2023年高考英语全真模拟终极冲刺卷（新高考卷） 03 解析版

这是一份2023年高考英语全真模拟终极冲刺卷（新高考卷） 03 解析版，共18页。
绝密★启用前
2023年高考英语全真模拟终极冲刺卷（新高考卷） 03 解析版
目录
内容提要
阅读A篇
家庭乘船游览莱茵河的行程
阅读B篇
社交媒体影响人们心理健康
阅读C篇
中国在空间站种植水稻幼苗
阅读D篇
虚拟现实游戏用于招聘测试
阅读七选五
规律饮食与大脑健康的关系
完形填空
唐氏综合征患者助人为乐
语法填空
A)张树鹏翼装飞行穿越天门洞
语法填空
B)非物质文化遗产--针灸渊源
应用文写作
中国诗歌朗诵比赛建议信
读后续写
为宠物展当播音员积极训练
（考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分）
注意事项：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分听力 (共两节，满分20分)
第一节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What will the man do on Friday?
A. Give a lecture. B. Attend a lecture. C. Work on his novel.
2. Why has the man bought the coats?
A. It’ll be a cold winter. B. He’ll have an interview. C. His arm and leg hurt.
3. How does the man advise the woman to travel?
A. By car. B. By underground. C. By plane.
4. Who is in charge of the Europe department?
A. Mr Brown. B. The man. C. The woman.
5. Where are the speakers most probably?
A. At the visitors’ center. B. In a school. C. On the school bus.
第二节(共15小题;每小题。。5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What does the woman think of traveling by plane?
A. It’s inconvenient. B. It’s too expensive. C. It saves money.
7. How are the speakers going to New York?
A. By air. B. By water. C. By land.
听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。
8. Who are the intended readers for the woman’s book?
A. Adolescents. B. Adults. C. The elderly.
9. What’s the man doing?
A. Preparing for an exam. B. Getting ready for a trip. C. Planning for an exhibition.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. Why was the woman late?
A. She went to Mary’s. B. She had her phone fixed. C. Her car broke clown.
11. What did Mary do?
A. She got stuck. B. She tried to help others. C. She made up a story.
12. What did Mary see on the road?
A. A person. B. An accident. C. An animal.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Who told the woman something about the man?
A. Her classmate. B. Her neighbor. C. Her friend.
14. What’s the woman like?
A. Friendly. B. Shy. C. Humorous.
15. What’s the most probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Friends. B. Colleagues. C. Strangers.
16. When did the woman move?
A. About two months ago. B. About two years ago. C. About two days ago.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What courses does the school mainly offer?
A. Science. B. English. C. Business.
18. Who are the target students of the school?
A. Teenagers. B. Young kids. C. Adults.
19. Where will die exhibition be held?
A. In the school hall. B. In the English garden. C. In No.1 Teaching Building.
20. How can you contact the school?
A. By making a call. B. By sending an email. C. By writing a letter.
1-5CABAB 6-10 BCABA 11-15 BCCAC 16-20 ABCCA
Text 1
W: Friday’s lecture is supposed to be wonderful. Do you want to go?
M: I’d like to, but I’ve got to write my novel.
Text 2
W: The forecast says we’ll have a severe winter. Are you prepared?
M: Yes. I’ve bought two very warm coats. They cost me an arm and a leg.
Text 3
W: My car has broken down. Could you give me a ride to the art museum?
M: Henry is using my car now. Why not take the subway?
Text 4
M: What are you reading?
W: The year-end report.
M: The report says all departments are making a profit except the Europe department.
W: Well, Mr Brown seems to be the wrong person to head that department.
Text 5
W: Let’s go and show the students around the campus.
M: Why?
W: What do you mean?
M: Doesn’t the visitors’ center offer a wonderful bus tour?
Text 6
W: Honey, how are we going to New York? Have you decided yet?
M: Not yet. Should we fly? It can save us a lot of time.
W: But it’s too costly. What about renting a car?
M: You don’t know how to drive. I’ll get too tired if I drive all the time.
W: Then let’s take the train. We won’t miss the beautiful scenery on the way.
M: It sounds like a good idea.
Text 7
M: Lisa, long time no see. What have you been busy with?
W: Well, my publisher wanted me to write a book for teenagers. I must finish it within three months. So I spend most of my time on it now.
M: Well, have you finished it?
W: Not yet. There is still one month left. And I’ve finished about three fourths of it. So I’m sure I can finish it before due time.
M: Great.
W: So are you busy with anything recently?
M: Not exactly. Actually I’m planning for a trip to New Zealand. But I can’t find anyone to go with me.
W: It’s a pity. I can’t go with you now.
Text 8
M: There you are. I’m getting worried.
W: Why didn’t you just call me?
M: I tried, but I couldn’t get through.
W: Oh, it’s powered off. Sorry, Dad. I ran into Mary and I went to hers and talked with her for a while there. She told me a story.
M: What did she tell you?
W: Well, she was driving home tonight, and she suddenly saw someone on his hands and knees in the middle of the road. She stopped the car and wanted to ask if there was anything she could do. But do you know what happened?
M: What happened?
W: The person suddenly jumped away and disappeared.
M: Wow. That person was really awesome. Did he know Chinese kung fu?
W: Well, Mary later realized it wasn’t a person. It was a deer. She couldn’t help laughing after she realized that.
Text 9
W: Hi, I’m Lily. You’re Owen, right?
M: Yes.
W: I heard something about you from my new friend Fanny 3 days ago. She said you’re handsome and have a good sense of humor.
M: Really? I’m really shy and a little nervous when I’m talking to a stranger.
W: So are you nervous now?
M: Yes, a little bit. I haven’t seen you before. Do you live here?
W: Yes. But I moved here just about two months ago. So I don’t really know many people here.
M: I’m sure you’ll make many friends here soon. You’re friendly, outgoing and beautiful.
W: Thanks.
M: By the way, have you heard about the robbery that took place last night?
W: No. Who got robbed?
