天津高考英语阅读理解专项训练

这是一份天津高考英语阅读理解专项训练，共58页。
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While there are still a lot of unknowns about the coming year, one thing is certain: we need an escape. With a vaccine (疫苗) finally greenlighted, the future of travel is looking up, but what will be the safest trips to take while the world is still in continuous change? Think wide open spaces, small-group adventures and responsible tourism. Playing it safe doesn’t mean you can’t get outside your comfort zone and have a novel adventure next year, though. Here are the friendly escapes we’re dreaming of right now.

01 The Great American E-Bike Trip
California to Georgia
Consider a human-powered road trip with a long cycling adventure—made more accessible with some power from an electric assist bike. Discover the beautiful and bizarre (奇异的), from the Mojave country on an e-bike-friendly tour. TDA Global Cycling’s Great American Road Trip can be done in full, or broken down to a 10-day trip to explore one region.

02 Swim with Whale Sharks
Espíritu Santo Island, Mexico
Dubbed “The Aquarium of the World” by Jacques Cousteau, the Sea of Cortez is one of the best spots in the world to swim with whale sharks and sea lions. Located in Mexico’s least-populated state, Baja California Sur, this island has a natural protected UNESCO World Heritage Site in the heart of it. There are no hotels, but Todos Santos Eco Adventures offers a solar-powered luxury camp experience on the island, private-chef included.

03 Soak in the Natural Wonders
Hokkaido, Japan
While the world waits for the 2021 Tokyo Olympics, consider Japan’s last-developed island as a refuge (庇护所) from the crowds. Rugged (崎岖的) and remote, Hokkaido is filled with unique natural wonders and adventures including trekking in untouched forests, fat biking on frozen lakes, soaking in onsens (温泉), or natural hot springs, and searching for the island’s rare red-crowned crane — the only place in Japan you can find the sacred bird.

04 See Kangaroo Island Bounce Back
Australia
Nearly a year after Australia’s bushfires destroyed over 200,000 hectares and killed billions of animals, new life is rising from the ashes. This 96-mile-long island is one of the best places to view Australia’s unique animals in the wild — kangaroos, koalas, wallabies and more. Support the recovery with regenerative (再生的) tourism, critical in reversing biodiversity loss. Swim with sea lions or sip some Jacob’s Creek local wine and watch the kangaroos bounce back.
1．What can you do on the E-Bike Trip from California to Georgia?
A．You can learn how to do recycling on the way.
B．You can complete the trip in small separate sections.
C．You can build up your strength with a human-powered bike.
D．You can improve your skills in handling an electric assist bike.
2．What does Swim with Whale Sharks and See Kangaroo Island Bounce Back have in common?
A．Animals on both islands are in danger of dying out.
B．They both offer solar-powered luxury camps on the sand.
C．Tourists can experience swimming with certain sea animals.
D．They are both natural protected UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
3．What can we learn from Paragraph 4?
A．Visitors can find their quietness on the island.
B．People can skate on frozen lakes on the island.
C．Red-crowned cranes can only be found in Japan.
D．Hokkaido is a remote and least-developed refuge.
4．What does the author want to tell us in the whole passage?
A．A long cycling adventure will be the safest trip to take in the future.
B．With appropriate medical measures the tourism industry will pick up.
C．Visitors should keep cautious about bushfires while visiting Australia.
D．Ecosystem has been disturbed since novel adventures became popular.
5．Where can the passage probably be taken from?
A．Science on a website. B．Sports in a newspaper.
C．Environment in a book. D．Travelling in a magazine.

Reading is a complex and crucial skill that impacts the youth’s ability to perform as students. Therefore, it’s important to develop reading skills during childhood. A team of researchers focused on the effect of whole-body learning in instruction, known as embodied learning.
The research included 149 children, aged 5 to 6, who had just started school. They were divided into three groups: one that stood up and used their whole bodies to shape letter sounds; a seated group that shaped letter sounds with their hands and arms; and a control group that received traditional, seated instruction during which they wrote letters by hand.
“Our research showed that children who used their whole bodies to shape the sounds of letters became twice as proficient at letter sounds that are more difficult to learn as those who received traditional instruction” says PhD student Linn Damsgaard of UCPH’s Department of Nutrition, Exercise and Sports.
With regard to difficult letter sounds, she adds, “There are many difficult letter sounds in Danish. These sounds are particularly important because once children become skilled at them, they will be better readers.
Associate professor Jacob Wienecke, who led the study, explains, the primary goal is to learn more about which methods can be used to give beginner readers a good start. The idea is that if, through play and movement, we can learn where their strengths truly lie, we’ll create a form of learning that combines reading with play, and that’s truly positive.”
Previously, the researchers showed that the children felt more motivated by teaching methods which included physical movement. Jacob Wienecke hopes this will provide an opportunity to inspire teachers and school managers to prioritize movement across subjects.
The study also investigated whether a direct effect of embodied learning could be found on children’s reading of words. This was not possible, which might be due to the fact that the children were at such an early stage of their literacy development that they could not yet use their knowledge of letter sounds to read words.
6．What were the participants required to do in the study?
A．To pick out difficult letter sounds in Danish.
B．To learn new letters through repeated writing.
C．To learn letter sounds using different approaches.
D．To memorize some letter sounds as soon as possible.
7．How can embodied learning get children actively involved?
A．By combining learning with games.
B．By offering them chances to cooperate.
C．By inspiring them to overcome difficulties.
D．By explaining instructions to them patiently.
8．What does the underlined word “proficient” in Paragraph 3 probably mean?
A．terrible. B．skilled.
C．delighted. D．fascinated.
9．What does Jacob expect of the research finding?
A．Encouraging educators to apply it to teaching.
B．Enabling researchers to carry out further studies.
C．Urging schools to pay attention to physical exercise.
D．Promoting harmonious teacher-student relationships.
10．What does the last paragraph intend to tell us?
A．Children prefer learning step by step.
B．Children are too little to use their knowledge smartly.
C．Children lack enough practice to get fully improved.
D．Children’s learning still relies on adults’ instruction.

Canaries, a kind of small yellow songbirds, are more sensitive to carbon monoxide (CO) than people are. Thus they were routinely taken into mines as men went about their work of mining for coal. CO could quickly poison many miners before they even knew what was happening. If a canary stopped singing, this was an indicator of rising CO levels. Now ecologists think they’ve found a “canary” that could predict possible disaster for tropical (热带的) ecosystems—the cricket (a small brown jumping insect).
Crickets are tiny, present in large numbers and, most importantly, noisy. The chirps (唧唧叫声) of individual species are identifiably different. Researchers had previously wondered if ecosystems might be monitored by listening to how the sounds of their crickets change over time.
Amandine Gasc and her colleagues studied cricket populations on Grande Terre Island in New Caledonia, where multiple ecosystems often exist very near to each other. They collected crickets at 12 sampling sites. Four were healthy forest sites, four were shrubland (灌木地) areas, which is often created when people cut down forests, and four were shrubland areas that were turning into forests again. They listened for insects in square zones and ran ten 30-minute collection sessions at each site.
Dr. Gasc described how each ecosystem had, in effect, a distinct “cricket fingerprint”. Species richness varies considerably among the different environments. Of the 20 cricket species found in the healthy forest, 12 were unique to that habitat alone, 2 of the 15 species found in transitioning forests were unique to this habitat and 3 of the 7 shrubland species were unique to shrubland.
Just by looking at the crickets found in a given location, the team found that it was possible to determine whether they were looking at shrubland, forest or shrubland that was changing into the forest. There was no need to examine the other surrounding plants or animals.
What’s more, Dr. Gasc’s team found each habitat contained cricket species that generated their identifiable chirps. This suggests that setting up audio recorders in forests that pick up cricket calls will be an easy, cheap and accurate way to detect the early stages of change in tropical ecosystems.
11．Why did miners take the canary into mines?
A．To bring down CO levels.
B．To promote their work efficiency.
C．To offer them some entertainment.
D．To remind them of the potential danger.
12．How did Dr. Gasc and her colleagues carry out their study?
A．By analyzing “cricket fingerprints”.
B．By comparing plants in different zones.
C．By observing the changes in landscapes.
D．By referring to previous findings on crickets.
13．What conclusion may Dr. Gasc and her colleagues draw from their study?
A．Healthy forests may attract fitter crickets.
B．Crickets are suitable to be indicators in mines.
C．Different species of crickets may sound different alarms.
D．The species of crickets are strongly related to the environment.
14．What’s the point of Dr. Gasc’s studying crickets?
A．To enrich the methods of monitoring the crickets.
B．To arouse people’s awareness of protecting crickets.
C．To correct the previous wrong recognition of crickets.
D．To help humans easily monitor environmental changes.
15．Which of the following can be the best title for the text?
A．Canaries: miners’ good helpers.
B．How crickets are distributed in tropical areas.
C．Crickets: an early indicator of tropical ecosystem health.
D．Why cricket chirps are collected on Grande Terre Island.

If Natalie Morales had to describe her mom in just one word, she would pick: survivor. That’s because her mom, Penelope Morales had a tough childhood. “Her mother wasn’t ready to be a mom and gave her up to her grandmother,” says Natalie, “I think she often felt in life like she wasn’t wanted and wasn’t loved.”
Penelope Morales put herself through college and it was there that she met Natalie’s dad, who was serving in the military. They fell in love and married, and her life as a military mom of three children became a great adventure. “She basically raised us moving from place to place. I was born in Taiwan, China, but we lived in Panama, Brazil and Spain. And my mom was the constant,” says Natalie, “She would always make sure that when we got home from school, we felt like we had our number-one fan, our champion right there, waiting for us.” Along the way, Natalie learned many things from her mother, which she carries on in her role as a mother of two sons.
As a Mother’s Day gift, Natalie treated her mom to a day of pampering (宠爱). “I want my mom to feel like a queen,” she says. And as part of the surprise, Natalie brought along an old photo of her mother, which she wanted to recreate. “I think it was taken in the mid-60s. So she was in her early to mid twenties. She’s just absolutely a beautiful woman. But she’s looking in the mirror. It’s like not knowing really her future, but knowing where she’s come from,” describes Natalie. “That picture just speaks so much to me. I want her to see what she created in that mirror, and that she gave us all something so great.”
“It’s just an amazing experience to take this picture and have Natalie do it. I could never imagine in my entire life,” says Penelope Morales, who adds that she’s very proud of her daughter, “All I want her is to be happy and to raise her children the same way,” she says.
16．What can be inferred about Natalie’s mother?
A．She survived an adventure fortunately.
B．Her mother gave her up because of poverty.
C．At college she met her husband, a schoolmate.
D．Her mother felt that she was nothing.
17．What did Natalie learn from her mother?
A．Giving children great love.
B．Moving house constantly.
C．Always picking up children from school.
D．Often taking children on adventures.
18．What did Natalie do on Mother’s Day?
A．She treated her mother to a big meal.
B．She took her mother to take pictures.
C．She pleased her mother by polishing an old photo.
D．She gave her mother a big surprise with her sons.
19．What can we say about the gift Natalie gave her mother?
A．It was expected.
B．It was a success.
C．It made her mother dependent on her.
D．It brought tears to her mother’s eyes.
20．What does the author mainly want to tell us in the passage?
A．Natalie loves and respects her mother very much.
B．Natalie’s mother has suffered too much all her life.
C．Natalie’s mother thinks highly of her daughter’s gift.
D．Natalie’s “survivor” mom deserves the special Mother’s Day gift.

National Music Theater Competition
The 2024 National Music Theater Competition (NMTC) will be held. It was launched in 2011 as the first national competition for the emerging professional music theater soloist (独唱者). NMTC has provided industry connections for past competitors and winners that have led to their success on Broadway and other venues.
Prizes (each prize only for a person)
The champion: $5,000 plus a concert at the next national conference of National Association of Teachers of Singing (NATS), a $1,000 Gift Certificate from Hal Leonard, a Career Management Services package from Stage Door Connections.
The runner-up: $2,500 plus a $500 Gift Certificate from Hal Leonard.
The third place: Louise Lerch Prize; $1,000 cash prize.
The fourth place: Bill Hayes Prize; $750 cash prize.
Qualification
Singers aged from 20 to 28 as of September 15, 2023.
Entrance Procedure
Application requires a fee of $900, but for these students of NATS members the fee is $75. Application fees due to cancellation by the applicant won’t be returned. All application materials must be submitted by September 15, 2023. If you are planning to submit your application for the online round, you must complete the submission by September 15, 2023, but you’ll have 30 days after the deadline to upload your audition (试唱) videos. Late or incomplete applications will not be considered.
Where to Audition
The preliminary (预选的) round
Live auditions: November 1 to 10, 2023 in New York City.
Online auditions: Video submission deadline is October 15, 2023.
Semifinal and final rounds
Live auditions: The semifinal round: January 3 to 9, 2024; the final round: January 15 to 20, 2024.
The semifinal and final rounds will be held in New York City as part of the 2024 NATS Winter Workshop.
21．Why was the National Music Theater Competition launched?
A．To make people like music.
B．To promote the leisure industry.
C．To popularize Broadway musicals.
D．To seek promising talents.
22．What will the person coming second in the competition get?
A．A $500 Gift Certificate and Louise Lerch Prize.
B．$2,500 in prize money and a Gift Certificate.
C．A Career Management Services package.
D．A chance to perform at a concert.
23．Which of the following is a necessity for participating in the competition?
A．Being at least 28 years old.
B．Applying for membership of NATS.
C．Submitting application materials on time.
D．Uploading audition videos by September 15.
24．What do you know about the competition?
A．Competitors can enter the semifinal round on January 18, 2024.
B．Both online and live auditions are available in any round.
C．There are three rounds in the competition in total.
D．Application submission deadline is October 15, 2023.
25．What’s the author’s purpose of writing the text?
A．To call on people to explore their potential in music.
B．To attract young singers to apply for the competition.
C．To appeal to young singers to become NATS members.
D．To encourage people to enter the musical industry.

