2023年陕西省咸阳市秦都区平陵中学三模英语试题

这是一份2023年陕西省咸阳市秦都区平陵中学三模英语试题，共19页。试卷主要包含了本试卷分为第一部分和第二部分，领到试卷和答题卡后，请用0， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
2023年秦都区平陵中学模拟考试（三）
英语试卷
注意事项：
1.本试卷分为第一部分(听力)和第二部分(笔试)。全卷共8页，总分120分。考试时间120分钟。
2.领到试卷和答题卡后，请用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔，分别在试卷和答题卡上填写姓名和准考证号，同时用2B铅笔在答题卡上填涂对应的试卷类型信息点(A或B)。
3.请在答题卡上各题的指定区域内作答，否则作答无效。
4.考试结束，本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分(听力 共30分)
Ⅰ.听选答案(共15小题,计20分)
第一节：听下面10段对话，每段对话后有一个问题，读两遍。请根据每段对话的内容和后面的问题，从所给的三个选项中选出最恰当的一项。(共10小题，计10分)
1. A. Green. B. Yellow. C. Purple.
2. A.110 yuan. B.100 yuan. C.120 yuan.
3. A. Go swimming. B. Go shopping. C. See a movie.
4. A. Angry. B. Happy. C. Sad.
5. A. Sweep the floor. B. Make the bed. C. Clean the living room.
6. A. It'll be cloudy. B. It'll be rainy. C. It'll be sunny.
7. A. Linda. B. Lucy. C. Lisa.
8. A. By bike. B. On foot. C. By subway.
9. A. An engineer. B. A teacher. C. A doctor.
10. A.12. B.13. C.25.
第二节：听下面两段对话，每段对话后有几道小题，请根据对话的内容，从题目所给的三个选项中选出所给问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。(共5小题，计10分)
听第11段对话,回答第11、12 小题。
11. What did Wang Tao make for his family yesterday?
A. Sandwiches. B. Noodles, C. Dumplings.
12. How often does Wang Tao cook for his family?
A. Twice a week. B. Once a week. C. Three times a week.
听第12段对话，回答第13 至15小题。
13. Where will the concert be held tonight?
A. In the cinema. B. In the square. C. At the school hall.
14. Why doesn't Tom like rock music?
A. Because it makes him crazy.
B. Because it makes him worried.
C. Because it makes him nervous.
15. When will they meet?
A. At 6:30 p. m. B. At 6:00 p. m. C. At 7:00 p. m.
Ⅱ.听填信息(共5小题，计10分)
本题你将听到一段独白，读两遍。请根据独白内容，用所听到的信息完成下列各题。每空不超过三个单词。
16. They are going to visit the museum on morning.
17. They are going to start out at 8:15a.m. .
18. Each of them should pay dollars.
19. They need to take a and a notebook to write something down.
20. They ’ ll in the museum restaurant.
第二部分(笔试 共90分)
Ⅲ.完形填空(共20小题,计20分)
第一节：阅读下面短文，按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，从所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，使短文连贯完整。
Have you ever wondered what it takes to be an astronaut? In October 2022, the astronaut Scott 21 his fantastic experiences in space with some kids.
Scott was accepted into the astronaut training program 22 1996. Then he learned to fly a space plane.“I worked really hard on it,” he said about 23 training. He took part in four space 24 from 1999 to 2016. His first task was a repair trip. On his second trip, he was the task leader. In 2011,he finished his third task. He 25 to set off on a340- day task by the Space Engineering Office. It was a five- month stay on the International Space Station. It would become one of 26 trips in space.
The main purpose was to study 27 after a long space flight(飞行). Scott went to space. His brother, Mark, stayed on Earth. Then scientists were able 28 them. Because they are twins and have 29 same DNA. There's still a lot to learn about the effects of space flights on the body. And there's always work to be done in space.
For those kids who want to become astronauts, Scott has some advice.“Choose something that you like,” he says,“ because 30 you like it, you ’ ll do better at it.”
21. A. will share B. shares C. shared D. is sharing
22. A. at B. in C. on D. of
23. A. his B. he C. him D. himself
24. A. skill B. skills C. task D. tasks
25. A. chose B. chooses C. was chosen D. is chosen
26. A. the longest B. longer C. the heaviest D. heavier
27. A. what would the human body be like B. what the human body would be like
C. how the human body would be like D. how would the human body be like
28. A. invite B. to invite C. compare D. to compare
29. A. the B./ C. a D. an
30. A. unless B. before C. if D. though
第二节：阅读下面短文，理解大意，然后从各小题的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，使短文连贯完整。
Lucas is a 4-year-old African penguin living at San Diego Zoo in the US. Now he has a pair of special 31 .
Lucas suffers from a foot illness, which causes his feet to swell (肿胀) and ache. As a result, the other penguins at the zoo didn't want to hang out with' him. He felt 32 .