M: The Smiths. Luckily! they didn’t lose any valuable things but 500 dollars in cash. Anyway, such things hardly happen here. So don’t worry.
Text 10
Welcome to Central School of English. Thank you for choosing our school and joining the happy Central School of English family which has been helping people improve their English since 1968. We offer a wide range of quality English courses in London to adults, including Everyday English! English for Business, Examination Preparation and English for Specific Purposes. We are so happy that you have taken time off to be with us today. It is with great pleasure that we have prepared some events that we hope will please you.
At 10:00 am, our headmaster will give a welcome speech. This will be in the school hall. Please be seated by 9:45 am. The speech will last for about half an hour. Following the speech is the guided tour of the exhibition at 10:45 am. Here you can see our achievements in the field of English teaching. The exhibition takes place in the classrooms on the ground floor of No. 1 Teaching Building. After the exhibition, you’ll be taken to the English garden. This is where people gather and practice their oral English. You can meet people from different countries there. Lunch will be served at 12:30 pm. We are so happy that you could be with us today. Please contact us if you have any questions or are interested in any of our classes. You can call 0044-207 580 2863.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题：每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Cruising(乘船游览) the Rhine: a family trip
Create family memories during our popular Rhine River cruise!
Days 1& 2—Leave for Zurich, Switzerland
Depart from the US on a flight to Zurich and transfer to Basel to get on MS Amadeus Queens, where each adult and child will receive a special Welcome Package with general information about the cruise. The travel director will be on board to offer suggestions on independent activities. Then the ship will depart from Basel for Strasbourg and the passengers will gather for a welcome party and dinner on the ship.
Day 3—Strasbourg
Choice 1—Strasbourg Panoramic Tour
This tour shows the most important city of France’s Alsace Region and the capital of the European Union. After the tour, you can enjoy a guided walk through Strasbourg’s historic center and visit Notre Dame Cathedral.
Choice 2—Culinary Strasbourg
It offers insight into the city’s culinary heritage. Strasbourg is famous for its cooking throughout France. In “Winstubs”, small wine bars, typical of Strasbourg, traditional dishes can be enjoyed.
Day 4—Speyer/ Heidelberg
Choice 1—Technic Museum in Speyer
Explore inside an original huge plane and study the inner workings of a sea rescue boat. You’ll find the largest space flight exhibition in Europe, showing the Russian spacecraft Buran, a real moonstone, spacesuits as well as classic cars, fire trucks, motorcycles, and other exhibits.
Choice 2—Heidelberg Castle and Town
Explore historic Heidelberg and visit the red-walled castle. See beautiful views of the Neckar Valley and the city below.
Choice 3—Hike Heidelberg’s Philosopher’s Way
Hike the famous “Philosopher’s Way” for impressive views of Heidelberg Castle and the old town. Take a rest in Philosopher’s Garden while enjoying the view along with snacks and drinks.
21. What does the Welcome Package provide?
A. Tips on independent activities. B. A guide to MS Amadeus Queens.
C. The introduction to the river cruise. D. Information about the welcome party.
22. Which route may a food lover enjoy most?
A. Culinary Strasbourg. B. Strasbourg Panoramic Tour.
C. Technic Museum in Speyer. D. Heidelberg Castle and Town.
23. What can tourists do during the tour of Speyer?
A. Travel in classic motor vehicles. B. Get some knowledge of space.
C. Go hiking on a well-known path. D. Explore the historic castle and town.
【答案】CAB
【导语】本文为一篇广告类的应用文。介绍了家庭为单位的乘船游览莱茵河的行程安排。
21. 细节理解题。根据Days 1& 2—Leave for Zurich, Switzerland的第一句“Depart from the US on a flight to Zurich and transfer to Basel to get on MS Amadeus Queens, where each adult and child will receive a special Welcome Package with general information about the cruise. The travel director will be on board to offer suggestions on independent activities. (从美国飞往苏黎世，转乘巴塞尔的MS Amadeus Queens，每个大人和孩子都将收到一个特别的欢迎礼包，上面有邮轮的基本信息。)”可知，这个欢迎环节在MS Amadeus Queens这条船上，欢迎礼包里边有邮轮的基本信息。故选C项。
22. 细节理解题。根据Day 3之Choice 2—Culinary Strasbourg的“It offers insight into the city’s culinary heritage. Strasbourg is famous for its cooking throughout France. In ‘Winstubs’, small wine bars, typical of Strasbourg, traditional dishes can be enjoyed. (它能让你深入了解这座城市的烹饪传统。斯特拉斯堡以烹饪闻名于全法国。在典型的斯特拉斯堡小酒吧Winstubs，可以品尝到传统菜肴。)”可知，美食爱好者最喜欢的线路应该是Culinary Strasbourg。故选A项。
23. 推理判断题。根据Day 4—Speyer/Heidelberg之Choice 1—Technic Museum in Speyer的“Explore inside an original huge plane and study the inner workings of a sea rescue boat. You’ll find the largest space flight exhibition in Europe, showing the Russian spacecraft Buran, a real moonstone, spacesuits as well as classic cars, fire trucks, motorcycles, and other exhibits. (探索原始的巨大飞机内部，研究海上救援船的内部工作原理。你会发现欧洲最大的太空飞行展览，展示俄罗斯的‘布兰’号宇宙飞船、真正的月光石、宇航服以及经典汽车、消防车、摩托车等展品)”可知，在这个环节，游客可以了解一些太空知识。故选B项。
B
The Sunday Times spoke to 23 people including social workers, psychologists and parents, who said the impact of social media on the mental health of the young in Singapore is concerning.
Mr Cho Ming Xiu, founder of mental advocacy non-profit Campus PSY, said most young people find it difficult not to check on their friends on social media and compare their lives. “You can’t just do well in your studies. You have to be an all-rounder—you have to have a good CCA record, secure a good internship at a reputable company. This constant competition emphasized by social media channels by their peers—when everyone is posting about good things—intensifies competition, and young people find it stressful,” he added.