ChatGPT is a new AI system that sounds so human in conversations that it could host its own radio programs. Reading between its instantly generated, perfectly grammatical lines, people see different visions of the future. Without doubt, ChatGPT is impressive.
Some compare the emergence of ChatGPT to the impact of the iPhone, but that doesn’t do it justice. ChatGPT, as well as the generative AI that will follow and outsmart it, is more disruptive. And yet, that doesn’t necessarily mean the end of the world is upon us. On the contrary, ChatGPT, I would argue, might serve to make us more aware of our irreplaceable human qualities.
Take the creative act, writing in particular, as an example. If you want it to, the AI-powered chatbot always produces something because it has the whole world of online data to draw from. But unlike us; it lacks the consciousness. Thinking is hard, critical thinking even harder, and ChatGPT isn’t good at either. It just restates what has already been said; it is one big recycling machine.
There is another obvious limitation of ChatGPT. Philosopher Harry Frankfurt once claimed: the difference between a bullshitter (胡说八道的人) and a liar is that the liar. A knows what the truth is but decides to take the opposite direction; a bullshitter, however, has no regard for the truth at all. The AI scholar Gary Marcus applies this distinction to ChatGPT. He believes that we have reached a critical point where “the price of bullshit reaches zero and people who want to spread misinformation, either politically or just to make a profit, start doing that plentifully”. Unfortunately, ChatGPT will reproduce misinformation from any of its input sources — it is not an intelligent system that tries to balance or weight different perspectives. In this sense, everything that ChatGPT writes is bullshit.
This is why the so-called AIQ is critical. It is actually an extension and a measurement of our human IQ: our overall knowledge of AI tools, our mastery of clues, and our ethical awareness. ChatGPT is going to change everything and nothing.
Creativity, imagination and ethics — these will all remain unique human domains. It is the AI’s very limitations that will make us appreciate our own.
26．What can we learn about ChatGPT?
A．It helps generate an artificial voice.
B．It provides instructions on writing skills.
C．It generates natural language responses.
D．It offers a service for language learning.
27．What does the underlined word “disruptive” in paragraph 2 probably mean?
A．Evil.
B．Reliable.
C．Profitable.
D．Revolutionary.
28．What’s the writing purpose of Paragraph 3?
A．To show the differences between humans and AI.
B．To describe the limitations of human consciousness.
C．To prove ChatGPT might make humans more aware of their irreplaceable human qualities.
D．To explain why ChatGPT isn’t a big recycling machine.
29．Why does the author consider ChatGPT as a bullshit generator?
A．It makes up lies constantly.
B．It can’t tell right from wrong.
C．It often makes unfair judgement.
D．It always takes a neutral standpoint.
30．Which can be a suitable title for the text?
A．ChatGPT Makes Us Human
B．ChatGPT Is Causing Panic Now
C．ChatGPT: Treat It Like a Toy, Not a Tool
D．ChatGPT: Why It Is Bound to Generate Bullshit

What would the world be if there were no hunger? It’s a question that the late ecologist Donella Meadows would ask her students at Dartmouth College back in the 1970s. She set out to create a global movement. The result — an approach known as systems thinking — is now seen as essential in meeting big global challenges.
Systems thinking is crucial to achieving targets such as zero hunger and better nutrition because it requires considering the way in which food is produced, processed, delivered and consumed, and looking at how those things relate with human health, the environment, economics and society. According to systems thinking, changing the food system — or any other network — requires three things to happen. First, researchers need to identify all the players in that system; second, they must work out how they relate to each other; and third, they need to understand and quantify the impact of those relationships on each other and on those outside the system.
Take nutrition for example. The United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization tracked 150 biochemicals in food and various databases, which revealed the relationships between calories, sugar, fat, vitamins and the occurrence of common diseases. But using machine learning and artificial intelligence, network scientists propose that human diets consist of at least 26, 000 biochemicals and that the vast majority are not known. This shows that we have some way to travel before achieving the first objective of systems thinking — which, in this example, is to identify more constituent parts of the nutrition system.
A systems approach to creating change is also built on the assumption that everyone in the system has equal power and status. But the food system is not an equal one. There have been calls for a World Food and Nutrition Organization, so that legally binding policies can be applied to all its members. Another way to address power imbalances is for more universities to do what Meadows did and teach students how to think using a systems approach.
A team of researchers has done just that, through the Interdisciplinary Food Systems Teaching and Learning program. Students from disciplines including agriculture, ecology and economics learn together by drawing on their collective expertise in tackling real-world problems, such as how to reduce food waste. Since its launch in 2015, the program has trained more than 1, 500 students from 45 university departments.
More researchers, policymakers and representatives from the food industry must learn to look beyond their direct lines of responsibility and embrace a systems approach, as the editors of Nature Food advocate in their launch editorial. Meadows knew that visions alone don’t produce results, but concluded that “we’ll never produce results that we can’t envision”.
31．What can we learn about systems thinking?
A．It offers a new perspective to understand the world.
B．It plays an essential part in meeting big world problems.
C．It has nothing to do with things outside the given system.
D．It requires to know three players in a given system
32．According to paragraph 3, the study conducted by network scientists revealed that __.
A．artificial intelligence is more useful than traditional methods
B．achieving systems thinking requires identifying more components
C．we are unable to gain thorough understanding of our nutritious system
D．some biochemicals are related with the occurrence of common diseases
33．According to the passage, what do we know about the Interdisciplinary Food Systems Teaching and Learning program?
A．It is the only way of solving imbalance in our food system.
B．It aims to urge the governments to carry ‘out its food policies.
C．It seeks to solve theoretical issues about food and nutrition boo
D．It has cultivated many interdisciplinary talents since its launch.
34．What can be inferred from the underlined sentence in the last paragraph?
A．Results can’t be produced.
B．Vision brings about change.
C．Action matters more than saying.
D．Systems thinking is too difficult to realize.
35．The passage is mainly about __.
A．how to conduct research efficiently
B．how to build a world food organization
C．an approach to solving real-world problem
D．an approach to applying scientific findings

Give a little sunshine!
The Council on Aging (COA) runs a telephone friendship project called the Sunshine Call Program, matching over-60s with a friendly volunteer for a daily chat over the phone. The aim is simple — to help ease the loneliness and repair social networks.
Sheila, 77, a retired teacher, lived alone. She has been receiving calls from Rianne, a volunteer, for over two months. “Talking to Rianne is something I really look forward to — a breath of fresh air. We talk about everything — theatre, her work, books we’ve read. . . Listening to someone else’s life enriches 2011 and gives you something positive to focus on. ‘
“At the beginning, I had no expectation of how the phone calls would go, but it’s wonderful that it’s led to a genuine friendship. Rianne helps me a lot. . . ”
Are you ready to add a little sunshine to a senior’s life?The Sunshine Call Program initially links a volunteer with an isolate (独居的) senior for a daily call When comfortable the volunteer introduces a second senior to the call. Then another, until there are four seniors to one volunteer on what is essentially a conference call. Without having to leave the house, you will help the seniors meet and make new friends. They will then exchange phone numbers to chat on their own and reduce their isolation.
What are the volunteer qualifications?
Volunteers must have access to the Internet and be willing to be trained on the use of a chat app. COA will provide all supplies required to make the calls. Besides, volunteers must agree to participate in monthly meetings with other volunteers and guest speakers. All volunteers must be willing to provide a recent Criminal Record Check, the cost of which will be borne by COA．And the most important volunteer qualification is a sense of caring and a desire to help seniors in the community!
If you wish to volunteer with our Sunshine Call program, never hesitate! Just CLICK HERE to fill out the application form.
36．Why does the passage mention Sheila’s experience?
A．To show her loneliness
B．To share a sweet memory.
C．To stress the value of COA．
D．To praise Rianne’s kindness.
37．One of the responsibilities of volunteers is__________.
A．making weekly calls to seniors
B．visiting seniors during holidays
C．introducing new friends to seniors
D．teaching seniors to use smart phones
38．If you want to be a volunteer, what are you required to do?
A．Learn the use of a chat app.
B．Prepare a computer by yourself.
C．Offer a letter of recommendation.
D．Have relevant working experience.
39．What is the purpose of the passage?
A．To inform the readers of COA．
B．To invite seniors to sign up for COA
C．To introduce volunteer work in COA．
D．To advertise for new volunteers for COA．
40．Which of the following is the passage probably taken from?
A．A newspaper for teenagers.
B．A website of an organization.
C．A guide for travelers.
D．A magazine for the elderly.

It was the day of the big cross-country run. Students from seven different elementary schools in and around the small town of 100-Mile House, British Columbia, were warming up and walking the route through thick evergreen forest.
I looked around and finally saw David standing by himself off to the side by a fence. He was small for ten years old, with messy red hair. But his usual big toothy grin was absent today. I walked over and asked him why he wasn’t with the other children. The only response he gave me was he had decided not to run. What was wrong? He had worked so hard for this event! David’s cerebral palsy (脑瘫) prevented him from walking or running like other children, but at school his peers thought of him as a regular kid. He always participated to the best of his ability in whatever they were doing. It just took him longer. He had stubbornly run a total of twenty three kilometres in practice runs to prepare for that day’s two-and-a-half-kilometre run, and he had asked me to come and watch. We sat down together on some steps, but David wouldn’t look at me. I quietly said, “David, if you don’t want to run today, no one is going to make you. But if you’re not running because you’re afraid someone is going to laugh, that’s not a good enough reason. There will always be someone who will laugh and say mean things. Are you going to let them get in your way? If you really want to run, David, then you run!” I held my breath as David took this in. Then he looked at the field and said, “I’m gonna run.”
The starter’s gun sounded. But he had only gone a few metres before he tripped and fell flat on the ground. My heart sank. As I started to shout encouragement, David picked himself up and started again. All the other runners had disappeared over the hill. But it didn’t matter. He had worked for it, and he wouldn’t give up!
I waited anxiously by the finish line as the most runners completed and another race had begun. Still no David! I started to feel sick. Had I done the wrong thing? Could he have become lost? Finally, a small figure emerged from the forest. David raised his arms in triumph as he crossed the finish line to wild cheers and applause. He caught my eye, flashed me a toothy grin and said, “That was easy!”
41．What made David unable to run like other children?
A．His mental problem.
B．His physical condition.
C．His laziness.
D．His hesitation.
42．David decided to run because ___.
A．he was encouraged to
B．he wanted to be the first
C．he was laughed into doing it
D．he knew it was a shorter distance
43．Which of the following can best describe David?
A．Brave and talkative.
B．Out-going and kind-hearted.
C．Lively and hard-working.
D．Optimistic and strong-willed.
44．By using the phrase “a toothy grin” in the last sentence, the writer intends to tell us about David’s ___.
A．competence in finishing a run
B．positive attitude towards life
C．ability to win cheers and applause
D．efforts to catch others’ attention
45．Which of the following is the proper theme of the text?
A．Never judge a book by its cover.
B．Well begun is half done.
C．Where there is a will, there is a way.
D．Many hands make light work.

