bit of a production line going, making up “tiger milk”, washing baby bottles, and cleaning the floors.
    When Spot and Stripe were four months old, they were learning how to open doors and jump fences, and we knew it really was time for them to go. It was hard for us to finally part with them. For the first few days, Kynan was always a bit disappointed that the cubs weren't there.
    I'm not sad about it. I'm hands-on with them every day at the zoo, and I do look back very fondly on the time that we had them.
    24. Why did the author bring the tiger cubs home?
    A. To ensure their survival. B. To observe their differences.
    C. To teach them life skills. D. To let them play with his kids.
    25. What do the underlined words “get up to mischief” mean in paragraph 3?
    A. Behave badly. B. Lose their way. C. Sleep soundly. D. Miss their mom.
    26. What did the author think of raising the tiger cubs at home?
    A. Boring. B. Tiring. C. Costly. D. Risky.
    27. Why did the author decide to send Spot and Stripe back to the zoo?
    A. They frightened the children. B. They became difficult to contain.
    C. They annoyed the neighbours. D. They started fighting each other.
    C
    (2022,新高考I卷)The elderly residents (居民) in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.
    The project was dreamed up by a local charity (慈善组织) to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people’s wellbeing. It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in use.
    Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went to school. ”
    “I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they’ve gone to bed.”
    “It’s good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I’m enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something useful.”
    There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.
    Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on the project, said: “Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here.”
    Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: “We are happy to be taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities.”
    28. What is the purpose of the project?
    A. To ensure harmony in care homes. B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.
    C. To raise money for medical research. D. To promote the elderly people’s welfare.
    29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?
    A. She has learned new life skills. B. She has gained a sense of achievement.
    C. She has recovered her memory. D. She has developed a strong personality.
    30. What do the underlined words “embark on” mean in paragraph 7?
    A. Improve. B. Oppose. C. Begin. D. Evaluate.
    31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?
    A. It is well received. B. It needs to be more creative.
    C. It is highly profitable. D. It takes ages to see the results.
    D
    (2020年,新高考I卷)According to a recent study in the Journal of Consumer Research, both the size and consumption habits of our eating companions can influence our food intake. And contrary to existing research that says you should avoid eating with heavier people who order large portions(份), it's the beanpoles with big appetites you really need to avoid.
    To test the effect of social influence on eating habits, the researchers conducted two experiments. In the first, 95 undergraduate women were individually invited into a lab to ostensibly(表面上)participate in a study about movie viewership. Before the film began, each woman was asked to help herself to a snack. An actor hired by the researchers grabbed her food first. In her natural state, the actor weighed 105 pounds. But in half the cases she wore a specially designed fat suit which increased her weight to 180 pounds.
    Both the fat and thin versions of the actor took a large amount of food. The participants followed suit, taking more food than they normally would have. However, they took significantly more when the actor was thin.
    For the second test, in one case the thin actor took two pieces of candy from the snack bowls. In the other case, she took 30 pieces. The results were similar to the first test: the participants followed suit but took significantly more candy when the thin actor took 30 pieces.
    The tests show that the social environment is extremely influential when we're making decisions. If this fellow participant is going to eat more, so will I. Call it the “I’ll have what she's having” effect. However, we'll adjust the influence. If an overweight person is having a large portion, I'll hold back a bit because I see the results of his eating habits. But if a thin person eats a lot, I'll follow suit. If he can eat much and keep slim, why can't I?
    32. What is the recent study mainly about?
    A. Food safety. B. Movie viewership.
    C. Consumer demand. D. Eating behavior.
    33. What does the underlined word “beanpoles” in paragraph 1 refer to?
    A. Big eaters. B. Overweight persons.
    C. Picky eaters. D. Tall thin persons.
    34. Why did the researchers hire the actor?
    A. To see how she would affect the participants.
    B. To test if the participants could recognize her.
    C. To find out what she would do in the two tests.
    D. To study why she could keep her weight down.
    35. On what basis do we “adjust the influence” according to the last paragraph?
    A. How hungry we are. B. How slim we want to be.
    C. How we perceive others. D. How we feel about the food.
    第二节(共5小题:每小题2. 5分, 满分12. 5分)
    阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
    (2022,浙江卷)I have a drawer full of letters to Santa. Each year my children would write up their Christmas wish lists. They were polite requests for the latest game or toy. As the children got older, they would give Santa some hints(提示)on where to buy their presents. ____36____
    Those letters taught my children a valuable lesson about writing: It has a purpose. Sometimes our purpose is to achieve something;other times it may be to entertain inform, or persuade. ____37____ And when writing doesn’t seem to have any purpose or get any kind of meaningful response, then it can be hard to get excited about doing it.