The zookeeper decided to do 33 about it. They had Lucas walk across sand, took notes of his footprints and sent them to an organization called Thera- Paw. The organization 34 custom(定制的) products for animals that have special needs.
Thera- Paw's team created a special pair of 35 for Lucas.“ It can
help Lucas fully join the group and show behavior more typical for a penguin—
such as climbing the rocks and swimming. And the color of the shoes looks
very close to his natural foot color, 36 they don't stand out(突出) too


much,” said the team. The task was 37 . Zookeepers put Lucas ’ new shoes on him and he began
trying them out at once.
Now he can move around and play with other penguins. In fact, it ’s going even 38 than expected—Lucas has made more friends than before.
The San Diego Zoo is the largest zoo in California. And it turns out that Lucas isn’t the first animal there that has ever needed help in 39 . Earlier this year,a three- month- old giraffe was finally able to walk and jump on its own with the 40 of special leg braces(矫正器).
31. A. eyes B. feet C. hands D. ears
32. A. lonely B. excited C. proud D. sleepy
33. A. anything B. something C. everything D. nothing
34. A. fails B. guesses C. creates D. loses
35. A. pants B. coats C. gloves D. shoes
36. A. so B. because C. but D. or
37. A. careless B. difficult C. humorous D. successful
38. A. worse B. weaker C. better D. poorer
39. A. walking B. swimming C. flying D. lying
40. A. cost B. habit C. sound D. help
Ⅳ.阅读理解(共15小题,计20分)
第一节：阅读下面A、B、C三篇材料，从所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的一个最佳答案。(共10小题，计15分)
A
The First English Festival Engilsh Festival


To create a good English learning environment for students,the English Festival will be organized in our school this term.
Time:From May 8 to June 8
More purposes:


To help more students who like English and want to learn English well improve themselves.Things you can do during the English Festival:
●Play some English songs on the school radio at lunchtime.
●Practice your spoken English by talking with your teachers or classmates in English.
●Exchange (交换) English books with your classmates and share what you have learned with each other.
●Watch some English films and share them with your friends.
More information:
Tel:8498-0123
E-mail: English festival@163.com
Address:Happy English Club Office
41. The English Festival will last for .
A. two months B. one month C. three months D. four months
42. What can you do during the English Festival?
A. Sell English books and other school things.
B. Watch some Chinese films with friends.
C. Play some English songs on the school radio.
D. Practice your listening by talking with your teachers.
43. This passage is mainly written for .
A. students B. tourists C. teachers D. parents
B
Hiking (远足) for fun can be a great way to spend time outdoors. However, basic hiking rules are necessary in order to make sure you have a safe trip. With enough preparations, hiking can be a safe sport.
Map out your route before setting off. Tell friends or relatives where and when you will go hiking,and when you expect to return. Buy a map of the area and study the routes.
Water is the most important thing, and hikers often fail to bring enough with them. Your body can only take in about 1 liter of water per hour, so drink 0.5 to 1.0 liter of some type of electrolyte replacement drink (补充电解质的饮料) each and every hour that you are hiking in the heat.
If you meet storms, stay away from tall trees and go quickly to the lowest-lying land you can find.On hot summer days, take enough water and sunscreen, as the temperature may rise fast. In the fall and winter, pack warm clothing and matches in case you need to build a fire.
The best course of action is to stay in one location (位置) so that search parties can find you. If you have mapped out a hiking plan and told friends or family of your location, help will be on the way as soon as they realize that you are missing.
44. The most important thing when you are hiking is .
A. hiking with friends B. buying a map
C. bringing enough water D. staying in one location
45. What can staying in low-lying areas help you?
A. Stay warm in cold weather. B. Hide from the sun.
C. Build a fire more easily. D. Protect yourself from storms.
46. Which is the right structure(结构) of this passage?(P1=Paragraph 1)