Every April I am troubled by the same concern—that spring might not occur this year. The landscape looks dull, with hills, the sky and the forest appearing gray. My spirits ebb, as they did during an April snowfall when I first came to Maine 15 years ago. “Just wait,” a neighbour advised. “You’ll wake up one morning and spring will just be here.”
And look, on May 3 that year I awoke to a green so amazing as to be almost electric, as if spring were simply a matter of flipping a switch. Hills, the sky and the forest revealed their purples, blues and greens. Leaves had unfolded and daffodils were fighting their way heavenward.
Then there was the old apple tree. It sits on an undeveloped lot in my neighbourhood. It belongs to no one and therefore to everyone. The tree’s dark twisted branches stretch out in unpruned (未经修剪的) abandon. Each spring it blossoms so freely that the air becomes full of the scent of apple.
Until last year, I thought I was the only one aware of this tree. And then one day, in a bit of spring madness, I set out with pruner to remove a few disorderly branches. No sooner had I arrived under the tree than neighbours opened their windows and stepped onto their porches (门廊). These were people I barely knew and seldom spoke to, but it was as if I had come uninvited into their personal gardens.
My mobile-home neighbour was the first to speak. “You’re not cutting it down, are you?” she asked anxiously. Another neighbour frowned as I cut off a branch. “Don’t kill it, now,” he warned.
Soon half the neighbourhood joined me under the apple tree. It struck me that I had lived there for five years and only now was learning these people’s names, what they did for a living and how they passed the winter. It was as if the old apple tree was gathering us under its branches for the purpose of both acquaintanceship and shared wonder. I couldn’t help recalling Robert Frost’s words:
The trees that have it in their pent-up buds
To darken nature and be summer woods
One thaw led to another. Just the other day I saw one of my neighbors at the local store. He remarked how this recent winter had been especially long and complained of not having seen or spoken at length to anyone in our neighbourhood. And then, he looked at me and said, “We need to prune that apple tree again.”
46．The main function of the first paragraph is .
A．to attract the readers’ interest B．to suggest the theme of the story
C．to introduce the setting of the story D．to explain why he would prune the apple tree
47．By saying that “my spirits ebb” in the first paragraph, the author means that .
A．he feels blue B．he feels relieved
C．he is surprised D．he is tired
48．The apple tree mentioned in the passage is most likely to .
A．have been abandoned by its original owner
B．be regarded as a delight in the neighborhood
C．have been neglected by everyone in the community
D．be appealing only to the author
49．According to paragraph 4, why did the neighbors open their windows and step onto their porches?
A．They were surprised that someone unknown was pruning the tree.
B．They wanted to prevent the author from pruning the tree.
C．They were concerned about the safety of the tree.
D．They wanted to get to know the author.
50．According to the passage, which of the following statement is TRUE?
A．The tree brought about great changes to the neighbourhood.
B．The author was the only one who cared about the apple tree.
C．The author stepped into the personal gardens of his neighbors.
D．The neighbors were angry to see the author’s effort to prune the tree.
51．It can be inferred that the author’s neighbour mentioned in the last paragraph most cared about .
A．the neighbourhood gathering B．how to pass the long winter
C．when spring would arrive D．the pruning of the apple tree

I was born a bookworm. I can’t remember a time when I didn’t read: It was almost like breathing to me. My fictional worlds took me to all the places I needed to go and I experienced everything indirectly.
My father was in the military service when I was a child, so we moved every two years, but we insisted on going to bookshops wherever we lived. He would take me to the nearest bookshop every Saturday morning and wait patiently while I browsed (随便看看)—after all, the choosing of a new book is something that cannot be rushed. And so started my lifelong love affair with bookshops.
One day I was thinking up the setting for How to Find Love in a tiny bookshop when a feeling of calm, contentment, and excitement came over me. It was a feeling of perfect happiness. That was my light bulb moment: My book would be set in a bookshop, and I could explore what books meant to each of my characters and how they had shaped their lives.
The book isn’t just about discovering romantic love. It’s about finding the love of books: something that can sustain you throughout your life, and provide escape, entertainment, education, comfort, wonder. And, as I learned from my own father, it’s a love you can share with everyone. There is nothing more satisfying than sharing something you have read with someone else, knowing they will love it as much as you do.
But if we are to keep bookshops alive, we need to use them, and to encourage the next generation to make them a part of their life and view bookshops as a treat, a pleasure, an adventure, a gateway, so they become something we can’t live without. Thus my challenge to you, fellow readers, is to go to your local bookshops as often as possible and come out with something that might change your life.
52．Why did the author often move when he was a child?
A．Because her father loved travelling.
B．Because her father was in the army.
C．Because her parents divorced.
D．Because her parents wanted to find a better school for her.
53．Which word best describes the author’s relationship with bookshops as a child?
A．Distant. B．Casual.
C．Inseparable. D．Cooperative.
54．What does the underlined part “light bulb moment” in paragraph 3 mean?
A．A moment of relief. B．A moment of peace.
C．A moment of sudden shock. D．A moment of sudden inspiration.
55．What might the book How to Find Love talk about?
A．How books affect people’s lives. B．Romantic stories of the author’s parents.
C．How bookshops become popular. D．Touching stories between father and daughter.
56．What does the author call on readers to do?
A．Purchase her books. B．Go frequent book shopping.
C．Share books with others. D．Sponsor local bookshops.

Why did humans evolve to walk upright? Perhaps because it’s just plain easier. Make that “energetically less costly,” in science-speak.
Bipedalism — walking on two feet — is one of the defining characteristics of being human, and scientists have debated for years how it came about. In the latest attempt to find an explanation, researchers trained five chimpanzees to walk on treadmill while wearing masks that allowed measurement of their oxygen consumption. The chimps were measured both while walking upright and while moving on their legs and knuckles. That measurement of the energy needed to move round was compared with similar tests on humans and the results are published in this week’s online edition of Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences.
It turns out that humans walking on two legs use only one quarter of the energy that chimpanzees use while knuckle-walking on four limbs. And the chimps, on average, use as much energy using two legs as they did when they used all four limbs.
However, there were differences among chimpanzees in how much energy they used, and this difference corresponded to their different gaits and anatomy. One of the chimps used less energy on two legs, one used about the same and the others used more, said David Raichlen, assistant professor of anthropology at the University of Arizona.
“What we were surprised at was the variation,” he said in telephone interview. “That was pretty exciting, because when you talk about how evolution works, variation is the bottom line, without variation there is no evolution.”
Walking, on two legs freed our arms, opening the door to manipulating the world, Raichlen said. “We think about the evolution of bipedalism as one of first events that led hominids down the path to being human.”
The research was supported by the National Science Foundation and the L. S. B．Leakey Foundation.
57．The underlined word “Bipedalism” means .
A．moving sideways B．walking upright
C．walking on four legs D．running fast
58．Why did chimpanzees wear masks in the experiment?
A．Masks protect chimpanzees from any harm.
B．Masks help chimpanzees walk steadily.
C．There was heavy smoke in the room.
D．Masks helped to measure how much oxygen chimpanzees consumed.
59．We can infer that scientists .
A．have no idea on how human walking on two legs came about
B．have had different views on why chimpanzees walk on four legs
C．have had different views on how human walking on two legs came about
D．have had similar views on how human walking on two legs came about
60．What does the fourth paragraph mainly deal with?
A．How did chimpanzees save energy? B．Why didn’t chimpanzees walk on two legs?
C．David Raichlen researched into chimpanzees. D．Different chimpanzees consume different energy.
61．According to the passage humans walk upright in order to .
A．conserve energy B．differ from other animals
C．free their brains D．strengthen their legs

If you’re a runner who secretly hates running, here’s some good news: settling into a leisurely jog rather than an all-out run may actually be better for your health in the long term.
A team from Denmark followed over 5, 000 people taking part in the Copenhagen City Heart Study, and tracked whether they were non-joggers, or joggers who kept a slow, moderate (中等的), or fast pace. The participants’ health was tracked over the next 12 years, and so was their mortality (死亡率): 28 of the joggers and 128 of the non-joggers died.
The connection was this: Joggers of mild and moderate intensity had a lower risk of death than the fast joggers. In fact, the lowest mortality risk was that of the mild intensity joggers. The fast-paced joggers had about the same mortality rate as sedentary (久坐的) people. This suggests that there may be an upper limit to hard exercise, after which the benefits fall off.
“The U-shaped association between jogging and mortality suggests there may be an upper limit for exercise amount that is best for health benefits,” said study author Peter Schnohr. “Anything more is not just unnecessary; it may be harmful.” From the current study, jogging just three times per week, for less than 2.5 hours per week was associated with the lowest overall mortality risk.
There have been a lot of mixed messages about the “right” amount of exercise and what intensity is best. The World Health Organization has suggested that the current 150 minutes per week recommendations are strenuous for most people to tackle, and that expectations should be lowered, since, after all, anything is better than nothing. Everyone probably has a level of activity that feels best to him or her. But at least the growing consensus seems to be that more — if you’re pushing yourself very hard— is not necessarily better. And it may even be worse.
62．What was the study designed to find out?
A．The relation between exercise amount and health.
B．The difference between non-joggers and joggers.
C．The advantages of jogging over running.
D．The common causes of death from exercise.
63．Who will face the highest mortality risk according to the study?
A．Those jogging just three times per week. B．Those jogging 150 minutes per week.
C．Those fast-paced joggers. D．Those slow-paced joggers.
64．What might Peter Schnohr agree with?
A．The early bird catches the worm. B．Wealth is nothing without health.
C．To go beyond is as wrong as to fall short. D．Enough exercise brings about happiness.
65．What does the underlined word “strenuous” in the last paragraph mean?
A．Intense. B．Wide-ranging.
C．Necessary. D．Far-reaching.
66．What would be the best title for the text?
A．Why Jogging May Be Better For Your Health Than Running?
B．Can Jogging Increase Your Weight?
C．How Does Jogging Affect Your Health?
D．How Often Should Beginners Run?

Online Courses
The Path to Contentment
What you’ll learn:
·Ancient Chinese philosophy and how to apply it to live a better life
·Tools needed for self-awareness and sensing the world around you
·The philosophical theories of Confucius, Mozi, Mencius, Laozi, Zhuangzi, Xunzi, and Han Feizi
Length: 13 weeks
Effort: 1-2 hours per week
Price: Free; add a certificate for CNY678
Institution: Harvard University
Language: English
Start Talking with 1. 4 Billion People
What you’ll learn:
·Mandarin (普通话) vocabulary used in daily life
·Highly practical expressions in given Mandarin contexts
·Listening skills for communicating with Chinese native speakers
·Some basic and frequently used Chinese characters
Length: 6 weeks
Effort: 2-3 hours per week
Price: Free; add a certificate for CNY336
Institution: Tsinghua University
Language: English
Mandarin Chinese for Business
What you’ll learn:
·Mandarin phrases and expressions for business negotiation
·Chinese business culture and etiquette (礼仪)
·Proper Chinese languages for finding business partners, contract signing, and maintaining business relationships
Length: 6weeks
Effort: 4-10 hours per week
Price: Free; add a certificate for CNY1, 020
Institution: Massachusetts Institute of Technology
Language: English
Hong Kong Cinema Through a Global Lens
What you’ll learn:
·Critical and historical thinking skills through analyzing the interconnected relationship between the global scene and local lives in Hong Kong films
·The impact of globalization on your own society through analyzing Hong Kong cinema
Length: 5 weeks
Effort: 4-6 hours per week
Price: Free; add a certificate for CNY342
Institution: The University of Hong Kong
Language: English
67．Which course should you take if you are interested in Chinese philosophy?
A．The Path to Contentment.
B．Mandarin Chinese for Business.
C．Start Talking with 1.4 Billion People.
D．Hong Kong Cinema Through a Global Lens.
68．What do the two courses of the same length have in common?
A．Both are given by Tsinghua University. B．Both are open to Chinese beginners.
C．Both are designed for businessmen. D．Both are about language learning.
69．Which school provides the course Mandarin Chinese for Business?
A．Harvard University. B．Tsinghua University.
C．Massachusetts Institute of Technology. D．The University of Hong Kong.
70．How much does it cost to get a certificate for the course on films?
A．CNY336. B．CNY342. C．CNY678. D．CNY1, 020.
71．What language are the four courses taught in?
A．Chinese. B．French. C．English. D．Japanese.