    Christmas is a great time of year for children to communicate with others through writing. When children write for real audiences and real purposes, they can learn to choose their words accordingly. ____38____ You write “Dear Santa” because you don’t know him personally and you want to show him respect.
    ____39____ Texting, online messaging, live chats while playing video games all mean that they are constantly producing written messages. However, because they are usually writing to family and friends, they use informal language most of the time.
    There is nothing wrong with this kind of writing. It suits the audience and the purpose and gets the job done. ____40____ This type of writing won’t be rewarded by the school examiner, nor by a future employer or a potential client. The very best communicators are those who know how to adjust their language to match their audience.
    A. It isn’t that these young people can’t write.
    B. But it is always purposeful-or at least it should be.
    C. The age of pen-and-paper letter writing may have passed.
    D. As a result, each year they received something they wanted.
    E. You write “Hi Nanna and Pop” because you are close to them.
    F. As technology develops, young people are writing more than they ever have.
    G. But if this is the only kind of writing young people do, it will cause problems.
    第三部分语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
    第一节(共15小题:每小题1分,满分15分)
    阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
    (2022·新高考·Ⅱ卷)Like many young people, Jessica wants to travel the globe. Unlike most of them, this 25-year-old is doing it ___41___ . She and her husband have spent the last two years traveling the world, stopping everywhere from Paris to Singapore. It might sound like one long, expensive ___42___ , but the couple has an unusual way to make their travel ___43___ .
    They’re part of a new form of the ___44___ economy: an online group of house sitters. Throughout their no-cost stays in ___45___ homes, they feed pets and water plants in the homeowner’s ___46___ .
    It’s not all sightseeing. The two travelers carefully ___47___ their trips, scheduling their days around the pets that are sometimes difficult to ___48___ . But house sitting also offers a level of ___49___ they can’t find in a hotel. “It’s like ____50____ at a friend’s house,” Jessica says.
    The couple has a high ____51____ rate in getting accepted as house sitters and they always go beyond the homeowner’s ____52____ . For Jessica, that means ____53____ plenty of pictures of happy pets, keeping the house ____54____ and leaving a nice small gift before heading to the next house. “You want to make the homeowner feel that they made the right ____55____ ,” she says.
    41.A.indoors B.online C.single-handed D.full-time
    42.A.game B.service C.vacation D.procedure
    43.A.safe B.busy C.helpful D.affordable
    44.A.local B.private C.sharing D.agricultural
    45.A.strangers’ B.parents’ C.co-workers’ D.neighbors’
    46.A.favor B.defense C.honor D.absence
    47.A.plan B.explain C.compare D.complete
    48.A.buy B.transport C.choose D.please
    49.A.support B.comfort C.control D.attention
    50.A.cooking B.staying C.waiting D.studying
    51.A.success B.survival C.growth D.unemployment
    52.A.budget B.abilities C.expectations D.understanding
    53.A.admiring B.donating C.sending D.borrowing
    54.A.clean B.open C.simple D.empty
    55.A.guess B.decision C.response D.impression
    第二节(共10小题:每小题1. 5分, 满分15分)
    阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
    (2022·新高考·Ⅱ卷)Henry Tyler made the catch of the year on the weekend. When he saw a young child hanging from a sixth-floor apartment balcony (阳台), Henry ran one hundred metres, jumped over a 1.2-metre fence, and held out his arms to catch the ___56___ (fall) child.
    Eric Brown, only three years old, knocked Henry down when he fell. The boy is in the hospital and doctors say he'll be OK.