ChatGPT is a new kind of robot. It was trained by OpenAI company in San Francisco. It is able to understand the human languages and communicate with human beings as well. By having dialogues with people, it is possible for ChatGPT to answer questions, realize its mistakes, challenge incorrect settings,and refuse inappropriate requests (不恰当的要求).
GPT is short for Generative Pre-trained Transformer. Its producer Elon Musk says,“Chat GPT is strong but scary because it brings us a challenge.”It has reached 100 million users in just two months after coming out, according to the experts (专家).
ChatGPT is a good talker and listener. It can become serious or humorous in different situations. For example, one says,“Tell me a lie.”ChatGPT answers,“The sky is made of green cheese.”Then he says,“That's a bad lie. Tell me more lies.”Then ChatGPT says,“I am a human being.”
Besides communicating, this AI chatbot can also write e-mails and papers. It is incredible that it is even good at creating poems and stories. GPT technology can also help people write code (密码) quickly and correctly. Maybe one day, it can work as a level three engineer.
However, some experts tell that ChatGPT may not be able to answer questions that are outside of its training data (数据). ChatGPT doesn't change our lives completely, but it shows that the AI has developed into a new stage. Do you think ChatGPT will take place of human beings?
47. How many users has ChatGPT reached in just two months after appearing?
A.100 million. B.10 million C.1,000 million. D.100 billion.
48. The underlined word “ incredible ” probably means “ ” in the text.
A. hopeless B. amazing C. common D. wrong
49. Which of the following is TRUE according to the text?
A. ChatGPT always acts the same in different situations.
B. OpenAI company trained ChatGPT in Paris.
C. ChatGPT is a smart robot that can accept every request.
D. ChatGPT can write e-mails, poems, papers and codes.
50. The text is mainly written to :
A. show the advantages of modern technology
B. explain the importance of AI
C. introduce a new kind of robot—ChatGPT
D. tell readers how to communicate with robots
第二节：根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。(共5小题，计5分)
Minor Cold or xiaohan,a Chinese solar term (节气), is set to lead and prepare for the Chinese New Year.51. . The 23rd term of the 24 traditional Chinese solar terms lasts 15 days.Every year around this time,52. . Almost all parts of China will feel the cold greatly.
During xiaohan, the yang energy is gently higher than before. Wild geese (雁) begin to fly to the north,53. . Ancient Chinese also recorded that magpies(喜鹊) were seen in the north and they started to build their nests. Among all the solar terms, only White Dew and Minor Cold are considered to be connected with birds.54. .
There are many snowy days in the north of China. It may have something to do with the need for something warm. Vegetables and rice are put together with bacon, sausage, ham and duck. People in Nanjing have a custom of eating vegetable rice on xiaohan.55. . However, mutton hotpot, sugar roasted chestnuts and baked sweet potatoes have become popular during xiaohan, especially among young people in the north.
A. It means the beginning of the coldest time of the year
B. They think the vegetable rice is warm and nice for health
C. Because there were many poems written about xiaohan
D. because they feel the growth of yang during the days of xiaohan
E. But many young people like to have mutton soup and beef soup
F. a wave of cold air moves from Siberia toward the Inner Mongolia
G. It is believed that birds can sense the flow (流动) of yin and yang before people do
V.完成句子：根据所给汉语意思，用单词或短语完成下列英文句子。(共5小题，计10分)
56.一个女孩正在操场上跑步。
A girl is running .
57.别忘了在完成写作后仔细检查。
Don't forget to carefully after writing the composition.
58.王子涵在这次演讲比赛中获得了二等奖。
Wang Zihan won the in the speech contest.
59.无论遇到什么困难，都不要放弃。
Don't no matter what difficulties you meet.
60.微信使人们之间的交流更加方便。
WeChat makes it more for people to communicate with each other.
Ⅵ.短文填空：用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，使短文完整正确。(每个单词限用一次，每空限填一个单词。)(共10小题，计10分)