If you’re new to a school or you are shy or tend to not get out of your comfort zone, making new friends at school might seem like a challenge. Luckily, you can overcome that challenge by looking for people with the same interests as you and by being friendly when you meet new people. Also, participate in after-school clubs and events whenever you get the chance, since that will help you meet people outside of class!
Look for people who have the same hobbies as you.
You’re more likely to be friends with someone if you have something in common with them. Try to find clubs or groups based on your favorite hobbies, then join them to meet like-minded people. Also, pay attention to people who spend their free time doing the same things you love to do.
If you’re a passionate reader, join a book club, go to public readings, or start a conversation with someone who carries novels around with their textbooks.
Spend time around people who show kindness.
Finding someone who will treat you well and support you is more important than popularity. Avoid spending time with people who talk bad about others or put them down. Instead, look for people who invite others to sit with them at lunch, who encourage others when they speak up in class, or who are always willing to help when someone needs a hand.
Introduce yourself to new people whenever possible.
When you’re around someone you don’t know, it is not unusual to just sit there quietly, especially if you’re shy. However, you and the other person will both be more comfortable after a simple introduction. Make eye contact with the person, smile, and try to seem warm and relaxed instead of nervous or anxious. Then, break the ice by talking about whatever is going on around you.
Keep the conversation going with open-ended questions.
When you start talking to someone, try asking them questions about what they like to see what you have in common with them. However, avoid simply asking yes or no questions, since one-word answers don’t necessarily keep a conversation alive. You can ask questions about whatever you’re already talking about, or you can change the subject if you feel that ran its course.
72．Who is the passage intended for?
A．Teachers. B．Students. C．Parents. D．Adults.
73．If you are fond of reading, you can ________.
A．join a club to make friends
B．approach people with lots of hobbies
C．spend your free time meeting different people
D．talk to people with the same interests
74．According to Paragraph 4, who is more likely to be a good friend?
A．One who enjoys the popularity.
B．One who talks bad about others.
C．One who wants to help you.
D．One who always put others down.
75．According to Paragraph 5, what should you do first when you meet someone you don’t know well?
A．Start with a warm handshake.
B．Make eye contact with the person.
C．Start with a brief introduction of yourself.
D．Start by talking about a serious topic.
76．You should avoid asking yes or no questions to ________.
A．keep the conversation going B．end the conversation
C．show kindness D．respect others

Hearing aids usually bring to mind images of ugly, ineffective devices mainly worn by the elderly. But this ill repute is quickly changing, as they’ve recently taken a turn thanks to two innovators, Dr. Marco Vietor and Paul Crusius, who now lead the fastest-growing hearing aid company in the world—hear.com.
Hear.com’s years of research led to the development of two game-changing hearing aids—the Silk and Styletto. These impressive devices pack cutting-edge technology in designs that are practically invisible. They also use a unique way that has been clinically proven to deliver better-than-normal hearing so you can clearly understand speech in any environment. With additional features like Bluetooth and rechargeability, today’s hearing aids are attracting even younger customers skilled in tech.
But hear.com knows it’s not just about tech and design. They’ve put an enormous effort into the entire experience to make hearing care more accessible and more affordable. “Everyone should be able to hear well to live well,” Crusius says. “And it’s very individual. Each person’s hearing loss is different and requires a personalized approach to find the best solution.”
“We hear with our brains, not our ears. And it takes at least 30 days for our brain to adjust and relearn how to hear again with new hearing aids,” Dr. Vietor says. “To guarantee your best outcome with hearing aids, we developed the industry’s first 30-day program, Hearing Success Program, so customers have that extra level of care and knowledge to succeed.”
And it’s working. Hear.com has now helped more than 100,000 customers improve their hearing. Their A+ rating with the Better Business Bureau and 5-star rating on the customer review platform, Trustpilot, speaks for itself.
Hear.com’s “never corporate” and “customer first” approach also helps drive the company’s success, encouraging employees to act like owners and put customers first. “We’re investing heavily in shaping our company culture,” Crusius says. “Individuals who work at hear.com say they are here to do more than a job. They’re helping change lives all around the world.”
77．What does the underlined part “this ill repute” in Para 1 refer to?
A．Hearing aids being too expensive to afford.
B．Hearing aids ignoring the needs of the elderly.
C．Hearing aids developing at a really slow pace.
D．Hearing aids being poor in design and function.
78．What does Para 2 mainly talk about?
A．The popularity of hear.com’s hearing aids.
B．The innovations in hear.com’s hearing aids.
C．The benefits brought by hear.som’s hearing aids.
D．The effort hear.com’s made to develop hearing aids.
79．What does the Hearing Success Program aim to do?
A．Add attractive features to hearing aids.
B．Help customers adjust to new hearing aids.
C．Find the possible causes for customers’ hearing loss.
D．Educate people about the consequences of hearing loss.
80．What can we infer about hear.com’s employees?
A．They take pride in their work.
B．They lack a sense of belonging.
C．They reject the company culture.
D．They cooperate well with review platforms.
81．What does the passage focus on?
A．Products and services of a hearing aid company.
B．Hearing problems in the elderly.
C．The company culture of hear.com.
D．Younger customers’ interest in hearing aids.

Time and time again, I hear someone ask why anyone would want to keep an “ugly” building or a building that is dirty and clearly in need of work. I think you could say we preservationists (文物保护者) look at buildings through a different angle — an angle that can see the swan in the ugly duck, the story in the simple lines, the book behind the cover.
Take the Queen Emma Building for example. While people may remember that building being named as one of the ugliest buildings in town, the angle from which a preservationist will view the building is that it is uniquely constructed with an artistical brise-soleil (遮阳板) to block the sun. The designer used standard concrete bricks to form a decorative wall. Unfortunately, the brise-soleil was removed in 2011, making the building look like many of the contemporary buildings in town.
Sometimes people remember a beautiful site that was replaced by a “horrid” piece of architecture and can’t get over their anger, even when that building becomes an important part of our story. This is particularly true in San Francisco where many preservationists themselves dislike anything newer than the Victorian era. Yes, it was a tragedy that many failed to appreciate the Victorian buildings and let many get torn down several decades ago, but those losses also tell another important story. It tells the story of the 1950s and 1960s when there was hope for a more equal society with inexpensive housing for the working class. Should that history be wiped from our memories?
Preservation is not just about keeping pretty, well-kept buildings, but about conveying parts of our history —not just the history of huge events, but the story of how everyone used to go to a certain corner market. Our history cannot be told only in buildings that meet someone’s criteria of beauty; sometimes our history is painful, but no less important.
82．How do preservationists see buildings?
A．They focus on their value rather than appearance.
B．They pay great attention to ancient buildings.
C．They are devoted to repairing famous buildings.
D．They prefer ugly buildings to beautiful ones.
83．What does the author think of removing the brise-soleil of the Queen Emma Building?
A．It’s confusing. B．It’s pleasing.
C．It’s regrettable. D．It’s unbelievable.
84．Why were many Victorian buildings in San Francisco torn down?
A．To wipe the history of the Victorian era.
B．To make land available for cheap housing.
C．To work off the deep anger of the working class.
D．To restore the architecture before the Victorian era.
85．What is the author’s intention of writing this passage?
A．To introduce some buildings with historical value.
B．To explain the reason why architects make ugly buildings.
C．To praise the work of preservationists
D．To stress the importance of preserving ugly buildings.
86．Where does the text probably come from?
A．A culture paper. B．A science book.
C．An environment report. D．A travel magazine.

Best Basketball Classes for the Pre-Teen Years in Fremont, CA
HoopSphere Basketball Academy
(510) 806-8992
You are not simply in a class at HoopSphere, but are joining a basketball journey. Confidence, adaptability, communication skills, teamwork, leadership, discipline, and hard work are all main byproducts of what we teach. These qualities all impact our students in everything they will do. We have many experienced coaches and our team is accustomed to working with all ages and levels. They are not only caring and passionate, but also outstanding teachers and communicators.
Mon - Sat: 8:00 am - 4:30 pm
Sun: Closed
Mission Hoops Academy
(510) 936-1336
We have our own indoor facility and all our coaches have experience at collegiate and professional level. We are an establishment where individuals from all walks of life can work together to become skilled athletes and respectable persons through the disciplined teaching of basketball and life skills.
Mon - Fri: 4:00 pm - 9:00 pm
Sat: 8:30 am - 12:00 pm
Sun: Closed
Coach Mickey
(408) 431-7950
We specialize in coaching group basketball training’s (2-4 players). A majority of our experience has been coaching kids from ages 5-15. We create a fun environment for our players but when necessary we will challenge them physically and mentally. Our main focus is on the fundamentals and applying these skills in competitive games.
Mon - Fri: Closed
Sat: 8:00 am - 12:30 pm
Sun: 8:00 am - 12:30 pm
SSB Basketball Academy
(510) 794-4888
SSB Basketball Academy was founded to expose today’s youth to the game of basketball in a fun manner. At SSB, we recognize that not all kids learn the same way and not all kids have the same goals. For some, basketball is just another form of recreation. Others may want to pursue the game more seriously. Our curriculum is designed to challenge and attract your child no matter his or her motives.
Mon - Sun: 8:00 am - 7:00 pm
87．What is the additional benefit of attending the class at HoopSphere?
A．Personal growth. B．Outstanding basketball lessons.
C．The progress of basketball skills. D．Increased knowledge of basketball.
88．If you want to reach the level of a sportsman, you can best call ________.
A．(510) 794-4888 B．(510) 936-1336
C．(408) 431-7950 D．(510) 806-8992
89．In Coach Mickey’s class, ________.
A．having fun is the most important thing
B．there is no age limit of the participants
C．mastering and using basic skills are the major aims
D．participants can play basketball on Friday afternoon
90．Which basketball class allows you to join on Sunday afternoon?
A．HoopSphere Basketball Academy. B．Mission Hoops Academy.
C．Coach Mickey. D．SSB Basketball Academy.
91．Who will be least interested in this article?
A．Parents who want to play basketball themselves.
B．Parents with kids who want to learn some basketball skills.
C．Young students who would like to develop a hobby.
D．Young students who like to play basketball and improve themselves.

One of our biggest fears nowadays is that our kids might someday get lost in a “sea of technology” rather than experiencing the natural world. Fear-producing TV and computer games are leading to a serious disconnect between kids and the great outdoors, which will change the wild places of the world, its creatures and human health for the worse, unless adults get working on child’s play.
Each of us has a place in nature we go sometimes, even if it was torn down. We cannot be the last generation to have that place. At this rate, kids who miss the sense of wonder outdoors will not grow up to be protectors of natural landscapes. “If the decline in parks use continues across North America, who will defend parks against encroachment (蚕食)?” asks Richard Louv, author of Last Child in the Woods.
Without having a nature experience, kids, can turn out just fine, but they are missing out a huge enrichment of their lives. That applies to everything from their physical health and mental health, to stress levels, creativity and cognitive (认知的) skills. Experts predict modern kids will have poorer health than their parents — and they say a lack of outside play is surely part of it; research suggests that kids do better academically in schools with a nature component and that play in nature fosters (培养) leadership by the smartest, not by the toughest. Even a tiny outdoor experience can create wonder in a child. The three-year-old turning over his first rock realizes he is not alone in the world. A clump of trees on the roadside can be the whole universe in his eyes. We really need to value that more.
Kids are not responsible. They are over-protected and frightened. It is dangerous out there from time to time, but repetitive stress from computers is replacing breaking an arm as a childhood rite (仪式) of passage.
Everyone, from developers, to schools and outdoor citizens, should help regain for our kids some of the freedom and joy of exploring, taking friendship in fields and woods that cement love, respect and need for landscape. As parents, we should devote some of our energies to taking our kids into nature. This could yet be our greatest cause.
92．The main idea of Paragraph 2 is that ________.
A．kids miss the sense of wonder outdoors
B．parks are in danger of being gradually encroached
C．Richard Louv is the author of Last Child in the Woods
D．children are expected to develop into protectors of nature
93．According to the passage, children without experiencing nature will ________.
A．be less healthy both physically and mentally
B．be over-protected by their parents
C．keep a high sense of wonder
D．change wild places and creatures for the better
94．According to the author, children’s breaking an arm is ________.
A．the fault on the part of their parents
B．the natural experience in their growing up
C．the result of their own carelessness in play
D．the effect of their repetitive stress from computers
95．What does the underlined word “cement” in the last paragraph mean?
A．Weaken. B．Strengthen. C．Lower. D．Decease.
96．In writing this passage, the author mainly intends to ________.
A．blame children for getting lost in computer games
B．encourage children to protect parks from encroachment
C．show his concern about children’s lack of experience in nature
D．inspire children to keep the sense of wonder about things around

When you think of Microsoft, Bill Gates comes to mind immediately; however, numerous sources reveal the company’s co-founder, Paul Allen, was also instrumental in the brand’s success. The documentary Inside Bill’s Brain recently revealed many facts of the world’s famous billionaire, including their friendship.
Gates and Allen met in 1960s at Seattle’s Lakeside School when Gates was in eighth grade. Allen was two classes ahead. The students landed in hot water with the school when they worked on computer terminals. Since they were rare at the time, it cost people up to $60 to use them. Allen and Gates were fascinated by the terminals, but the expenses proved too high. They worked out a way to use the system for free in exchange for helping the school repair them. Gates later mentioned the terminal as the object that brought the two together.
In the 1970s, Allen was a programmer in Boston, while Gates was a student at Harvard University. Gates quickly changed his focus and sped through the most advanced computer and mathematics courses Harvard offered. In 1975, Gates made a decisive call to a company that had built a personal computer called the Altair 8800. Gates offered to develop software for the system. The firm accepted and paid him $3,000 plus royalties(版税). In the same year, they co-founded Microsoft, which is a team effort between Allen and Gates.
It was Allen who persuaded Gates to drop out of college to pursue software development. Plus, he came up with the Microsoft name and suggested focusing on its goal of providing software for small computers, rather than the earliest models that filled entire rooms. Later some frictions appeared between himself and Gates; however, they repaired them soon. Bill’s wife, Melinda, says, “I often saw them sit for hours. They were like two little boys laughing together over these old stories.”
Allen and Gates both possessed brilliant minds. Allen and Gates’ collaboration made Microsoft possible. We shouldn’t lose sight of the people who help us along the way. Finding a business to work with those who support us sincerely and cheerfully is the surest path to accomplishing our goals.
97．What does the underlined word “instrumental” in Paragraph 1 probably mean?
A．Helpful. B．Delighted. C．Surprised. D．Forgettable.
98．What is the second paragraph mainly about?
A．How Bill Gates fixed the terminal problems.
B．How Bill Gates became a computer expert.
C．How Allen and Gates became friends.
D．What Allen and Gates shared in common.
99．When Bill Gates studied at Harvard University, ________.
A．he wanted to leave the university soon B．he had a clear plan for the future
C．he built the first personal computer D．he founded Microsoft by himself
100．Which can best describe Paul Allen?
A．Flexible and creative. B．Adventurous and active.
C．Forward-looking and supportive. D．Ambitious and considerate.
101．What can we learn from the last paragraph?
A．Sincerity is the key to success. B．A faithful friend is hard to find.
C．A friend in need is a friend indeed. D．Two heads are better than one.

