    ___57___ Brown family live in an apartment building outside Toronto. On the day of the accident, Mrs. Brown was at work and Eric was at home with his father. They both fell ___58___ (sleep) while watching TV.
    Eric woke up a little later when he heard children playing outside. He pushed a chair onto the balcony, and climbed up ___59___ (see) them. When he looked down, he ___60___ (accidental ) slipped and fell over the edge. He hung on for a few minutes ___61___ screamed for his father, but his father didn't hear him.
    Henry ___62___ (fix) his car when he heard the screams. He looked up and saw Eric hanging from the balcony. He quickly ___63___ (throw) his tools aside, and started running, arms out.
    He saved my ___64___ (son) life," said Mrs. Brown. "I don't know ___65___ to thank him.”
    "I just didn't want the boy to be hurt," said Henry.
    第四部分 写作(共两节, 满分40分)
    第一节(满分15分)
    (2022·全国·甲卷)你校将以六月八日世界海洋日为主题,举办英语征文比赛,请你写一篇短文投稿。
    内容包括:
    1. 海洋的重要性;
    2. 保护海洋的倡议。
    注意:1. 词数80左右;
    2. 短文的题目和首句已为你写好。
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    第二节(满分25分)
    (2022·新高考·Ⅱ卷)阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
    It was the day of the big cross-country run. Students from seven different primary schools in and around the small town were warming up and walking the route(路线)through thick evergreen forest.
    I looked around and finally spotted David, who was standing by himself off to the side by a fence. He was small for ten years old. His usual big toothy smile was absent today. I walked over and asked him why he wasn’t with the other children. He hesitated and then said he had decided not to run.
    What was wrong? He had worked so hard for this event!
    I quickly searched the crowd for the school’s coach and asked him what had happened. “I was afraid that kids from other schools would laugh at him,” he explained uncomfortably. “I gave him the choice to run or not, and let him decide.”
    I bit back my frustration(懊恼). I knew the coach meant well—he thought he was doing the right thing. After making sure that David could run if he wanted, I turned to find him coming towards me, his small body rocking from side to side as he swung his feet forward.
    David had a brain disease which prevented him from walking or running like other children, but at school his classmates thought of him as a regular kid. He always participated to the best of his ability in whatever they were doing. That was why none of the children thought it unusual that David had decided to join the cross-country team. It just took him longer—that’s all. David had not missed a single practice, and although he always finished his run long after the other children, he did always finish. As a special education teacher at the school, I was familiar with the challenges David faced and was proud of his strong determination.
    注意:
    1. 续写词数应为150左右;
    2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答.
    We sat down next to each other, but David wouldn’t look at me.
    ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners.
    ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________


    冲刺2023年高考英语真题重组卷01(新高考地区专用)
    (考试时间:120分钟 试卷满分:150分)