Psychologists say that the flood of attractive posts can cause feelings of dissatisfaction, especially among young people with less experience to tell the social media world from real life. Assistant director of Touch Mental Wellness Andrea Chan said, “Seeing good things can draw much envy and comparison, while identification with bad things can lead to a negative circle.” And the strengthening of pleasure-seeking posting on social media can result in addiction, said the head of psychology at the Singapore University of Social Science.
Ms Lee Yi Ping, program leader of Community Health Assessment Team, said, “In the event that a young person feels disappointed by the responses received, the depression is often left unnoticed unless the young person openly talks about it with another trusted person. Support must come from family and friends who can constantly remind the young people that no matter how challenging a life circumstance can be, they can overcome it.” “With timely and proper medical and psycho-social treatments by formal sources of support like helping professionals, coupled with informal sources of support like family and friends, young people stand a better chance with recovery and regain the ability to pursue their ambitions in life,” she added.
The experts say if these pressures are left unchecked, negative thoughts and feelings from social media can contribute to depression, anxiety and eating disorders.
24. What does the underlined word “intensifies” in Paragraph 2 mean?
A. Ruins. B. Updates. C. Heightens. D. Brightens.
25. What is Paragraph 3 mainly about?
A. The effects of social media. B. The situation of social media.
C. The reasons for social media addiction. D. The enthusiasm for good posts on media.
26. What do we know from Ms Lee Yi Ping’s words?
A. Professional treatment does little to help out.
B. The ambition will reduce unnoticed depression.
C. Support from parents and friends really matters.
D. Young people can overcome the depression alone.
27. What message does the author seem to convey in the text?
A. Experts can address the impact of media.
B. The young ignore the unchecked pressures.
C. Pleasure-seeking posting is supposed to become popular.
D. Negative feelings from social media do harm to the young.
【答案】24. C 25. A 26. C 27. D
【导语】本文是一篇新闻报道，主要讲的是《星期日泰晤士报》采访了包括社会工作者、心理学家和家长在内的23人，他们表示社交媒体对新加坡年轻人心理健康的影响令人担忧。
24.词句猜测题。根据第二段的“This constant competition emphasized by social media channels by their peers—when everyone is posting about good things(这种持续的竞争被社交媒体渠道的同行所强调——当每个人都在发布好东西时)”和“young people find it stressful(年轻人感到压力很大)”可知，每个人都在发布好东西时加剧了这种竞争，划线词intensifies的意思是“加剧”，和heightens意思相近，故选C。
25.主旨大意题。根据第三段的“Psychologists say that the flood of attractive posts can cause feelings of dissatisfaction, especially among young people with less experience to tell the social media world from real life.(心理学家表示，大量吸引人的帖子可能会引起不满情绪，尤其是在那些缺乏区分社交媒体世界和现实生活经验的年轻人中。)”，“Seeing good things can draw much envy and comparison, while identification with bad things can lead to a negative circle.(看到好的东西会引起嫉妒和比较，而对不好的东西的认同会导致一个消极的循环。)”和“And the strengthening of pleasure-seeking posting on social media can result in addiction(而社交媒体上寻求快乐的帖子的加强可能会导致成瘾)”可知，第三段主要讲的是社交媒体的影响，故选A。
26.推理判断题。根据倒数第二段的““In the event that a young person feels disappointed by the responses received, the depression is often left unnoticed unless the young person openly talks about it with another trusted person. Support must come from family and friends who can constantly remind the young people that no matter how challenging a life circumstance can be, they can overcome it.” “With timely and proper medical and psycho-social treatments by formal sources of support like helping professionals, coupled with informal sources of support like family and friends, young people stand a better chance with recovery and regain the ability to pursue their ambitions in life,” (“如果一个年轻人对收到的回应感到失望，除非这个年轻人与另一个值得信任的人公开谈论，否则抑郁通常不会被注意到。支持必须来自家人和朋友，他们可以不断地提醒年轻人，无论生活环境多么具有挑战性，他们都能克服它。”“通过专业人士等正式支持来源的及时、适当的医疗和心理社会治疗，再加上家人和朋友等非正式支持来源，年轻人更有可能康复，重新获得追求生活抱负的能力。”)”可知，从Ms Lee Yi Ping的话中可以了解到父母和朋友的支持真的很重要。故选C。
27.推理判断题。根据最后一段的“The experts say if these pressures are left unchecked, negative thoughts and feelings from social media can contribute to depression, anxiety and eating disorders.(专家们表示，如果这些压力不加以控制，来自社交媒体的消极想法和感受会导致抑郁、焦虑和饮食失调。)”可知，作者在文章中似乎传达的消息是社交媒体上的负面情绪对年轻人有害。故选D。
C
Chinese astronauts have successfully grown rice seedlings(幼苗)aboard the Tiangong space station and this experiment may offer key insights into how astronauts can grow food to support long—term space missions, experts said on Monday. This experiment is the first to produce the complete life cycle of the plant, which begins with a seed and ends with a mature plant producing new seeds.
The breakthrough was conducted in the Wentian space laboratory, which was launched into orbit on July 24, 2022. Three astronauts were conducting the experiment smoothly and testing the plants according to the plan.
“The rice seedlings are growing very well,” said Zheng Huiqiong, a researcher of the task, adding that the experiment also contained seedlings of a small flowering plant often used by scientists to study mutations(变异). “The astronauts will keep monitoring the plants, and if it is successful, they will collect the newly produced seeds and bring them back to Earth for further studies,” she noted
The flowering stage is crucial for plant reproductive development. “We want to investigate how microgravity can affect the plant flowering time and whether it is possible to use the microgravity environment to control the related process,” she said.
Since the 1980s, China has been taking seeds of rice and other crops to space to help them mutate and produce higher yields once they were planted on Earth. But growing rice in orbit is a different challenge due to the tough conditions of space such as microgravity and lack of air.