参考答案：
1．B 2．C 3．A 4．B 5．D

【导语】本文是一篇应用文。文章主要介绍的是疫情后外出旅行探险的好去处。
1．细节理解题。根据01 The Great American E-Bike Trip部分的“TDA Global Cycling’s Great American Road Trip can be done in full, or broken down to a 10-day trip to explore one region.(TDA全球自行车的伟大的美国公路之旅可以完成全部，或分解成一个10天的旅行，探索一个地区)”可知，从加利福尼亚到佐治亚州的电动自行车之旅可以完整完成，也可以分成10天来完成。由此可知，此处的自行车之旅可以分段完成。故选B项。
2．细节理解题。根据Swim with Whale Sharks部分中的“Dubbed “The Aquarium of the World” by Jacques Cousteau, the Sea of Cortez is one of the best spots in the world to swim with whale sharks and sea lions.(科尔特斯海被雅克·库斯托称为“世界水族馆”，是世界上与鲸鲨和海狮一起游泳的最佳地点之一)”和See Kangaroo Island Bounce Back部分的“Swim with sea lions or sip some Jacob’s Creek local wine and watch the kangaroos bounce back.(与海狮一起游泳，或啜饮雅各布溪当地的葡萄酒，观看袋鼠的反弹)”可知，这两处的共同之处在于可以体验与某些海洋动物一起游泳。故选C项。
3．推理判断题。根据Soak in the Natural Wonders部分的“While the world waits for the 2021 Tokyo Olympics, consider Japan’s last-developed island as a refuge (庇护所) from the crowds.(当全世界都在等待2021年东京奥运会的时候，把日本最后一个开发的岛屿当作一个远离人群的避难所)”可知，北海道可以当做一个远离人群的避难所。由此推知，游客可以在此找到属于自己的那份安宁。故选A项。
4．推理判断题。根据首段中的“With a vaccine (疫苗) finally greenlighted, the future of travel is looking up, but what will be the safest trips to take while the world is still in continuous change?(随着疫苗终于获得批准，旅行的未来正在好转，但在世界仍在不断变化的情况下，最安全的旅行是什么？)”可知，疫苗的获准，旅游业开始复苏，再根据“Here are the friendly escapes we’re dreaming of right now.(以下是我们现在梦寐以求的友好逃离)”可推知，本文主要介绍的是在有医疗保障下，旅游业开始复苏。故选B项。
5．推理判断题。根据首段中的“Think wide open spaces, small-group adventures and responsible tourism. Playing it safe doesn’t mean you can’t get outside your comfort zone and have a novel adventure next year, though. Here are the friendly escapes we’re dreaming of right now.(想想广阔的开放空间，小团体冒险和负责任的旅游。不过，谨慎行事并不意味着你明年不能走出自己的舒适区，来一次新奇的冒险。以下是我们现在梦寐以求的友好逃离)”及下文可知，文章介绍了四个梦寐以求的旅行探险的好去处。由此推知，本文应是出自于旅游杂志。故选D项。
6．C 7．A 8．B 9．A 10．B

【导语】这是一篇说明文。文章主要说明了全身学习，又称为体验式学习可以有助于培养孩子阅读技能。文章介绍了与之相关的研究过程和发现。
6．细节理解题。根据第二段“The research included 149 children, aged 5 to 6, who had just started school. They were divided into three groups: one that stood up and used their whole bodies to shape letter sounds; a seated group that shaped letter sounds with their hands and arms; and a control group that received traditional, seated instruction during which they wrote letters by hand.(这项研究包括149名5至6岁的儿童，他们刚刚开始上学。他们被分为三组：一组站起来，用全身来塑造字母的发音；一组坐着的人，用他们的手和手臂塑造字母的发音；对照组接受传统的坐姿指导，在此期间他们用手写信)”可知，参与者在研究中被要求用不同的方法学习字母的读音。故选C。
7．细节理解题。根据第五段“The idea is that if, through play and movement, we can learn where their strengths truly lie, we’ll create a form of learning that combines reading with play, and that’s truly positive.(我们的想法是，如果通过游戏和运动，我们可以了解他们真正的优势所在，我们将创造一种将阅读与游戏结合起来的学习形式，这是真正积极的)”可知，体验式学习通过将学习与游戏相结合让孩子积极参与。故选A。
8．词义猜测题。根据第三段““Our research showed that children who used their whole bodies to shape the sounds of letters became twice as proficient at letter sounds that are more difficult to learn as those who received traditional instruction(“我们的研究表明，与接受传统教学的孩子相比，用身体来记住字母发音的孩子对更难学习的字母发音的proficient是他们的两倍)”可知，该研究是将用身体来记忆字母发音与传统学习方式相比较。根据倒数第二段“Previously, the researchers showed that the children felt more motivated by teaching methods which included physical movement.”（此前，研究人员发现，包括身体运动在内的教学方法能让孩子们更有动力）可知，用身体运动学习语言会让孩子们更有动力。由此猜测，用身体来记住字母发音的孩子对更难学习的字母发音掌握的更好，即更熟练。由此可知划线词意为“熟练的”，与skilled同义。故选B。
9．细节理解题。根据倒数第二段“Jacob Wienecke hopes this will provide an opportunity to inspire teachers and school managers to prioritize movement across subjects.(雅各布·维内克希望这将提供一个机会，激励教师和学校管理者优先考虑跨学科教学)”可知，雅各布期望研究发现可以鼓励教育工作者将其应用于教学。故选A。
10．主旨大意题。根据最后一段“The study also investigated whether a direct effect of embodied learning could be found on children’s reading of individual words. This was not possible, which might be due to the fact that the children were at such an early stage of their literacy development that they could not yet use their knowledge of letter sounds to read words.(该研究还调查了体现学习是否会对儿童阅读个别单词产生直接影响。这是不可能的，这可能是因为孩子们还处于读写能力发展的早期阶段，他们还不能使用他们的字母发音知识来阅读单词)”可知，最后一段想告诉我们孩子太小了，还不能聪明地运用他们的知识。故选B。
11．D 12．A 13．D 14．D 15．C

【导语】这是一篇说明文。本文主要介绍了一项研究发现，通过观测蟋蟀的叫声，可以监测热带生态系统变化的早期阶段。
11．推理判断题。根据第一段关键句“Canaries, a kind of small yellow songbirds, are more sensitive to carbon monoxide (CO) than people are. Thus they were routinely taken into mines as men went about their work of mining for coal. CO could quickly poison many miners before they even knew what was happening. If a canary stopped singing, this was an indicator of rising CO levels.”（金丝雀是一种黄色的小型鸣禽，对一氧化碳（CO）比人更敏感。因此，当人们开始开采煤炭时，它们经常被带进矿井。一氧化碳可以迅速毒害许多矿工，甚至在他们知道发生了什么之前。如果金丝雀停止唱歌，这是一氧化碳水平上升的迹象）可知，金丝雀对一氧化碳比人更敏感，金丝雀停止唱歌是一氧化碳水平上升的迹象，可以提醒矿工注意潜在的危险。由此可知，矿工们把金丝雀带进矿井是为了提醒他们注意潜在的危险。故选D项。
12．细节理解题。根据第四段关键句“Dr. Gasc described how each ecosystem had, in effect, a distinct “cricket fingerprint”. Species richness varies considerably among the different environments.”（Gasc博士描述了每个生态系统实际上是如何具有独特的“蟋蟀指纹”的。不同环境的物种丰富度差异很大）可知，Gasc和她的同事通过分析“蟋蟀指纹”来了解不同环境的物种丰富度。由此可知，Gasc和她的同事通过分析“蟋蟀指纹”来进行研究。故选A项。
13．细节理解题。根据第四段关键句“Of the 20 cricket species found in the healthy forest, 12 were unique to that habitat alone, 2 of the 15 species found in transitioning forests were unique to this habitat and 3 of the 7 shrubland species were unique to shrubland.”（在健康森林中发现的20种蟋蟀中，仅该栖息地就有12种是独特的，在过渡森林中发现15种蟋蟀中有2种是该栖息地特有的，7种灌木林中发现的蟋蟀中有3种是灌木林特有的）可知，健康森林、过渡森林和灌木林中发现的蟋蟀种类不同，由此可知，Gasc博士和她的同事们可以从研究中得知蟋蟀的种类与环境密切相关。故选D项。
14．推理判断题。根据最后一段关键句“This suggests that setting up audio recorders in forests that pick up cricket calls will be an easy, cheap and accurate way to detect the early stages of change in tropical ecosystems.”（这表明，在森林中设置录音机来接收蟋蟀的叫声，将是一种简单、廉价和准确的方法，可以检测热带生态系统变化的早期阶段）可知，Gasc博士研究蟋蟀的结论表明观测蟋蟀的叫声将是一种简单、廉价和准确的监测环境变化的方法。由此可知，Gasc博士研究蟋蟀的目的是帮助人类轻松监测环境变化。故选D项。
15．主旨大意题。通读全文，结合最后一段关键句“This suggests that setting up audio recorders in forests that pick up cricket calls will be an easy, cheap and accurate way to detect the early stages of change in tropical ecosystems.”（这表明，在森林中设置录音机来接收蟋蟀的叫声，将是一种简单、廉价和准确的方法，可以检测热带生态系统变化的早期阶段）可知，本文主要介绍了一项研究发现，通过观测蟋蟀的叫声，可以监测热带生态系统变化的早期阶段，“Crickets: an early indicator of tropical ecosystem health”意为“蟋蟀：热带生态系统健康的早期标志”，选项能够概括文章主要内容。故选C项。
16．D 17．A 18．C 19．B 20．D

【导语】这是一篇记叙文。短文叙述了娜塔莉的母亲的个人经历以及对孩子的爱，受到母亲的影响，作者也将对孩子的爱延续下去。在母亲节这天，娜塔莉翻新了母亲年轻时的照片，母亲很是高兴。
16．推理判断题。根据第一段“I think she often felt in life like she wasn’t wanted and wasn’t loved.”（我想她在生活中经常觉得自己不被需要，也不被爱）可知，关于娜塔莉的母亲，我们可以推断出她母亲觉得自己不重要。故选D项。
17．细节理解题。根据第二段““She would always make sure that when we got home from school, we felt like we had our number-one fan, our champion right there, waiting for us.” Along the way, Natalie learned many things from her mother, which she carries on in her role as a mother of two sons.”（“她总是确保当我们从学校回家时，我们觉得我们的头号粉丝，我们的冠军就在那里等着我们。”一路走来，娜塔莉从母亲那里学到了很多东西，作为两个儿子的母亲，她把这些东西继承了下来）可知，娜塔莉从她母亲那里学到给予孩子极大的爱。故选A项。
18．细节理解题。根据第三段“And as part of the surprise, Natalie brought along an old photo of her mother, which she wanted to recreate. “I think it was taken in the mid-60s. So she was in her early to mid twenties. She’s just absolutely a beautiful woman.”（作为惊喜的一部分，娜塔莉带来了一张她母亲的老照片，她想重现这张照片。“我想这是在60年代中期拍摄的。所以她在二十出头到二十五岁左右。她绝对是个漂亮的女人。”）可知，娜塔莉在母亲节翻新了母亲的照片。故选C项。
19．推理判断题。根据最后一段““It’s just an amazing experience to take this picture and have Natalie do it. I could never imagine in my entire life,” says Penelope Morales, who adds that she’s very proud of her daughter, “All I want her is to be happy and to raise her children the same way,” she says.”（娜塔莉翻新这张照片，这真是一次奇妙的经历。佩内洛普 · 莫拉莱斯说，她为自己的女儿感到非常骄傲。她说：“我只想让她快乐，用同样的方式抚养她的孩子。”）可知，关于娜塔莉送给她母亲的礼物的很成功的。故选B项。
20．主旨大意题。根据第一段“If Natalie Morales had to describe her mom in just one word, she would pick: survivor.”（如果娜塔莉·莫拉莱斯必须用一个词来形容她的母亲，她会选择：幸存者）根据第三段“As a Mother’s Day gift, Natalie treated her mom to a day of pampering (宠爱). “I want my mom to feel like a queen,” she says. And as part of the surprise, Natalie brought along an old photo of her mother, which she wanted to recreate.”（作为母亲节的礼物，娜塔莉让妈妈享受了一天的呵护。“我想让我妈妈感觉自己像个女王，”她说。作为惊喜的一部分，娜塔莉带来了一张她母亲的老照片，她想翻新这张照片）可知，短文叙述娜塔莉的母亲的个人经历以及对孩子的爱，受到母亲的影响，作者也将对孩子的爱延续下去。在母亲节这天，娜塔莉翻新了母亲年轻时的照片，母亲很是高兴。所以短文告诉我们娜塔莉的“幸存者”妈妈值得得到这份特别的母亲节礼物。故选D项。
21．D 22．B 23．C 24．C 25．B