    1. What is the man?
    A. A student. B. A librarian. C. A job hunter.
    【答案】C
    2. Where are the speakers?
    A. In an apartment. B. In a classroom. C. In a factory.
    【答案】A
    3. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
    A. Choosing a new suit.
    B. Learning to send an email.
    C. Preparing for an interview.
    【答案】C
    4. What does the woman imply?
    A. For the first time the team has become the league champion.
    B. The team did a good job again this time.
    C. The team has little chance to win this time.
    【答案】B
    5. What will the man probably do to stay warm?
    A. Use a blanket.
    B. Turn on the heater.
    C. Drink some hot chocolate.
    【答案】A
    第二节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
    听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听下面一段较长对话,回答6、7小题。
    6. What do we know about the camping area?
    A. It’s totally free. B. It’s a little cold. C. It’s very crowded.
    7. How long was the man gone for?
    A. One night. B. Two nights. C. Three nights.
    【答案】CB
    听下面一段较长对话,回答8、9、10小题。
    8. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
    A. Manager and salesperson. B. Friends. C. Salesperson and customer.
    9. What does the man value most when choosing a phone?
    A. Reliability. B. Speed. C. Price.
    10. What does the man mainly use his phone for?
    A. Surfing the Internet. B. Playing games. C. Watching movies.
    【答案】BCA
    听下面一段较长对话,回答11、12、13小题。
    11. How many kinds of sharks are there according to the woman?
    A. About 80. B. Nearly 420. C. Over 500.
    12. What did the woman find more fascinating about sharks?
    A. How big they are.
    B. How scary they are.
    C. How old their species is.
    13. Why do sharks break and lose a lot of teeth?
    A. They bite too hard.
    B. They eat too much food.
    C. They often fight with each other.
    【答案】CCA
    听下面一段较长对话,回答以14、15、16、17小题。
    14. What is the conversation mainly about?
    A. Fighting fires. B. Detecting fires. C. Using fires.
    15. How many fires did California have in 2020?
    A. Around 50. B. About 400. C. Over 8600.
    16. What size of fire can the new satellites discover?
    A. Size of a car. B. Size of a plane. C. Size of a sports field.
    17. What is the woman's main concern?
    A. Saving animals. B. Saving the trees. C. Saving humans.
    【答案】BCAA
    听下面一段独白,回答18、19、20小题。
    18. What did Catlin Powers find through her research?
    A. People used the stoves less often.
    B. Outdoor air pollution was not that serious.
    C. Indoor air pollution was related to the way of cooking.
    D. An increasing number of trees were cut down every year.
    19. According to Powers and Frank, what might be the solution to the problem?
    A. Taking advantage of greener energy.
    B. Building a base in the Himalayas.
    C. Depending on animal waste for fuel.
    D. Finding land covered with forests.
    20. Which of the following is special about the cooker designed by Powers’ team?
    A. It was resistant to water.
    B. It was easy to pack and move.
    C. It worked well on rainy days.
    D. It looked like a pot or a pan.
    【答案】CAB
    第二部分 阅读(共两节, 满分50分)
    第一节(共15小题:每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分)
    阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
    A
    (2022,新高考I卷)Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature
    Grading Scale
    90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.
    Essays (60%)
    Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course: Essay 1 = 10%; Essay 2 = 15%; Essay 3 = 15%; Essay 4 = 20%.
    Group Assignments (30%)
    Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.
    Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework (10%)
    Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class' lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded.
    Late Work
    An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted.
    21. Where is this text probably taken from?
    A. A textbook. B. An exam paper. C. A course plan. D. An academic article.
    22. How many parts is a student’s final grade made up of?
    A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.
    23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?
    A. You will receive a zero. B. You will lose a letter grade.
    C. You will be given a test. D. You will have to rewrite it.
    【答案】21. C 22. B 23. A
    B
    (2021,新高考II卷)I have worked as a keeper at the National Zoo, Paris for 11 years. Spot and Stripe are the first tiger cubs that have ever been born here. Globally, a third of Sumatran cubs in zoos don't make it to adulthood, so I decided to give them round-the-clock care at home.
    I've got two children—the younger one, Kynan, was extremely happy about the tigers arriving - but all of us really looked forward to being part of their lives and watching them grow. I wasn't worried about bringing them into my home with my wife and kids. These were cubs. They weighed about 2.5 kg and were so small that there was absolutely no risk.
    As they grew more mobile, we let them move freely around the house during the day, but when we were asleep we had to contain them in a large room, otherwise they'd get up to mischief. We'd come down in the morning to find they'd turned the room upside down, and left it looking like a zoo.
    Things quickly got very intense due to the huge amount of energy required to look after them. There were some tough times and I just felt extremely tired. I was grateful that my family was there to help. We had to have a bit of a production line going, making up “tiger milk”, washing baby bottles, and cleaning the floors.
    When Spot and Stripe were four months old, they were learning how to open doors and jump fences, and we knew it really was time for them to go. It was hard for us to finally part with them. For the first few days, Kynan was always a bit disappointed that the cubs weren't there.
    I'm not sad about it. I'm hands-on with them every day at the zoo, and I do look back very fondly on the time that we had them.