Rice has been a main food for astronauts since the early days of space exploration. Freeze—dried chicken and rice was the menu for the Apollo 11 mission, which carried the first humans to land on the moon in July 1969.
“But if we want to land on and explore Mars, bringing food from Earth is not enough to provide for the astronauts’ long journey and mission in space. We have to find a food source for long term space explorations,” Zheng added.
28. What’s the significance of Chinese recent space rice experiment?
A. It enables human beings to move to another planet.
B. It helps people get a better idea of the human life cycle.
C. It inspires more other countries to do space explorations
D. It makes it possible to carry out long—term space missions
29. What does the underlined word “it” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. The mutation. B. The experiment. C. The exploration. D. The space mission.
30. Why have crop seeds been brought to space since the last century?
A. To promote genetic changes and increase crop harvest.
B. To figure out how to create an earth—like environment.
C. To study the impact of microgravity on crop growth.
D. To develop new crop species with strong ability to adapt.
31. Where is the text most probably from?
A. A medical report. B. A fashion magazine.
C. A science newspaper. D. A history book.
【答案】28. D 29. B 30. A 31. C
【导语】本文是一篇新闻报道。文章主要讲述了中国宇航员在天宫空间站成功种植水稻幼苗，这项实验可能为宇航员如何种植粮食以支持长期太空任务提供关键见解。
28.细节理解题。根据第一段“Chinese astronauts have successfully grown rice seedlings(幼苗)aboard the Tiangong space station and this experiment may offer key insights into how astronauts can grow food to support long—term space missions, experts said on Monday.( 专家周一表示，中国宇航员已经成功地在天宫空间站上种植水稻幼苗，这一实验可能为宇航员如何种植食物以支持长期太空任务提供关键见解。)”中国最近的太空水稻实验使执行长期太空任务成为可能，故选D。
29.词句猜测题。根据第三段““The rice seedlings are growing very well,” said Zheng Huiqiong, a researcher of the task, adding that the experiment also contained seedlings of a small flowering plant often used by scientists to study mutations(变异).( “水稻幼苗长得很好，”该任务研究员郑慧琼说，他补充说，该实验还包含了一种小型开花植物的幼苗，科学家经常用它来研究突变)”可知如果实验成功，他们将收集新产生的种子，并将它们带回地球进行进一步研究。故此处的it指代实验，故选B。
30.推理判断题。根据第五段“Since the 1980s, China has been taking seeds of rice and other crops to space to help them mutate and produce higher yields once they were planted on Earth.(自20世纪80年代以来，中国一直在将水稻和其他作物的种子带到太空，帮助它们在地球上种植后发生突变，从而产生更高的产量。)”可推断自上个世纪以来农作物种子被带到太空，促进基因变化，提高作物产量。故选A。
31.推理判断题。根据第一段“Chinese astronauts have successfully grown rice seedlings(幼苗)aboard the Tiangong space station and this experiment may offer key insights into how astronauts can grow food to support long—term space missions, experts said on Monday.( 专家周一表示，中国宇航员已经成功地在天宫空间站上种植水稻幼苗，这一实验可能为宇航员如何种植食物以支持长期太空任务提供关键见解。)”可知文章是关于科学的一篇报道，故选C。
D
Virtual reality gamers (VR game) who finished it faster than their fellow gamers also have higher levels of general intelligence and processing capacity. This was the result of a study conducted by Markus Weinmann from the University of Cologne. The results also indicate that virtual reality games can be useful supplementary(补充) human resource management tools in companies for predicting the job performance of an applicant.
Several studies have already shown that video games may indicate or even help to develop intellectual and cognitive abilities. As intelligence is one of the most commonly used predictors for job performance, video games could be interesting for the human resource management. Although many companies are increasingly using VR technology to recruit(招募) candidates, only few studies have specifically investigated whether and how VR games can be used to draw conclusions about intelligence in this area. The study contributes to bridging the gap between research and practice.
Weinmann invited 103 participants to their lab. Under controlled laboratory conditions, they played the commercial VR game “Job Simulator”and completed the short version of the intelligence test BIS-4. The researcher’s analyses show that an increase of 17% in processing capacity correlated with less time spent playing the game (by an average of 3.7 minutes).
The results are a scientific novelty, as it has hardly been possible to conduct VR studies with state-of-the-art VR hardware. There are thus few studies that have investigated the correlation between behavior in VR and intelligence, “There are already some companies that use games, so-called ‘serious games’, for recruiting. The new results are in line with this specific application of VR games and show that they can be used for recruiting,” said Weinmann.
The scientists intend to continue their research on the potential of video games for practical applications. Among other things, they are investigating how people behave in virtual world.