【导语】本文是一篇应用文。文章主要介绍了全国音乐戏剧大赛。
21．推理判断题。根据第一段“It was launched in 2011 as the first national competition for the emerging professional music theater soloist (独唱者). NMTC has provided industry connections for past competitors and winners that have led to their success on Broadway and other venues.(它于2011年推出，是第一届全国性的新兴职业音乐剧院独奏比赛。NMTC为过去的竞争对手和获胜者提供了行业联系，这使他们在百老汇和其他场所取得了成功)”可推知，举办全国音乐戏剧比赛的目的是寻找有音乐天赋的人。故选D。
22．细节理解题。根据Prizes (each prize only for a person)部分的“The runner-up: $2,500 plus a $500 Gift Certificate from Hal Leonard.(亚军：2500美元外加Hal Leonard赠送的500美元礼券)”可知，第二名会获得2500美元的奖金和500美元礼券。故选B。
23．细节理解题。根据Entrance Procedure部分“All application materials must be submitted by September 15, 2023.(所有申请材料必须在2023年9月15日前提交)”可知，参加比赛的要求之一是按时提交申请材料。故选C。
24．细节理解题。根据Where to Audition部分的“The preliminary (预选的) round(预选赛)”和“Semifinal and final rounds(半决赛和决赛)”可知，比赛总共有三轮。故选C。
25．推理判断题。根据第一段的“The 2024 National Music Theater Competition (NMTC) will be held. It was launched in 2011 as the first national competition for the emerging professional music theater soloist (独唱者). NMTC has provided industry connections for past competitors and winners that have led to their success on Broadway and other venues.(2024年全国音乐剧院大赛（NMTC）将举行。它于2011年推出，是第一届全国性的新兴职业音乐剧院独奏比赛。NMTC为过去的竞争对手和获胜者提供了行业联系，这使他们在百老汇和其他场所取得了成功)”和Qualification部分的“Singers aged from 20 to 28 as of September 15, 2023.(截至2023年9月15日，年龄在20岁至28岁之间的歌手)”并结合Prizes部分的叙述推知，作者写作本文的目的是吸引年轻歌手来参加比赛。故选B。
26．C 27．D 28．C 29．B 30．A

【导语】这是一篇说明文。ChatGPT是一种新的人工智能系统，它在对话中听起来非常人性化，甚至可以主持自己的广播节目，但是ChatGPT的局限性让人类更加意识到他们不可替代的人类品质。
26．推理判断题。根据第一段第一句“ChatGPT is a new AI system that sounds so human in conversations that it could host its own radio programs.(ChatGPT是一种新的人工智能系统，它在对话中听起来非常人性化，甚至可以主持自己的广播节目。)”可知，关于ChatGPT我们能了解到它会产生自然的语言反应。故选C。
27．词句猜测题。根据第二段第一句“Some compare the emergence of ChatGPT to the impact of the iPhone, but that doesn’t do it justice.(有些人将ChatGPT的出现与iPhone的影响相提并论，但这并不公平。)”和下文“And yet, that doesn’t necessarily mean the end of the world is upon us. (然而，这并不一定意味着世界末日就要来临。)”可知，ChatGPT，以及紧随其后并超越它的生成式人工智能，更具颠覆性。此处是指ChatGPT的影响更具颠覆性。所以disruptive意为“革命性的，突破性的”。故选D。
28．推理判断题。根据第二段最后一句“On the contrary, ChatGPT, I would argue, might serve to make us more aware of our irreplaceable human qualities.(相反，我认为ChatGPT可能会让我们更多地意识到我们不可替代的人类品质。)”和第三段第一句“Take the creative act, writing in particular, as an example.(以创造性行为，尤其是写作为例。)”可知，第三段的写作目的是为了证明ChatGPT可能会让人类更加意识到他们不可替代的人类品质。故选C。
29．细节理解题。根据第四段最后两句“Unfortunately, ChatGPT will reproduce misinformation from any of its input sources — it is not an intelligent system that tries to balance or weight different perspectives. In this sense, everything that ChatGPT writes is bullshit.(不幸的是，ChatGPT会从任何输入源复制错误信息——它不是一个试图平衡或权衡不同观点的智能系统。从这个意义上说，ChatGPT写的所有东西都是废话。)”可知，作者认为ChatGPT是一个废话生成器是因为它不能分辨是非。故选B。
30．主旨大意题。根据最后一段“Creativity, imagination and ethics — these will all remain unique human domains. It is the AI’s very limitations that will make us appreciate our own.(创造力、想象力和道德——这些都将是人类独有的领域。正是人工智能的局限性会让我们欣赏自己的独特性。)”可知，文章主要是讲述ChatGPT让人类更加意识到他们不可替代的人类品质。因此推断A项“ChatGPT让我们成为人类”为最佳标题。故选A。
31．B 32．B 33．D 34．B 35．C

【导语】这是一篇说明文。文章主要是介绍一种解决现实问题的方法——系统思维。
31．细节理解题。根据第一段最后一句“The result — an approach known as systems thinking — is now seen as essential in meeting big global challenges.(其结果——一种被称为系统思维的方法——现在被视为应对重大全球挑战的关键。)”可知，系统思维在解决重大世界问题方面发挥着重要作用。故选B。
32．细节理解题。根据第三段最后一句“This shows that we have some way to travel before achieving the first objective of systems thinking — which, in this example, is to identify more constituent parts of the nutrition system.(这表明，在实现系统思考的第一个目标之前，我们还有一段路要走——在这个例子中，这个目标是确定营养系统的更多组成部分。)”可知，根据第三段，由网络科学家进行的研究表明，实现系统思维需要识别更多的组成部分。故选B。
33．细节理解题。根据倒第二段最后一句“Since its launch in 2015, the program has trained more than 1, 500 students from 45 university departments.(自2015年启动以来，该项目已经培训了来自45个大学院系的1500多名学生。)”和倒第二句“Students from disciplines including agriculture, ecology and economics learn together by drawing on their collective expertise in tackling real-world problems, such as how to reduce food waste.(来自农业、生态学和经济学等学科的学生共同学习，利用他们的集体专业知识解决现实世界的问题，例如如何减少食物浪费。)”可知，根据文章，跨学科食品系统教学计划自创办以来已经培养了众多复合型人才。故选D。
34．词句猜测题。根据最后一段最后一句中的“visions alone don’t produce results(光有愿景并不能产生结果)”和转折词but可知，此处是指光有愿景并不能产生结果，但是“愿景会带来改变”。故选B。
35．主旨大意题。根据第一段最后一句“The result — an approach known as systems thinking — is now seen as essential in meeting big global challenges.(其结果——一种被称为系统思维的方法——现在被视为应对重大全球挑战的关键。)”可知，文章主要是介绍一种解决现实问题的方法。故选C。
36．C 37．C 38．A 39．D 40．B

【导语】这是一篇应用文。老龄问题委员会（COA）开展了一项名为“阳光电话”的电话友谊项目，为60岁以上的老人安排一位友好的志愿者，每天在电话上聊天。目的很简单——帮助缓解孤独感，修复社交网络。文章是为了COA招募新的志愿者。
36．推理判断题。根据第一段“The Council on Aging (COA) runs a telephone friendship project called the Sunshine Call Program, matching over-60s with a friendly volunteer for a daily chat over the phone. The aim is simple — to help ease the loneliness and repair social networks.(老龄问题委员会（COA）开展了一项名为“阳光电话”的电话友谊项目，为60岁以上的老人安排一位友好的志愿者，每天在电话上聊天。目的很简单——帮助缓解孤独感，修复社交网络。)”可知，文章提到希拉的经历是为了强调COA的价值。故选C。
37．细节理解题。根据第六段第三句“Without having to leave the house, you will help the seniors meet and make new friends.(不用离开家，你就可以帮助老年人认识和结交新朋友。)”可知，志愿者的职责之一是为老年人介绍新朋友。故选C。
38．细节理解题。根据第七段第一句“Volunteers must have access to the Internet and be willing to be trained on the use of a chat app.(志愿者必须能够上网，并愿意接受使用聊天应用程序的培训。)”可知，如果你想成为一名志愿者，你需要学习使用聊天软件。故选A。
39．推理判断题。根据最后一段“If you wish to volunteer with our Sunshine Call program, never hesitate! Just CLICK HERE to fill out the application form.(如果你想成为我们的志愿者，请不要犹豫！请按这里填写申请表。)”可知，文章的目的是为COA招募新的志愿者。故选D。
40．推理判断题。根据最后一段“If you wish to volunteer with our Sunshine Call program, never hesitate! Just CLICK HERE to fill out the application form.(如果你想成为我们的志愿者，请不要犹豫！请按这里填写申请表。)”中的“CLICK HERE”可知，这篇文章可能取自一个组织的网站。故选B。
41．B 42．A 43．D 44．B 45．C

【导语】这是一篇记叙文。文章主要是讲脑瘫患儿大卫以坚强的意志和乐观的态度完成跑步比赛的故事。
41．细节理解题。根据第二段第八句“David’s cerebral palsy (脑瘫)prevented him from walking or running like other children, but at school his peers thought of him as a regular kid.(大卫的脑瘫使他不能像其他孩子一样走路或跑步，但在学校里，他的同学们把他当作一个普通的孩子。)”可知，他的身体状况让大卫不能像其他孩子一样奔跑。故选B。
42．细节理解题。根据第三段第四句“As I started to shout encouragement, David picked himself up and started again.(当我开始大声鼓励时，大卫站了起来，又开始了。)”可知，大卫决定奔跑是因为他受到了鼓励。故选A。
43．推理判断题。根据倒第二段最后一句“He had worked for it, and he wouldn’t give up!(他为之努力过，他不会放弃的！)”可知，大卫意志很坚定。根据最后一段最后一句“He caught my eye, flashed me a toothy grin and said, “That was easy!”(他吸引了我的目光，朝我咧嘴一笑，说：“这太简单了！”)”可知，艰难完成比赛后大卫依然很乐观。故选D。
44．推理判断题。根据最后一段最后一句中的“That was easy!(这很简单！)”可知，通过在最后一句中使用“a teeth grin”这个短语，作者想告诉我们大卫对生活的积极态度。故选B。
45．主旨大意题。根据最后一段最后两句“David raised his arms in triumph as he crossed the finish line to wild cheers and applause. He caught my eye, flashed me a toothy grin and said, “That was easy!”(大卫在欢呼声和掌声中越过终点线时，举起了胜利的双臂。他吸引了我的目光，朝我咧嘴一笑，说：“这太简单了！”)”和第二段第八句“David’s cerebral palsy (脑瘫)prevented him from walking or running like other children, but at school his peers thought of him as a regular kid.(大卫的脑瘫使他不能像其他孩子一样走路或跑步，但在学校里，他的同学们把他当作一个普通的孩子。)”可知，文章主要是讲脑瘫患儿大卫以坚强的意志和乐观的态度完成跑步比赛的故事。故选C。
46．C 47．A 48．B 49．C 50．A 51．A