Xiong Linghao is an 18-year-old girl from Mianyang, Sichuan Province. She was born prematurely (过早地) and became 61. because of a medical accident. But she has a special relationship with music.
When she 62. two years old, she heard a song and climbed onto the keyboard to try it out. At the age of 3, she could play some easy 63. on a small electronic organ(电子琴) at home.
Xiong started learning the piano at the age of 6.“ The piano is one of my 64. friends,”she said.“It has accompanied (陪伴) me throughout my ups and downs in its own way. It makes me confident and it 65. so much pleasure to my life.” Learning to play the piano was not easy for the girl. At first, her teacher helped her place her finger 66. . Xiong practised two or three hours a day to remember the keys. And it took 67. two years to become completely familiar (熟悉) with the keyboard.“Repeated practice is the key,”she said. By the age of 12, Xiong had passed a Grade 10 piano exam.
She has 68. several songs so far. Xiong said if she was 69. three days to see, she would like to do many things.“I also would like to see the piano that has accompanied me for more than ten years,” she said. Many people are moved by the 70. story.
Ⅶ.任务型阅读：阅读下面的语篇材料，根据所读内容，完成下列各题。(共5小题，计10分)
Disney Green Experience—Sorting (分类)&Recycling Adventure
Time:In October,2022
Place:Shanghai Disney Resort
Activities
Begin the day with an exciting show performed by a band in Tomorrowland. You can learn about waste sorting there.


Visit the four recycling machines in Fantasyland, Treasure Cove, Tomorrowland and Gardens of Imagination, and get to know about how they work.
Take a trip to Fantasyland's Tangled Tree Tavern, and you can practice sorting food waste there.


Talk to Custodial Cast Members and see how pieces of art are created using waste and recyclable materials. The materials were collected around the park.
NOTES
●The program is available for school groups of 50—200 students aged between 7 and 11across the country.
●Those who join the program will be offered a one-day theme park ticket. If they finish all the activities in the program, they will also be given a special certificate (证书).
The program wants to teach students how to sort and recycle waste.
71. Disney Green Experience takes place ( when).
72. The day begins with .
73. Students can during the trip to Fantasyland's Tangled Tree Tavern.
74. If students finish all the activities in the program, they will be given .
75. The purpose of the program is to teach students .
Ⅷ.补全对话(共5小题，计5分)
根据下面对话中的情境，在每个空白处填入一个适当的语句，使对话恢复完整。
A:Hi, Wang Han. Your kite is so beautiful!
B:76. .I made it myself.
A:Wow, you are so great. Do you often fly kites in spring?
B:Yes. You know, kites are one of the most popular Chinese inventions.
A: You are right.77. ?
B:The first kite was invented around 3,000 years ago.
A:78. ?
B:It was made of wood at that time.
A: Sounds good.79. ?
B:No, they weren't used as toys at that time. They were used for military purposes (军事目的).
A:I got it. Could you tell me how to fly your kite?
B:80. .I can teach you this weekend.
IX.基础写作(共1题，计15分)
第一节：连词成句。请根据图画场景和各题提示词及标点创写语法正确，符合语境的完整句子。(每题限写一个句子，提示词以外的词语不超过三个，缩写算一个词。)(共5小题，计5分)



81.who,boy,in,picture
?
82.he,Li Hua
.
83.he,playing,guitar
.
84.spend,2 hours,on,every day
.
85.want,be,guitarist,in the future
.



第二节：书面表达。(共1题，计10分)
86.假如你是李华，自从上学期你们学校开展了课后服务活动后，课后活动丰富多彩。恰逢你们学校英语广播站有征稿活动。请你根据提示问题，给学校英语广播站编辑写一篇稿件，介绍你上学期参加课后服务活动的情况和感受。
提示问题:1. What activities did you have last term at school?
2. What activity did you take part in?
3. When and where did, you join in it?
4.…
要求：1.可参考提示问题，亦可适当发挥；
2.语句通顺，意思连贯，书写工整；
3.文中不得出现你的任何真实信息(姓名、校名和地名等)；
4.词数：不少于70词(开头和结尾已给出，但不计入总词数)。
Dear Editor,
Our school life has changed a lot since we had all kinds of colorful activities last term.