    24. Why did the author bring the tiger cubs home?
    A. To ensure their survival. B. To observe their differences.
    C. To teach them life skills. D. To let them play with his kids.
    25. What do the underlined words “get up to mischief” mean in paragraph 3?
    A. Behave badly. B. Lose their way. C. Sleep soundly. D. Miss their mom.
    26. What did the author think of raising the tiger cubs at home?
    A. Boring. B. Tiring. C. Costly. D. Risky.
    27. Why did the author decide to send Spot and Stripe back to the zoo?
    A. They frightened the children. B. They became difficult to contain.
    C. They annoyed the neighbours. D. They started fighting each other.
    【答案】 AABB
    C
    (2022,新高考I卷)The elderly residents (居民) in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.
    The project was dreamed up by a local charity (慈善组织) to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people’s wellbeing. It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in use.
    Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went to school. ”
    “I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they’ve gone to bed.”
    “It’s good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I’m enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something useful.”
    There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.
    Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on the project, said: “Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here.”
    Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: “We are happy to be taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities.”
    28. What is the purpose of the project?
    A. To ensure harmony in care homes. B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.
    C. To raise money for medical research. D. To promote the elderly people’s welfare.
    29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?
    A. She has learned new life skills. B. She has gained a sense of achievement.
    C. She has recovered her memory. D. She has developed a strong personality.
    30. What do the underlined words “embark on” mean in paragraph 7?
    A. Improve. B. Oppose. C. Begin. D. Evaluate.
    31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?
    A. It is well received. B. It needs to be more creative.
    C. It is highly profitable. D. It takes ages to see the results.
    【答案】28. D 29. B 30. C 31. A
    D
    (2020年,新高考I卷)According to a recent study in the Journal of Consumer Research, both the size and consumption habits of our eating companions can influence our food intake. And contrary to existing research that says you should avoid eating with heavier people who order large portions(份), it's the beanpoles with big appetites you really need to avoid.
    To test the effect of social influence on eating habits, the researchers conducted two experiments. In the first, 95 undergraduate women were individually invited into a lab to ostensibly(表面上)participate in a study about movie viewership. Before the film began, each woman was asked to help herself to a snack. An actor hired by the researchers grabbed her food first. In her natural state, the actor weighed 105 pounds. But in half the cases she wore a specially designed fat suit which increased her weight to 180 pounds.
    Both the fat and thin versions of the actor took a large amount of food. The participants followed suit, taking more food than they normally would have. However, they took significantly more when the actor was thin.
    For the second test, in one case the thin actor took two pieces of candy from the snack bowls. In the other case, she took 30 pieces. The results were similar to the first test: the participants followed suit but took significantly more candy when the thin actor took 30 pieces.
    The tests show that the social environment is extremely influential when we're making decisions. If this fellow participant is going to eat more, so will I. Call it the “I’ll have what she's having” effect. However, we'll adjust the influence. If an overweight person is having a large portion, I'll hold back a bit because I see the results of his eating habits. But if a thin person eats a lot, I'll follow suit. If he can eat much and keep slim, why can't I?
    32. What is the recent study mainly about?
    A. Food safety. B. Movie viewership.
    C. Consumer demand. D. Eating behavior.
    33. What does the underlined word “beanpoles” in paragraph 1 refer to?
    A. Big eaters. B. Overweight persons.
    C. Picky eaters. D. Tall thin persons.
    34. Why did the researchers hire the actor?
    A. To see how she would affect the participants.
    B. To test if the participants could recognize her.
    C. To find out what she would do in the two tests.
    D. To study why she could keep her weight down.
    35. On what basis do we “adjust the influence” according to the last paragraph?
    A. How hungry we are. B. How slim we want to be.
    C. How we perceive others. D. How we feel about the food.
    【答案】 DDA C
    第二节(共5小题:每小题2. 5分, 满分12. 5分)
    阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
    (2022,浙江卷)I have a drawer full of letters to Santa. Each year my children would write up their Christmas wish lists. They were polite requests for the latest game or toy. As the children got older, they would give Santa some hints(提示)on where to buy their presents. ____36____
    Those letters taught my children a valuable lesson about writing: It has a purpose. Sometimes our purpose is to achieve something;other times it may be to entertain inform, or persuade. ____37____ And when writing doesn’t seem to have any purpose or get any kind of meaningful response, then it can be hard to get excited about doing it.