32. What can we learn from Weinmann’s study?
A. The results are far from satisfactory.
B. The participants can play the game freely.
C. It aims to develop intellectual ability.
D. It helps to combine research with practice.
33. What is Weinmann’s attitude to the result of the study?
A. Unclear. B. Intolerant. C. Favorable. D. Doubtful.
34. What is the last paragraph mainly about?
A. Limitations of the study.
B. Possible directions for future study.
C. The present situation of the study.
D. The explanation of the research method.
35. Which of the following is the best title for the text?
A. VR games can be used in recruitment
B. VR games can indicate intelligence level
C. VR games improve applicants’ performance
D. VR games have gain popularity in management
【答案】32. D 33. C 34. B 35. A
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。主要介绍的是一项研究发现虚拟现实游戏可以作为人力资源管理的辅助工具，用于对应聘者的工作能力进行测试。
32.细节理解题。根据第二段中的“Although many companies are increasingly using VR technology to recruit(招募) candidates, only few studies have specifically investigated whether and how VR games can be used to draw conclusions about intelligence in this area. The study contributes to bridging the gap between research and practice.(尽管许多公司越来越多地使用VR技术来招聘候选人，但只有少数研究专门调查了VR游戏是否以及如何用于得出这一领域的智力结论。这项研究有助于弥合研究与实践之间的空缺。)”可知，该项研究填补了在研究与实践之间的空缺，所以这项研究帮助把研究与实践结合起来。故选D项。
33.推理判断题。根据倒数第二段中的“The new results are in line with this specific application of VR games and show that they can be used for recruiting,” said Weinmann.(新的结果与VR游戏的具体应用相一致，并表明它们可以用于招聘。”)”可知，Weinmann认为这项研究成果可用于招聘中，所以他对研究结果持赞成态度。故选C项。
34.主旨大意题。根据尾段“The scientists intend to continue their research on the potential of video games for practical applications. Among other things, they are investigating how people behave in virtual world.(科学家们打算继续研究电子游戏在实际应用中的潜力。除此之外，他们正在调查人们在虚拟世界中的行为。)”可知，科学家将继续研究电子游戏在实际应用中的潜力以及人们在虚拟世界中的行为，由此可推断，该段主要介绍的是未来研究的方向。故选B项。
35.主旨大意题。根据首段中的“The results also indicate that virtual reality games can be useful supplementary(补充) human resource management tools in companies for predicting the job performance of an applicant.(研究结果还表明，虚拟现实游戏可以作为企业人力资源管理的辅助工具，用于预测应聘者的工作表现。)”并结合下文对该研究成果的分析可知，本文主要介绍的为VR虚拟现实游戏可知用于招聘中对应聘人员的工作表现进行测试，所以“VR game可用于招聘”作为文章题目概括了全文内容也体现了文章主题。故选A项。
第二节(共5小题：每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
A study came out just a few days ago that found people who eat healthily about 80 percent of the time have a high protection on brain health. 36
It doesn’t mean that you should just go to crazy 80% of the time. But be more aware that you are more likely to stick to a healthy lifestyle if there’s some relaxation here and there. That’s all part of living.
My name is Mark Mailstein and I’m a brain health researcher and the author of The Age-proof Brain.
37
For breakfast, I try to eat oatmeal(麦片粥).Usually it’s the quick, the instant, but make sure that it’s not the type with any added sugar. 38
And then lunch and dinner. I pretty much try to keep really simple. I will look at my plate and have some sort of lean meat. I eat a lot of fish and chicken. And I really just try to think of mixed vegetables, like really colorful plates of fruits, vegetables you know. 39 There are these interesting studies that show it’s the combinations of different types of vegetables, so I try to mix them in.
Sometimes I think something that might be surprising is that I might have a smoothie(奶昔) for dinner as a way to get all those vegetables in. My go-to smoothie is that I take broccoli (西兰花). 40 And I throw carrots and all sorts of vegetables in there.
A. I really like sweet potatoes.
B. They scored really high on memory tests.
C. I try to keep it pretty simple in terms of eating.
D. Your diet can definitely improve your brain health.
E. There’s more evidence that you get more brain health benefit.
F. People always ask what’s the best fruit and vegetable for my brain.
G. So, no additive because we know those additives are not beneficial for brain health.
【答案】36. B 37. C 38. G 39. F 40. E
【导语】这是一篇说明文。文章介绍的一项研究表明80%的时间吃得健康的人对大脑健康有很高的保护作用，并且通过 《抗衰老大脑》一书的作者Mark Mailstein的亲身经历，建议应该尽量使自己的生活过得健康又有规律。
36.前文提到“A study came out just a few days ago that found people who eat healthily about 80 percent of the time have a high protection on brain health.”（几天前的一项研究发现，80%的时间吃得健康的人对大脑健康有很高的保护作用。），吃的健康对于大脑有着非常好的作用，由此判断，健康的大脑在一些测试中应该也能得到很高的分数。B项“They scored really high on memory tests.”（他们在记忆测试中得分很高。）该项符合文意。故选B。
37.后文提到“For breakfast, I try to eat oatmeal”（早餐，我尽量吃燕麦片）由此判断，在吃方面Mark确实吃的比较简单。C项“I try to keep it pretty simple in terms of eating.”（我尽量在饮食方面保持简单。）该项符合文意。故选C。
38.前文提到“Usually it’s the quick, the instant, but make sure that it’s not the type with any added sugar. ”（通常是速溶的，但要确保不是加糖的那种。）由此判断，Mark在选择吃的东西上也是选择成分比较简单的那种，甚至不加糖。G项“So, no additive because we know those additives are not beneficial for brain health.”（所以，不要添加添加剂，因为我们知道这些添加剂对大脑健康无益。）该项符合文意。故选G。
39.后文提到“There are these interesting studies that show it’s the combinations of different types of vegetables, so I try to mix them in.”（有一些有趣的研究表明，这是不同类型蔬菜的组合，所以我试着把它们混合在一起。）研究结果证明，对大脑好的蔬菜不分种类，可以混在一起吃，空处应该引起下文。F项“People always ask what’s the best fruit and vegetable for my brain.”（人们总是问哪种蔬菜对大脑最好）符合，下文回答了F项内容，即对大脑好的蔬菜不分种类，可以混在一起吃。故选F。
40.前文提到“My go-to smoothie is that I take broccoli (西兰花).”（我最喜欢在奶昔中加西兰花），Mark是一位脑健康研究员，因此他应该知道哪种蔬菜对大脑有好处，他最喜欢的是西兰花，由此判断，西兰花对大脑有着非常大的好处。E项“There’s more evidence that you get more brain health benefit.”（有更多的证据表明，你能得到对大脑健康更多的好处。）该项符合文意。故选E。
第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题; 每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
For the past 17 years, Tess Trojan has competed in the Special Olympics, with no intentions of slowing down anytime soon.
Tess Trojan has been living with Down Syndrome (唐氏综合症), a 41 in which extra genetic material causes delays in the way a child 42 , both mentally and physically.
43 her disease, the 26-year-old woman from Canada won the gold medal in golf at the 2014 National Games. Soon, she 44 _ to Los Angeles for the 2015 Special Olympics World Summer Games, which attracted roughly 7, 000 athletes from 177 countries.