I enjoyed my school life so much.
Li Hua

2023年秦都区平陵中学模拟考试（三）
英语试卷参考答案及评分标准
第一部分(听力 共30分)
Ⅰ.听选答案(共15小题,计20分)
第一节(共10小题，每小题1分，计10分)
1. B 2. A3. A 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. C
第二节(共5小题，每小题2分，计10分)
11. C 12. A13. B 14. C 15. A
Ⅱ.听填信息(共5小题，每小题2分，计10分)
每小题2分，单词拼写错误每个扣0.5分。
16. Saturday 17. by bus 18. nine/9 19. pen 20. have lunch
第二部分(笔试 共90分)
Ⅲ.完形填空(共20小题，每小题1分，计20分)
21. C 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. C 26. A 27. B 28. D 29. A 30. C 31. B 32. A 33. B 34. C 35. D 36. A 37. D38. C 39. A 40. D
Ⅳ.阅读理解(共15小题,计20分)
第一节(共10小题，每小题1.5分，计15分)
A)41. B 42. C 43. A
B)44. C 45. D 46. A
C)47. A 48. B 49. D 50. C
第二节(共5小题，每小题1分，计5分)
51. A 52. F 53. D 54. G 55. B
V.完成句子(共5小题，每小题2分，计10分)
每小题2分，单词能够识别，但个别字母有错误，每个单词扣0.5分。
56. on the playground 57. check 58. second prize 59. give up 60. convenient
Ⅵ.短文填空(共10小题，每小题1分，计10分)
选对单词但词形错误，每空赋0.5分。大小写错误忽略不计。
61. blind 62. was 63. songs 64. best 65. brings
66. properly 67. her 68. written 69. given 70. girl's
Ⅶ.任务型阅读(共5小题，每小题2分，计10分)
每小题2分，信息点正确，但语法错误(含大小写)及单词拼写错误，每两处扣0.5分。
71. in October,2022
72. an exciting show (performed by a band in Tomorrowland)
73. practice sorting food waste
74. a special certificate
75. how to sort and recycle waste
Ⅷ.补全对话(共5小题，每小题1分，计5分)
信息点正确，但单词拼写、语法错误(含大小写)，每两处扣0.5分。
76. Thank you/Thanks a lot/…
77. When was the first kite invented
78. What was it made of at that time
79. Were they used as toys at that time
80. Sure/Yes/Of course/Certainly...
(答案不唯一，符合题意即可)
IX.基础写作(共1题，计15分)
第一节：连词成句(共5题，每小题1分，计5分)
81. Who is the boy in the picture
82. He is Li Hua
83. He is playing the guitar
84. He spends 2 hours on the guitar/it every day
85. He wants to be a guitarist in the future
第二节：书面表达(共1题，计10分)
86.参考范文:
Dear Editor,
Our school life has changed a lot since we had all kinds of colorful activities last term. There were many activities, such as music festivals, speech contests, art shows and science festivals. I took the music festival because I like singing and I am good at playing the guitar. I joined the singing competition which was held in our school hall last December 15th. And I won the first prize. I hope to be a singer in the future and sing Chinese songs to the world.
I enjoyed my school life so much.
Li Hua
评分标准：

档次
（分数）
评分标准
书面表达
技能标准描述
其他说明
第五档
(9~10.分)
很好地完成了规定的写作
任务。包含所有内容要
点，结构完整，语句流畅，
意思清楚、连贯。使用较
为丰富的语法结构和词
汇，语法和词汇错误较少，
格式正确，书写规范。
1.能根据写作要求收集准备
素材。
2.能独立起草文段。
3.能使用连接词表示顺序和逻
辑关系，衔接、连贯较好。
4.能很好描述人物事件,且语
言运用正确、得体。
行文紧扣主题，语言表述流畅
生动,几乎无语言瑕疵(10
分）；
或行文较为流畅生动；或虽语
言表述流畅生动，但存在极个
别语言待完善之处(9分)。
第四档
(7~8分)
较好地完成了规定的写作
任务。基本上包含所有内
容要点，结构较为完整，语
句完整，意思清楚。语法
结构和词汇错误较少，格
式基本正确，书写较为
规范。
1.能根据写作要求收集、准备
素材。
2.能独立起草文段。
3.能使用连接词表示顺序和逻
辑关系，衔接、连贯较好。
4.能简单描述人物事件,但语
言存在个别瑕疵。
行文紧扣主题，内容描述完整，
语言较为流畅但内容不够丰
富，且存在瑕疵；或存在照搬书
本或其他来源文本材料的
嫌疑。
第三档
(5~6分)
基本上完成了规定的写作
任务。包含主要内容要
点，结构欠完整，少数语句
不通顺，意思基本清楚。
语法结构和词汇错误较
多，格式基本正确，书写基
本规范。
1.能根据写作要求收集、准备
素材。
2能独立起草文段。
3.能使用连接词表示顺序和逻
辑关系，体现文本衔接和连贯
特征。
达到基本标准即赋分
第二档
(3~4分)
未能按要求完成规定的写
作任务。只包含少数内容
要点，结构不完整，多数语
句欠完整，意思不够清楚。
语法结构和词汇错误较
多，影响理解，格式不够正
确，书写欠规范。
1.能根据写作要求收集、准备
素材。
2.能独立起草文段,有初步语
句意识和谋篇意识。
达到基本标准即赋分
第一档
(1~2分)
未能按要求完成规定的写
作任务。只写出个别要
点，结构不完整，多数语句
不完整或意思不明，语法
和词汇错误很多，书写不
规范。
1.能根据写作要求收集、准备
素材。
满足基本标准即赋分