    Christmas is a great time of year for children to communicate with others through writing. When children write for real audiences and real purposes, they can learn to choose their words accordingly. ____38____ You write “Dear Santa” because you don’t know him personally and you want to show him respect.
    ____39____ Texting, online messaging, live chats while playing video games all mean that they are constantly producing written messages. However, because they are usually writing to family and friends, they use informal language most of the time.
    There is nothing wrong with this kind of writing. It suits the audience and the purpose and gets the job done. ____40____ This type of writing won’t be rewarded by the school examiner, nor by a future employer or a potential client. The very best communicators are those who know how to adjust their language to match their audience.
    A. It isn’t that these young people can’t write.
    B. But it is always purposeful-or at least it should be.
    C. The age of pen-and-paper letter writing may have passed.
    D. As a result, each year they received something they wanted.
    E. You write “Hi Nanna and Pop” because you are close to them.
    F. As technology develops, young people are writing more than they ever have.
    G. But if this is the only kind of writing young people do, it will cause problems.
    【答案】36. D 37. B 38. E 39. F 40. G
    第三部分语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
    第一节(共15小题:每小题1分,满分15分)
    阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
    (2022·新高考·Ⅱ卷)Like many young people, Jessica wants to travel the globe. Unlike most of them, this 25-year-old is doing it ___41___ . She and her husband have spent the last two years traveling the world, stopping everywhere from Paris to Singapore. It might sound like one long, expensive ___42___ , but the couple has an unusual way to make their travel ___43___ .
    They’re part of a new form of the ___44___ economy: an online group of house sitters. Throughout their no-cost stays in ___45___ homes, they feed pets and water plants in the homeowner’s ___46___ .
    It’s not all sightseeing. The two travelers carefully ___47___ their trips, scheduling their days around the pets that are sometimes difficult to ___48___ . But house sitting also offers a level of ___49___ they can’t find in a hotel. “It’s like ____50____ at a friend’s house,” Jessica says.
    The couple has a high ____51____ rate in getting accepted as house sitters and they always go beyond the homeowner’s ____52____ . For Jessica, that means ____53____ plenty of pictures of happy pets, keeping the house ____54____ and leaving a nice small gift before heading to the next house. “You want to make the homeowner feel that they made the right ____55____ ,” she says.
    41.A.indoors B.online C.single-handed D.full-time
    42.A.game B.service C.vacation D.procedure
    43.A.safe B.busy C.helpful D.affordable
    44.A.local B.private C.sharing D.agricultural
    45.A.strangers’ B.parents’ C.co-workers’ D.neighbors’
    46.A.favor B.defense C.honor D.absence
    47.A.plan B.explain C.compare D.complete
    48.A.buy B.transport C.choose D.please
    49.A.support B.comfort C.control D.attention
    50.A.cooking B.staying C.waiting D.studying
    51.A.success B.survival C.growth D.unemployment
    52.A.budget B.abilities C.expectations D.understanding
    53.A.admiring B.donating C.sending D.borrowing
    54.A.clean B.open C.simple D.empty
    55.A.guess B.decision C.response D.impression
    【答案】
    41.D    42.C    43.D    44.C   45.A   46.D   47.A   48.D   49.B    50.B    51.A    52.C    53.C    54.A    55.B
    第二节(共10小题:每小题1. 5分, 满分15分)
    阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
    (2022·新高考·Ⅱ卷)Henry Tyler made the catch of the year on the weekend. When he saw a young child hanging from a sixth-floor apartment balcony (阳台), Henry ran one hundred metres, jumped over a 1.2-metre fence, and held out his arms to catch the ___56___ (fall) child.
    Eric Brown, only three years old, knocked Henry down when he fell. The boy is in the hospital and doctors say he'll be OK.
    ___57___ Brown family live in an apartment building outside Toronto. On the day of the accident, Mrs. Brown was at work and Eric was at home with his father. They both fell ___58___ (sleep) while watching TV.
    Eric woke up a little later when he heard children playing outside. He pushed a chair onto the balcony, and climbed up ___59___ (see) them. When he looked down, he ___60___ (accidental ) slipped and fell over the edge. He hung on for a few minutes ___61___ screamed for his father, but his father didn't hear him.