In 2000, she 45 _ as a bowling athlete. And today, she 46 plays baseball, basketball, tennis and golf with her primary 47 on being golf. She trains hard with her golf coaches and understands that golf is mostly a game of 48 _ your mental ability. “For golf, you have to be mentally prepared, ” she said. Not only is she an extremely talented golfer, but Trojan has also won awards for swimming and tennis. “I love doing 49 sports. So when I was young I used to jump from one sport to another, ” she said.
Being a multi-sport athlete is something she recommends to kids. “Be 50 to learning new sports and you will have many fresh 51 , ”Trojan often tells kids.
Her positive attitude is contagious (感染性) and evidently making a 52 in a young girl that she coaches. For the past year, Trojan has 53 Emi, a six-year-old girl with Down Syndrome, learn about different sports. They, of course, also make time for fun things like arts and crafts. Emi, who used to be fat, ill and depressed, has now become 54 , healthy and positive. Trojan says she loves working with kids and hopes to do more in the future. She thinks that it’s a way of 55 to help others.
41. A. stage B. state C. position D. condition
42. A. performs B. develops C. thinks D. studies
43. A. Despite B. Besides C. Beyond D. Above
44. A. headed B. appealed C. contributed D. leaded
45. A. served B. acted C. ended D. started
46. A. regularly B. casually C. quietly D. occasionally
47. A. goal B. instruction C. concern D. focus
48. A. proving B. succeeding C. challenging D. damaging
49. A. adventurous B. unique C. various D. simple
50. A. similar B. open C. sensitive D. accessible
51. A. ideas B. senses C. opinions D. experiences
52. A. promise B. decision C. difference D. mistake
53. A. helped B. encouraged C. persuaded D. reminded
54. A. heavy B. fit C. powerful D. worried
55. A. slowing down B. paying back C. giving up D. cutting down
【答案】41. D42. B43. A44. A45. D46. A47. D48. C49. C50. B51. D52. C53. A54. B55. B
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文，文章讲述了患有唐氏综合征的Tess Trojan 在运动方面取得的成就。Tess Trojan一直以来以golf为主，同时积极参加多种运动，并从中受益。她还帮助别的孩子学习不同的运动。
41.考查名词词义辨析。句意：泰丝·特洛伊一直患有唐氏综合症，这是一种额外的遗传物质导致儿童智力和身体发育迟缓的疾病。A. stage舞台；B. state状态；C. position位置；姿势；D. condition疾病。根据前文的提到的唐氏综合征可知，这是一种疾病。故选D。
42.考查动词词义辨析。句意同上。A. performs表演；B. develops发展；C. thinks认为；D. studies学习。根据上文的“causes delays”和下文“both mentally and physically”可知，该疾病会影响孩子身心发育，develop此处有“成长、发育”之意。故选B。
43.考查介词词义辨析。句意：尽管身患疾病，这位来自加拿大的46岁女子还是在4014年全运会上获得了高尔夫金牌。A. Despite尽管；B. Besides此外；C. Beyond除了；D. Above在……上面。根据上下文的逻辑，尽管主人公身患疾病，她还是获得了高尔夫的全国比赛金牌，故选A。
44.考查动词词义辨析。句意：不久，她前往洛杉矶参加2015年世界夏季特殊奥林匹克运动会，该运动会吸引了来自177个国家的约7000名运动员。A. headed前往；B. appealed呼吁；C. contributed贡献；D. leaded带领。根据下文“to Los Angeles for the 2013 Special Olympics World Summer Games”可知主人公是前往洛杉矶参加运动会，故选A。
45.考查动词词义辨析。句意：2000年，她开始成为了一名保龄球运动员。A. served服务；B. acted行动；C. ended结束；D. started开始。根据下文“today, she 46 plays baseball, basketball, tennis and golf with her primary 47 on being golf.”可知，开始时她是保龄球运动员。故选D。
46.考查副词词义辨析。句意：如今，她经常打棒球、篮球、网球和高尔夫球，她的主要关注点是高尔夫球。A. regularly定期地；B. casually随意地；C. quietly安静地；D. occasionally偶然。根据下文“plays baseball, basketball, tennis and golf”可知，主人公运动爱好广泛，她始于bowling athlete，至今仍然以golf为主的基础上也经常参加其他运动项目。故选A。
47.考查名词词义辨析。句意：如今，她经常打棒球、篮球、网球和高尔夫球，她的主要关注点是高尔夫球。A. goal目的；B. instruction指导；C. concern关心；担心；D. focus焦点。根据下文“She trains hard with her golf coaches”并结合前文内容可知，虽然主人公喜欢多种运动，但是还是保证了golf的中心地位，才有其2012年取得全国金牌的好成绩。故选D。
48.考查动名词词义辨析。句意：她和她的高尔夫教练一起刻苦训练，她明白高尔夫主要是一项挑战你心理能力的运动。A. proving证明；B. succeeding成功；C. challenging挑战；D. damaging毁坏。根据下文““For golf, you have to be mentally prepared, ” she said.”可知，她明白高尔夫是挑战心理能力的运动。故选C。
49.考查形容词词义辨析。句意：“我喜欢做各种运动。所以当我年轻的时候，我经常从一个项目跳到另一个项目，”她说。A. adventurous冒险的；B. unique独一无二的；C. various不同的；D. simple简单的。联系上文“plays baseball, basketball, tennis and golf”可知主人公喜欢各种运动。故选C。
50.考查形容词词义辨析。句意：“乐于地学习新的运动，你会有很多新鲜的经验，”特洛伊经常告诉孩子们。A. similar相似的；B. open开放的；C. sensitive敏感的；D. accessible可进入的。根据上文“Being a multi-sport athlete is something she recommends to kids.”可知，她推荐孩子们乐于学习新的运动。be open to意为“愿接受……的”。故选B。