听力材料
Ⅰ.听选答案
第一节：听下面10段对话，每段对话后有一个问题，读两遍。请根据每段对话的内容和后面的问题，从所给的三个选项中选出最恰当的一项。
1. W:Chen Lei, you look great in this yellow T-shirt!
M:Thank you!It's my favorite color.
Q:What color does Chen Lei like best?
2. W:Wow, John!You bought a new dictionary. How much is it?
M:It's 110 yuan. It's very useful in learning English.
Q:How much is John's new dictionary?
3. W:Let's call up Jim and invite him to go swimming this Sunday.
M:Good idea.
Q:What are they going to do this Sunday?
4. W:Li Bing, you seem sad today. What's the matter?
M:I lost my watch this morning.
Q:How does Li Bing feel today?
5. W:I'm going to clean the living room. Could you please make the bed, Peter?
M:Sure, Mom.
Q:What does the woman ask Peter to do?
6. W:It always rains these days, doesn't it?
M:You're right. But the radio says it will be sunny next weekend.
Q:What will the weather be like next weekend?
7. W:Who can take part in the running race?
M:I'm afraid Lucy can't. She is ill. But Linda can.
Q:Who can take part in the running race?
8. W:How do you usually go to the training center, Alan?
M:By bike. But today I went there on foot because my bike was broken.
Q:How did Alan go to the training center today?
9. W:Your mother is a good teacher. What does your father do?
M:He is a doctor and he is popular in his hospital.
Q:What is the boy's father?
10. W:Liu Jun, how many animals are there on your grandfather's farm?
M:There are 12 sheep and 13 rabbits.
Q:How many animals are there on the farm?
第二节：听下面两段对话，每段对话后有几道小题，请根据对话的内容，从题目所给的三个选项中选出所给问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
听第11段对话，回答第11、12小题。
W:Where were you yesterday afternoon, Wang Tao?
M:I stayed at home. And I made dumplings for my family.
W:Really?I didn't know you could cook.
M:I cook for my family twice a week.
W:When can you cook for them?I know you are very busy every day.
M:On Wednesday and Sunday evening.
听第12段对话，回答第13 至15小题。
W:There is a concert in the square tonight, Tom. Would you like to go to it?
M:What kind of music will be performed there?
W:Rock music. Do you like it?
M:I don’t like it. It makes me nervous. I like peaceful music.
W:Then what about going to the movies? There is a movie about the love between mother and daughter.
M:Wonderful!I like movies about love.
W:Great. The movie starts at seven o'clock. Let's meet at half past six at the gate of the cinema.
M:OK. See you then.
Ⅱ.听填信息
本题你将听到一段独白，读两遍。请根据独白内容，用所听到的信息完成下列各题。每空不超过三个单词。
As you know, our class trip is coming, so I want to tell you something we should pay attention to.We are going to visit the museum on Saturday morning. We can learn about the history and development of films there. I think it will be interesting. We are going to start out at 8:15 a. m. by bus. So please meet me at 8:00 a. m. at the bus stop.
Next, it's about the cost. Each of us should pay nine dollars. And I will also give you some work to do at the museum. You need to take a pen and a notebook with you to write something down. You don’t need to bring any food with you because we'll have lunch in the museum restaurant. Of course, you can take some water if you like. That's all.