    Henry ___62___ (fix) his car when he heard the screams. He looked up and saw Eric hanging from the balcony. He quickly ___63___ (throw) his tools aside, and started running, arms out.
    He saved my ___64___ (son) life," said Mrs. Brown. "I don't know ___65___ to thank him.”
    "I just didn't want the boy to be hurt," said Henry.
    【答案】56.falling    57.The    58.asleep    59.to see    60.accidentally    61.and    62.was fixing    63.threw    64.son's    65.how
    第四部分 写作(共两节, 满分40分)
    第一节(满分15分)
    (2022·全国·甲卷)你校将以六月八日世界海洋日为主题,举办英语征文比赛,请你写一篇短文投稿。
    内容包括:
    1. 海洋的重要性;
    2. 保护海洋的倡议。
    注意:1. 词数80左右;
    2. 短文的题目和首句已为你写好。
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    【答案】When it comes to ocean, its pollution is becoming more and more serious. World Ocean Day, falling on June 8th, is aimed at raising awareness of ocean conservation.
    Ocean plays a key role in our world. Not only does ocean offer us sufficient food, but also it maintains the balance of nature. Thus, it is imperative to protect ocean. First of all, what we can do is to place importance on our daily actions. For example, garbage can’t be thrown into ocean. What’s more, we can also hand out leaflets to call on more people to protect the ocean. The more people are involved, the better the ocean environment is.
    All in all, it is high time that we devoted ourselves to protecting ocean. To protect ocean is to protect ourselves.
    第二节(满分25分)
    (2022·新高考·Ⅱ卷)阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
    It was the day of the big cross-country run. Students from seven different primary schools in and around the small town were warming up and walking the route(路线)through thick evergreen forest.
    I looked around and finally spotted David, who was standing by himself off to the side by a fence. He was small for ten years old. His usual big toothy smile was absent today. I walked over and asked him why he wasn’t with the other children. He hesitated and then said he had decided not to run.
    What was wrong? He had worked so hard for this event!
    I quickly searched the crowd for the school’s coach and asked him what had happened. “I was afraid that kids from other schools would laugh at him,” he explained uncomfortably. “I gave him the choice to run or not, and let him decide.”
    I bit back my frustration(懊恼). I knew the coach meant well—he thought he was doing the right thing. After making sure that David could run if he wanted, I turned to find him coming towards me, his small body rocking from side to side as he swung his feet forward.
    David had a brain disease which prevented him from walking or running like other children, but at school his classmates thought of him as a regular kid. He always participated to the best of his ability in whatever they were doing. That was why none of the children thought it unusual that David had decided to join the cross-country team. It just took him longer—that’s all. David had not missed a single practice, and although he always finished his run long after the other children, he did always finish. As a special education teacher at the school, I was familiar with the challenges David faced and was proud of his strong determination.
    注意:
    1. 续写词数应为150左右;
    2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答.
    We sat down next to each other, but David wouldn’t look at me.
    ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners.
    ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    【答案】We sat down next to each other, but David wouldn’t look at me. I said gently and quietly, “No one can change your mind, except yourself. If you desire to challenge yourself, there is nothing to do with others’ thoughts.” He sat still with a deep breath. “You have a full preparation before this event, which is the most important reason why you show up here”, I added with a sincere tone. Hearing my words, David turned to me tremblingly with tears spilling out of his eyes and expressed he had made a firm determination to finish the cross-country run. His coach heard what David said and gave me a look—the kind that was more determined than anyone else’s.
    I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners. The race started. It seemed that the runway was extremely long for young children, not to mention a child with a heart disease. David insisted on running as if he had forgotten all his weaknesses, though he was tripped over within the a few kilometers. It didn’t take long before he picked himself up again and continued his mission. Classmates all appeared on the racing track, cheering for him. “Come on! You can make it! We are proud of you!” they shouted enthusiastically. To everyone’s joy, he reached the final line and ranked the 20th. It was no more important whether he won the first place or not. It was his brave heart and strong faith that could make something unusual happen finally.
    .

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