51.考查名词词义辨析。句意同上。A. ideas想法；B. senses感觉；C. opinions意见；D. experiences经历。根据前文“Being a multi-sport athlete is something she recommends to kids.”可知，接受多种运动，学习新的运动，会有很多新的经历。故选D。
52.考查名词词义辨析。句意：她积极的态度很有感染力，显然对她所指导的一个小女孩产生了影响。A. promise诺言；B. decision决定；C. difference不同之处；D. mistake错误。根据前文“Her positive attitude is contagious (感染性的)”可知，主人公对她所教的孩子们的影响很大。后文的例子也是围绕这个观点展开的。make a difference 意思为“有影响”，故选C。
53.考查动词词义辨析。句意：在过去的一年里，特洛伊帮助患有唐氏综合症的六岁女孩埃米学习不同的运动。A. helped帮助；B. encouraged鼓励；C. persuaded说服；D. reminded提醒。根据前一句“Her positive attitude is contagious(感染性的)and evidently making a 54 in a young girl that she coaches.”提到主人公对体育的积极态度对别人的影响，本句是讲述了其帮助Emi学习不同的运动的事例。故选A。
54.考查形容词词义辨析。句意：曾经肥胖、生病、抑郁的Emi现在变得健康、健壮、积极。A. heavy沉重的；B. fit健康的；C. powerful强大的；D. worried担心的。本句强调了学习多种运动对Emi的正面影响。根据前文的“fat，ill and depressed”对应后半句的“healthy and positive”可知，现在的Emi健康积极。故选B。
55.考查动词辨析短语。句意：她认为这是帮助别人的一种回报方式。A. slowing down减速；B. paying back偿还；C. giving up放弃；D. cutting down砍断。根据前文“Trojan says she loves working with kids and hopes to do more in the future”可知，特洛伊说，她喜欢和孩子们一起工作，并希望在未来做更多的事情。联系主人公的成长经历，该句表达的是主人公认为帮助孩子是一种回报。主人公作为一个有唐氏综合症的人，成功的路上需要更多的帮助和支持，因此成功后，回报社会是一种自然的选择。故选B。
第二节(共10小题; 每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
A) Zhang Shupeng, the daring Chinese wingsuiter, has successfully flown through China's famed Tianmen Cave this Sunday in Zhangjiajie, central China's Hunan Province.
Zhang took a helicopter (直升飞机) to a 56 (high) of nearly 2,200 meters behind Tianmen Cave. He jumped out of the cabin 57 (wear) a wingsuit and successfully flew through Tianmen Cave at a speed of 180 km/h.
58 Zhang accomplished the feat, everyone in the crowd cheered and clapped loudly, praising how 59 (impress) the flight was. Then, Zhang continued to glide and successfully completed the challenge by landing 60 (effortless) at the designated landing point.
"I'm so happy that my dream has come true today! I 61 (prepare) for this for the past 12 years, ever since I saw wingsuits come to China," said 38-year-old Zhang.
Before taking up wingsuit flying, Zhang was 62 member of China's national paragliding (滑翔伞) team and won international honours. He has flown on Tianmen Mountain more than 1,200 63 (time) to date.
Tianmen Cave is 131.5 meters high, 57 meters wide, and 60 meters deep, 64 an altitude(海拔高度) of more than 1,300 meters, making it the world's 65 (high) natural mountain cave.
56.height 57.wearing 58.When/After 59.impressive 60.effortlessly 61.have been preparing/have prepared 62.a 63.times 64.with 65.highest
56.height。考查名词用法。结合语境这里需要用名词。
57.wearing。考查非谓语动词用法。结合语境这里应用现在分词短语作伴随状语，主动行为。
58.When/After。考查状语从句用法。结合语境，当张树鹏翼装飞行穿越天门时，人们欢呼雀跃。
59.impressive。考查形容词作表语用法。结合语境应用形容词作表语。
60.effortlessly。 考查副词用法。修饰动词应用副词。effortlessly轻而易举地。
61.have been preparing/have prepared。考查现在完成时用法。结合语境应用现在完成时或现在完成进行时表示一直进行的动作。
62.a。考查冠词用法。张树鹏是国家滑翔伞飞行队队员，表示泛指。
63.times。考查名词复数用法。结合语境应用复数，more than 1,200是关键词。
64.with。考查介词用法。结合语境这里表示伴随情况。
65.highest。考查形容词最高级用法。结合语境这里应用形容词最高级。

B) Chinese acupuncture, also known as the art of “magic needles”, is 56 branch of traditional Chinese medicine. It has a long history 57 (date) back to the Stone Age. It has been used to treat a wide 58 (vary) of health problems, like severe pains, sports injuries, depression, etc. The World Health Organization recommends it 59 a good treatment for over 100 medical problems.
How does it work? Special thin needles a replaced in the 60 (target) points of your body. 61 (typical), the number of points range between l and 12, depending on your body situations. The needles are pushed just under the skin, though in some cases, they are pushed slightly 62 (deep) in order to reach the muscle tissue. The belief behind it is 63 illness and pain occur because of blocked energy (or Qi) in the body. Acupuncture is used to reestablish the flow of energy and stimulate the body’s natural healing (治愈) ability. 64 (human) are most happy and healthy when this energy is harmonious and balanced. Following treatment, you’ll feel incredibly relaxed and calm.
Due to its unique contribution, Chinese acupuncture 65 (name) a UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage in 2010, fully indicating its worldwide recognition.