【导语】这是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲述了作者想要修剪家附近的一棵苹果树，结果邻居很担忧前来劝阻，结果大家因为这棵苹果树都聚集在了一起。
46．推理判断题。根据第一段“Every April I am troubled by the same concern—that spring might not occur this year. The landscape looks dull, with hills, the sky and the forest appearing gray. My spirits ebb, as they did during an April snowfall when I first came to Maine 15 years ago. “Just wait,” a neighbour advised. “You’ll wake up one morning and spring will just be here.”(每年四月我都被同样的忧虑所困扰——今年可能不会有春天了。风景看起来很沉闷，山峦、天空和森林都是灰色的。我的情绪低落，就像15年前我第一次来到缅因州时，在四月的一场大雪中一样。“等等，”一个邻居建议。“你会在某天早上醒来，发现春天就在这里。”)”可推知，第一段的主要功能是介绍故事的背景。故选C。
47．词句猜测题。根据划线词上文“Every April I am troubled by the same concern—that spring might not occur this year. The landscape looks dull, with hills, the sky and the forest appearing gray.(每年四月我都被同样的忧虑所困扰——今年可能不会有春天了。风景看起来很沉闷，山峦、天空和森林都是灰色的)”可推知，作者感觉忧郁，担心不会有春天了，即情绪低落，感到忧郁。作者在第一段说“my spirits ebb”，意思是他感到忧郁。故选A。
48．推理判断题。根据第四段中“These were people I barely knew and seldom spoke to, but it was as if I had come uninvited into their personal gardens.(这些人我几乎不认识，也很少和他们说话，但我仿佛是不请自来来到他们的私人花园)”以及第五段““You’re not cutting it down, are you?” she asked anxiously. Another neighbour frowned as I cut off a branch. “Don’t kill it, now,” he warned.(“你不是要把它砍倒吧?”她焦急地问。当我砍下一根树枝时，另一个邻居皱起了眉头。“现在别杀它，”他警告说)”可知，文章中提到的那棵苹果树最有可能被邻里视为赏心悦目之物。故选B。
49．细节理解题。根据第四段“Until last year, I thought I was the only one aware of this tree. And then one day, in a bit of spring madness, I set out with pruner to remove a few disorderly branches. No sooner had I arrived under the tree than neighbours opened their windows and stepped onto their porches (门廊). These were people I barely knew and seldom spoke to, but it was as if I had come uninvited into their personal gardens.(直到去年，我还以为只有我知道这棵树。然后有一天，在春天的疯狂中，我拿着修剪器去剪掉一些乱七八糟的树枝。我刚到树下，邻居们就打开窗户，走上门廊。这些人我几乎不认识，也很少和他们说话，但我仿佛是不请自来来到他们的私人花园)”以及第五段“My mobile-home neighbour was the first to speak. “You’re not cutting it down, are you?” she asked anxiously. Another neighbour frowned as I cut off a branch. “Don’t kill it, now,” he warned.(我的移动房屋邻居第一个开口说话。“你不是要把它砍倒吧？”她焦急地问。当我砍下一根树枝时，另一个邻居皱起了眉头。“现在别杀它，”他警告说)”可知，邻居们打开窗户，走到门廊上是因为他们担心这棵树的安全。故选C。
50．细节理解题。根据第六段“Soon half the neighbourhood joined me under the apple tree. It struck me that I had lived there for five years and only now was learning these people’s names, what they did for a living and how they passed the winter. It was as if the old apple tree was gathering us under its branches for the purpose of both acquaintanceship and shared wonder.(不久，一半的邻居和我一起站在苹果树下。我突然想到，我在那里住了五年，直到现在才知道这些人的名字，他们以什么为生，以及他们是如何度过冬天的。就好像那棵老苹果树把我们聚集在它的枝头下，既为了相识，又为了共同的惊奇)”可知，A选项“这棵树给附近地区带来了巨大的变化。”正确。故选A。
51．推理判断题。根据最后一段“One thaw led to another. Just the other day I saw one of my neighbors at the local store. He remarked how this recent winter had been especially long and complained of not having seen or spoken at length to anyone in our neighbourhood. And then, he looked at me and said, “We need to prune that apple tree again.”(解冻一个接着一个。就在前几天，我在当地的商店里看到我的一个邻居。他说，最近的这个冬天特别漫长，他抱怨说，他在我们附近没有见过任何人，也没有和任何人说过话。然后，他看着我说：“我们需要再修剪一下那棵苹果树。”)”可推知，作者在最后一段提到的邻居最关心邻里聚会。故选A。
52．B 53．C 54．D 55．A 56．B

【导语】本文是一篇夹叙夹议的文章。文章通过介绍自己读书的成长经历，阐述自己与书籍之间的关系，由此鼓励下一代把书店作为他们生活的一部分，把书店视为一种享受、一种乐趣、一种冒险、一扇大门，让它们成为我们生活中不可或缺的东西。
52．细节理解题。根据第二段中“My father was in the military service when I was a child, so we moved every two years, but we insisted on going to bookshops wherever we lived. (当我还是个孩子的时候，我父亲在军队服役，所以我们每两年就搬一次家，但无论住在哪里，我们都坚持要去书店。)”可知，因为作者的父亲在军队服役，所以小时候作者经常搬家。故选B。
53．推理判断题。根据第一段中“I can’t remember a time when I didn’t read: It was almost like breathing to me. (我不记得有什么时候不读书了：读书对我来说就像呼吸一样。)”以及第二段中“And so started my lifelong love affair with bookshops.(就这样，我开始了对书店毕生的热爱。)”可知，作者与书目之间的关系是密不可分的。故选C。
54．词义猜测题。根据划线词前面的句子“It was a feeling of perfect happiness.(这是一种完美的幸福的感觉。)”以及划线词后面的句子“My book would be set in a bookshop, and I could explore what books meant to each of my characters and how they had shaped their lives.(我的书将以书店为背景，我可以探索书对我的每个角色意味着什么，以及他们是如何塑造他们的生活的。)”可知，那一天作者在书店里构思《如何找到爱》这本书的场景，就在此时，一种幸福的感觉涌上心头，由此作者想到将会以书店为背景，探讨每个角色意味着什么即在此时，作者突然灵光乍现，充满灵感。故划线词与D选项为近义词。故选D。
55．推理判断题。根据倒数第二段中“ It’s about finding the love of books: something that can sustain you throughout your life, and provide escape, entertainment, education, comfort, wonder. (它是关于寻找对书的热爱：一些可以支撑你一生的东西，并提供逃避、娱乐、教育、舒适和奇迹。)”可知，这本书是关于寻找书的热爱，这种热爱可以支撑你的一生，即书籍如何影响人们的生活。故选A。
56．推理判断题。根据最后一段中“But if we are to keep bookshops alive, we need to use them, and to encourage the next generation to make them a part of their life and view bookshops as a treat, a pleasure, an adventure, a gateway, so they become something we can’t live without.(但是，如果我们想让书店继续存在下去，我们就需要利用它们，并鼓励下一代把书店作为他们生活的一部分，把书店视为一种享受、一种乐趣、一种冒险、一扇大门，让它们成为我们生活中不可或缺的东西。)”以及“Thus my challenge to you, fellow readers, is to go to your local bookshops as often as possible and come out with something that might change your life.(因此，我对读者们的挑战是，尽可能多地去当地的书店，买一些可能改变你生活的东西。)”可知，作者鼓励下一代把书店作为他们生活的一部分，把书店视为一种享受、一种乐趣、一种冒险、一扇大门，让它们成为我们生活中不可或缺的东西，同时尽可能的多地去当地的书店，买一些可能改变你生活的东西即经常买书。故选B。
57．B 58．D 59．C 60．D 61．A

【导语】这是一篇说明文。文章主要说明了研究发现人类直立行走的原因主要是为了节约能量，介绍了相关研究以及研究发现。
57．词句猜测题。根据第一段“Why did humans evolve to walk upright?(为什么人类进化成直立行走？)”以及划线词后文“walking on two feet — is one of the defining characteristics of being human, and scientists have debated for years how it came about”可知，用两只脚走路——是人类的决定性特征之一，科学家们多年来一直在争论它是如何产生的。由此可知，划线词意思是“直立行走”。故选B。
58．细节理解题。根据第二段中“In the latest attempt to find an explanation, researchers trained five chimpanzees to walk on treadmill while wearing masks that allowed measurement of their oxygen consumption.(在最新的尝试中，研究人员训练五只黑猩猩戴着面具在跑步机上行走，以测量它们的耗氧量)”可知，黑猩猩在实验中戴面具，是因为面具有助于测量黑猩猩消耗了多少氧气。故选D。
59．推理判断题。根据第二段中“Bipedalism — walking on two feet — is one of the defining characteristics of being human, and scientists have debated for years how it came about.(直立行走——用两只脚走路——是人类的决定性特征之一，科学家们多年来一直在争论它是如何产生的)”可推知，科学家们对人类如何用两条腿走路有不同的看法。故选C。
60．主旨大意题。根据第四段“However, there were differences among chimpanzees in how much energy they used, and this difference corresponded to their different gaits and anatomy. One of the chimps used less energy on two legs, one used about the same and the others used more, said David Raichlen, assistant professor of anthropology at the University of Arizona.(然而，黑猩猩在消耗能量方面存在差异，这种差异与它们不同的步态和解剖结构有关。亚利桑那大学人类学助理教授大卫·瑞奇伦说，其中一只黑猩猩用两条腿消耗的能量较少，另一只消耗的能量大致相同，而其他的则消耗得更多)”可知，第四段主要讲不同的黑猩猩消耗不同的能量。故选D。
61．细节理解题。根据第一段“Why did humans evolve to walk upright? Perhaps because it’s just plain easier. Make that “energetically less costly,” in science-speak.(为什么人类进化成直立行走？也许是因为这样更简单。用科学术语来说就是“能量成本更低”)”以及第三段“It turns out that humans walking on two legs use only one quarter of the energy that chimpanzees use while knuckle-walking on four limbs. And the chimps, on average, use as much energy using two legs as they did when they used all four limbs.(事实证明，人类用两条腿走路所消耗的能量只有黑猩猩用四肢用指关节走路所消耗能量的四分之一。平均而言，黑猩猩使用两条腿消耗的能量与使用四肢消耗的能量相同)”可知，人类直立行走是为了节约能量。故选A。
62．A 63．C 64．C 65．A 66．A

【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章讲述了一个关于慢跑者和不慢跑者，以及慢跑时的运动量大小不同的试验，研究表明，适量的慢跑才是对身体最好的。
62．推理判断题。根据第二段“A team from Denmark followed over 5, 000 people taking part in the Copenhagen City Heart Study, and tracked whether they were non-joggers, or joggers who kept a slow, moderate (中等的), or fast pace. (来自丹麦的一个研究小组跟踪了5000多名参加哥本哈根城市心脏研究的人，并跟踪了他们是不慢跑的人，还是保持慢速、中速或快速的慢跑者。)”，第三段中“The connection was this: Joggers of mild and moderate intensity had a lower risk of death than the fast joggers. (这种联系是这样的：轻度和中度强度的慢跑者比快速慢跑者的死亡风险更低。)”可知，这项研究的研究对象是慢跑者和不慢跑者，旨在发现运动量与健康的关系，故选A项。
63．细节理解题。根据第三段中“Joggers of mild and moderate intensity had a lower risk of death than the fast joggers.  (轻度和中度强度慢跑者的死亡风险低于快速慢跑者。)”可知，面临最高的死亡风险的是快节奏的慢跑者，故选C项。
64．推理判断题。根据第四段中“‘The U-shaped association between jogging and mortality suggests there may be an upper limit for exercise amount that is best for health benefits,’ said study author Peter Schnohr. ‘Anything more is not just unnecessary; it may be harmful.’ From the current study, jogging just three times per week, for less than 2.5 hours per week was associated with the lowest overall mortality risk. (研究作者彼得·施诺尔说：‘慢跑和死亡率之间的u型关系表明，对健康有益的锻炼量可能有一个上限。更多的东西不仅是不必要的；这可能是有害的。’从目前的研究来看，每周慢跑三次，每周不到2.5小时，与最低的整体死亡风险相关。)”可知，根据慢跑和死亡率之间的u型关系，Peter Schnohr认为超量的运动和运动不足都不对，故选C项。
65．词句猜测题。根据最后一段中“The World Health Organization has suggested that the current 150 minutes per week recommendations are strenuous for most people to tackle, and that expectations should be lowered, since, after all, anything is better than nothing. (世界卫生组织表示，目前建议的每周150分钟的锻炼时间对大多数人来说，应付起来是strenuous，应该降低期望值，因为毕竟有总比没有好。)”，根据后句中的“应该降低期望值”可知，每周150分钟的锻炼时间对于大多数人来说不好实现，有点“紧张的；费力的”。A. Intense强烈的；B. Wide-ranging广泛的；C. Necessary必要的；C. Far-reaching影响深远的。划线词strenuous与Intense意思相近，故选A项。
66．主旨大意题。通读全文，尤其是第一段“If you’re a runner who secretly hates running, here’s some good news: settling into a leisurely jog rather than an all-out run may actually be better for your health in the long term. (如果你是一个讨厌跑步的跑步者，这里有一些好消息：从长远来看，慢慢地慢跑比全力跑可能对你的健康更好。)”，文章介绍了一个关于慢跑者和不慢跑者，以及慢跑时的运动量大小不同的试验，研究表明，适量的慢跑才是对身体最好的。故A项“Why Jogging May Be Better For Your Health Than Running? (为什么慢跑比跑步更有益于健康？)”适合作文章的标题。故选A项。
67．A 68．D 69．C 70．B 71．C