【答案】56. A57. dating 58. variety59. as60. targeted61. Typically62. deeper63. that64. Humans65. was named
【导语】这是一篇说明文。文章讲述了中国针灸的发源、作用原理，因其独特的贡献而被联合国教科文组织列为非物质文化遗产。
56.考查冠词。句意：中国针灸，也被称为“神针”艺术，是中国传统医学的一个分支。branch“分支”为可数名词，结合上文“Chinese acupuncture”可知，这里指单数含义，所以空处用不定冠词a，故填a。
57.考查非谓语。句意：它的历史可以追溯到石器时代。空处在句中为后置定语，短语：date back to“起源于，追溯到”，无被动，所以此处用现在分词形式。故填dating。
58.考查名词。句意：它已被用于治疗各种各样的健康问题，如剧烈疼痛、运动损伤、抑郁等。形容词修饰名词，结合空前“a wide”可知，此处应用单数名词variety，故填variety。
59.考查介词。句意：世界卫生组织推荐它作为100多种医学问题的良好治疗方法。短语：recommend...as...“推荐……作为……”，as为介词，故填as。
60.考查形容词。句意：它是如何作用的呢? 特殊的细针被插入你身体的目标部位。形容词修饰名词，空后points为名词，所以空处用形容词。动词target和名词points为动宾关系，所以此处用形容词targeted，意为“定向的”，故填targeted。
61.考查副词。句意：通常，穴位的数量在1到12之间，这取决于你的身体状况。空处为陈述性状语，处于句首，所以用副词Typically，故填Typically。
62.考查比较级。句意：针头被推入皮肤下方，但在某些情况下，为了到达肌肉组织，它们会被推得更深一些。根据句中“The needles are pushed just under the skin”及“in order to reach the muscle tissue”可知，这里要使用比较级，表示“为了到达肌肉组织，针要刺的更深”，故填deeper。
63.考查表语从句。句意：它背后信念是疾病和疼痛的发生是因为体内的能量(或气)被阻塞。分析句子可知。空处及之后的内容在句中为表语从句，空后的句子结构完整，成分齐全，所以此处使用从属连词that来连接，故填that。
64.考查名词复数。句意：当这种能量和谐平衡时，人类是最快乐和健康的。治疗后，你会感到无比的放松和平静。空处在句中为主语，结合空后的are可知，此处用名词复数，因处于句首，所以首字母大写。故填Humans。
65.考查一般过去时的被动语态。句意：由于其独特的贡献，中国针灸在2010年被联合国教科文组织列为非物质文化遗产，充分表明了其在世界范围内的认可。空处在句中为谓语，结合句中“in 2010”可知，时态为一般过去时；主语“Chinese acupuncture”为单数含义，与动词name为动宾关系，所以空处填was named，故填was named。
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
假定你是李华。你的新西兰朋友David将要参加他的学校举办的中国诗歌朗诵比赛(the Chinese Poetry Recitation Competition)，特发邮件向你咨询一些备赛方面的建议。请你回复邮件，内容包括：
1.表示支持；
2.提出相关建议；
3.表达希望和祝愿。
注意：1.写作词数应为80左右；
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
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One possible version:
Dear David，
I was glad to hear that you will participate in the Chinese Poetry Recitation Competition at your school. It’s a wonderful opportunity for you to showcase your talent and share your passion for Chinese culture.
As for your preparation, I suggest that you first choose a piece of poetry that speaks to you. Pay attention to your pronunciation and intonation, and try to convey the emotions and ideas within the poem. Besides, I recommend that you research the background and meaning of the poem, which will enhance your understanding and interpretation of the work.
I hope these tips will be helpful to you and I wish you the best of luck in the competition.
Li Hua
【导语】本篇书面表达属于应用文。要求考生新西兰朋友David写一封邮件，给他参加中国诗歌朗诵比赛一些备赛方面的建议。
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
My best friend Carla Hernandez called me on Thursday afternoon. “Daniel, meet me in the park near the playground in five minutes. I have a great idea!” This worried me because Carla’s great ideas almost always meant big trouble for me!
I dashed outside and jogged to the park. When I saw Carla, my heart sank because her large dog Perro was with her. I liked everything about Carla except Perro. I had never had a pet in my house, and I felt uncomfortable and nervous around animals. But I was embarrassed to say I was afraid of Carla’s dog.
Upon my arrival, Carla smiled in a joyful voice. “Isn’t this the perfect location for a pet show?” I was surprised at her words. Carla explained to me that all the kids in the neighborhood could show off their pets’ talents and demonstrated the things they did well. Besides, there were plenty of comfortable benches for our parents and friends to sit on as audience. Carla added that I could be the announcer since I didn’t have a pet for the show. What she said directly affected my mood because crowds always made me nervous and unsure. Looking into her eyes, I apologized, “I’m sorry, but that’s impossible! Besides, I don’t like animals, remember?”
“That’s nonsense,” said Carla. “There’s nothing to be concerned about because you’ll be great! ”Just at that time, Perro leaped up, slobbered all over me, and almost knocked me down.“ Yuck. Down, Perro! Stay! ”I shouted. Perro sat as still as a statue.“ Wow, you’re good at that, ”Carla raised her voice excitedly. "Now let’s get started because we have a lot to do.”
With her encouragement, I decided to have a try. After going back home, I couldn’t wait to practise announcing each pet’s act. By Saturday morning I had practiced hundreds of times. However, my stomach was doing flip flops by the time the audience arrived at the park. The size of the crowd made me feel even more anxious.
注意:
1. 续写词数应为150左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。
Paragraph 1: When the show began, I took a deep breath and announced the first pet.
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Paragraph 2: Then it was Carla and Perro’s turn.
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One possible version:
When the show began, I took a deep breath and announced the first pet. It was a bird named Butter whose talent was walking back and forth on a wire. When Butter finished, everyone clapped and cheered. So far, everything was perfect. I was beginning to feel calmer and more relaxed. I realized that being an announcer was not so bad after all.
Then it was Carla and Perro’s turn. Carla asked Perro to sit, but Perro didn’t sit. Carla was at a loss what to do next. Perro was too interested in watching so many pet friends at the show. Suddenly, Perro broke free from the rope, leaped quickly and knocked over the bird cage. “Sit!” I shouted at Perro. “Stay!” I cried. Suddenly, everyone stopped and stared at me. Hearing my instructions, Perro sat immediately and looked at me. “Wow, amazing!”said Carla. He smiled at me and gave me a thumb-up. I felt so happy and proud.
【导语】本文以人物为线索展开，讲述了作者的朋友Carla想举办宠物展，邀请作者去当播音员。作者开始很犹豫，但是朋友鼓励作者，于是作者努力练习。