【导语】这是一篇应用文。文章主要介绍了四个网上课程的相关信息。
67．推理判断题。根据第一个课程The Path to Contentment的介绍中“Ancient Chinese philosophy and how to apply it to live a better life(中国古代哲学以及如何运用它来过上更好的生活)”可知，该课程是有关中国古代哲学，所以如果对哲学感兴趣可以选择The Path to Contentment。故选A。
68．细节理解题。根据文章内容可知，第二个和第三个课程的时长相同，都是6周，根据第二个课程Start Talking with 1. 4 Billion People的介绍“Mandarin (普通话) vocabulary used in daily life(日常生活中使用的普通话词汇)”及第三个课程Mandarin Chinese for Business的介绍中“Mandarin phrases and expressions for business negotiation(用于商务谈判的普通话短语和表达)”可知，这两个课程的共同点是它们都是关于语言学习的。故选D。
69．细节理解题。根据第三个课程Mandarin Chinese for Business的介绍中“Mandarin phrases and expressions for business negotiation(用于商务的普通话短语和表达)”可知，该课程提供用于商务场合的普通话课程，根据该课程中“Institution: Massachusetts Institute of Technology(机构：麻省理工学院)”可知，该课程是由麻省理工学院提供的。故选C。
70．细节理解题。根据最后一个课程Hong Kong Cinema Through a Global Lens的介绍“Critical and historical thinking skills through analyzing the interconnected relationship between the global scene and local lives in Hong Kong films(通过分析香港电影中全球场景与本地生活之间的相互联系，培养批判性和历史思维能力)”及“Price: Free; add a certificate for CNY342(价格：免费；加一个证书需342人民币)”可知，获得一个有关电影课程的证书需342人民币。故选B。
71．细节理解题。根据四个课程末尾“Language: English(语言：英语)”可知，这四个课程都是用英语教授。故选C。
72．B 73．D 74．C 75．C 76．A

【导语】本文是一篇应用文。文章主要给新生在新学校结交新朋友提供几点建议，例如通过寻找有相同兴趣的人，或是参加课外俱乐部和活动。
72．推理理解题。根据文章第一段“If you’re new to a school or you are shy or tend to not get out of your comfort zone, making new friends at school might seem like a challenge.(如果你刚到一所学校，或者你很害羞，或者你倾向于不走出自己的舒适区，在学校结交新朋友似乎是一个挑战。)”可知，文章主要面向的读者是刚步入新学校的新生。故选B项。
73．细节理解题。根据文章第三段“If you’re a passionate reader, join a book club, go to public readings, or start a conversation with someone who carries novels around with their textbooks.(如果你热爱读书，那就加入读书俱乐部，参加公共读书会，或者和那些带着小说来学校的同学交流。)”可知，本题题干中“If you are fond of reading”与原文“If you’re a passionate reader”是同义句，表示喜欢读书的人可以去找和自己有相同兴趣的人交谈。故选D项。
74．细节理解题。根据文章第四段“Avoid spending time with people who talk bad about others or put them down. Instead, look for people who invite others to sit with them at lunch, who encourage others when they speak up in class, or who are always willing to help when someone needs a hand.(避免和那些说别人坏话或贬低别人的人呆在一起。相反，寻找那些在午餐时邀请别人坐在一起的人，那些在课堂上鼓励别人发言的人，或者那些在别人需要帮助时总是愿意帮助的人。)”可知，一个想要帮助你的人更有可能成为你的好朋友。故选C项。
75．细节理解题。根据文章第五段“However, you and the other person will both be more comfortable after a simple introduction. (然而，经过简单的介绍，你和对方都会感觉更舒服。)”可知，当你遇到不太熟悉的人时，你可以从简单的自我介绍开始。故选C项。
76．细节理解题。根据文章第六段“However, avoid simply asking yes or no questions, since one-word answers don’t necessarily keep a conversation alive.(然而，避免简单地问‘是’或‘否’的问题，因为一个词的回答不一定能让对话保持活力。)”可知，避免问“是”或“否”的问题是为了让交谈继续进行下去。故选A项。
77．D 78．B 79．B 80．A 81．A

【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要讲述Dr. Marco Vietor和Paul Crusius领导的世界上增长最快的助听器公司，尤其讲述助听器公司的产品和服务。
77．词义猜测题。根据第一段“Hearing aids usually bring to mind images of ugly, ineffective devices mainly worn by the elderly.(助听器通常给人的印象是主要由老年人佩戴的丑陋、无效的设备。)”可推测下文“this ill repute”说的是上文的丑陋、无效的设备，指的是助听器在设计和功能上很差，故选D。
78．主旨大意题。根据第二段“Hear. com’s years of research led to the development of two game-changing hearing aids—the Silk and Styletto. These impressive devices pack cutting-edge technology in designs that are practically invisible. They also use a unique way that has been clinically proven to deliver better-than-normal hearing so you can clearly understand speech in any environment. With additional features like Bluetooth and rechargeability, today’s hearing aids are attracting even younger customers skilled in tech.( Hear.com经过多年的研究，开发出了两款改变助听器游戏规则的助听器——Silk和Styletto。这些令人印象深刻的设备以几乎无形的设计融合了尖端技术。他们还使用了一种经临床证明的独特方式，可以提供比正常听力更好的听力，因此您可以在任何环境中清楚地理解语音。如今的助听器有了蓝牙和可充电等额外功能，甚至吸引了精通科技的年轻消费者。)”可知本段主要讲述hear.com公司对助听器的创新，故选B。
79．细节理解题。根据第四段“ “We hear with our brains, not our ears. And it takes at least 30 days for our brain to adjust and relearn how to hear again with new hearing aids,” Dr. Vietor says. “To guarantee your best outcome with hearing aids, we developed the industry’s first 30-day program, Hearing Success Program, so customers have that extra level of care and knowledge to succeed.” (“我们用大脑听，而不是耳朵。我们的大脑需要至少30天的时间来调整和重新学习如何使用新的助听器再次听到声音，”维特博士说。“为了保证您使用助听器的最佳效果，我们开发了行业内第一个30天计划——听力成功计划，这样客户就有了额外的护理和知识来获得成功。” ) ”可知我们的大脑需要至少30天的时间来调整和重新学习如何使用新的助听器再次听到声音，所以听力成功计划就是帮助客户适应新的助听器，故选B。
80．推理判断题。根据最后一段“ “We’re investing heavily in shaping our company culture,” Crusius says. “Individuals who work at hear.com say they are here to do more than a job. They’re helping change lives all around the world.” (Crusius说：“我们在塑造公司文化方面投入了大量资金。在hear.com工作的人说，他们在这里不仅仅是为了工作。他们正在帮助改变世界各地的生活。”)”可推断hear.com的员工为他们的工作感到自豪，故选A。
81．主旨大意题。通读全文，尤其第一段“Hearing aids usually bring to mind images of ugly, ineffective devices mainly worn by the elderly. But this ill repute is quickly changing, as they’ve recently taken a turn thanks to two innovators, Dr. Marco Vietor and Paul Crusius, who now lead the fastest-growing hearing aid company in the world—hear.com.(助听器通常给人的印象是主要由老年人佩戴的丑陋、无效的设备。但这种坏名声正在迅速改变，因为他们最近有了一个转折，多亏了两位创新者，Dr. Marco Vietor和Paul Crusius，他们现在领导着世界上增长最快的助听器公司。)”可知文章主要讲述的Hear. com公司的创新产品和服务，故选A。
82．A 83．C 84．B 85．D 86．A

【导语】本文是一篇议论文。文章告诉读者为什么丑陋的建筑值得保存。
82．推理判断题。根据第一段中“I think you could say we preservationists (文物保护者) look at buildings through a different angle — an angle that can see the swan in the ugly duck, the story in the simple lines, the book behind the cover. (我想你可以说，我们保护主义者从一个不同的角度看建筑——一个可以看到丑小鸭中的天鹅，简单线条中的故事，封面后面的书的角度)”可知，保护主义者关注的是建筑的价值而不是外观。故选A。
83．细节理解题。根据第二段中“Unfortunately, the brise-soleil was removed in 2011, making the building look like many of the contemporary buildings in town. (不幸的是，2011年，遮阳板被拆除，使得这座建筑看起来像城里的许多当代建筑)”可知，作者拆除艾玛女王大厦的遮阳板是遗憾的事情。故选C。
84．细节理解题。根据第三段中“Yes, it was a tragedy that many failed to appreciate the Victorian buildings and let many get torn down several decades ago, but those losses also tell another important story. It tells the story of the 1950s and 1960s when there was hope for a more equal society with inexpensive housing for the working class. (是的，这是一个悲剧，许多人没有欣赏维多利亚时代的建筑，让许多在几十年前被拆除，但这些损失也讲述了另一个重要的故事。它讲述了20世纪50年代和60年代的故事，当时人们希望建立一个更平等的社会，为工人阶级提供廉价的住房)”可知，旧金山很多维多利亚时代的建筑被拆除，是为了腾出土地为工人阶级建造廉价住房。故选B项。
85．推理判断题。根据第一段“Time and time again, I hear someone ask why anyone would want to keep an “ugly” building or a building that is dirty and clearly in need of work. I think you could say we preservationists (文物保护者) look at buildings through a different angle — an angle that can see the swan in the ugly duck, the story in the simple lines, the book behind the cover. (一次又一次，我听到有人问，为什么有人想要保留一个“丑陋”的建筑，或者一个很脏，显然需要维修的建筑。我想你可以说，我们保护主义者从一个不同的角度看建筑——一个可以看到丑小鸭中的天鹅，简单线条中的故事，封面后面的书的角度)”以及最后一段“Preservation is not just about keeping pretty, well-kept buildings, but about conveying parts of our history — not just the history of huge events, but the story of how everyone used to go to a certain corner market. Our history cannot be told only in buildings that meet someone’s criteria of beauty; sometimes our history is painful, but no less important. (保护不仅仅是保存漂亮、保存完好的建筑，而是要传达我们的部分历史——不仅仅是重大事件的历史，而是每个人过去如何去某个角落市场的故事。我们的历史不能只用符合某些人审美标准的建筑来讲述；我们的历史有时是痛苦的，但同样重要)”结合文章告诉读者为什么丑陋的建筑值得保存。可推知，作者写这篇文章的目的是强调保存丑陋建筑物的重要性。故选D。
86．推理判断题。根据最后一段“Preservation is not just about keeping pretty, well-kept buildings, but about conveying parts of our history — not just the history of huge events, but the story of how everyone used to go to a certain corner market. Our history cannot be told only in buildings that meet someone’s criteria of beauty; sometimes our history is painful, but no less important. (保护不仅仅是保存漂亮、保存完好的建筑，而是要传达我们的部分历史——不仅仅是重大事件的历史，而是每个人过去如何去某个角落市场的故事。我们的历史不能只用符合某些人审美标准的建筑来讲述；我们的历史有时是痛苦的，但同样重要)”以及文章告诉读者为什么丑陋的建筑值得保存。可推知，文章选自文化论文。故选A。
87．A 88．B 89．C 90．D 91．A

【导语】这是一篇应用文。推荐几个加州弗里蒙特市青少年前最佳篮球课程。
87．细节理解题。根据HoopSphere Basketball Academy部分“You are not simply in a class at HoopSphere, but are joining a basketball journey. Confidence, adaptability, communication skills, teamwork, leadership, discipline, and hard work are all main byproducts of what we teach. These qualities all impact our students in everything they will do.( 在HoopSphere你不仅仅是在上一节课，而是在加入一段篮球之旅。自信、适应能力、沟通能力、团队合作、领导力、纪律和勤奋都是我们所教的东西的主要副产品。这些品质都影响着我们的学生做任何事情)”可知，在HoopSphere Basketball Academy，孩子们学到很多篮球技术之外，还可以学到很多其他方面的能力，会促进他们的个人成长，会对孩子今后成长有益。故选A项。
88．细节理解题。根据Mission Hoops Academy部分“We have our own indoor facility and all our coaches have experience at collegiate and professional level. We are an establishment where individuals from all walks of life can work together to become skilled athletes and respectable persons through the disciplined teaching of basketball and life skills.(我们有自己的室内设施，我们所有的教练都有大学和专业水平的经验。在我们这个机构，来自各行各业的人可以共同努力，通过篮球和生活技能的纪律教学，成为熟练的运动员和受人尊敬的人)”尤其“professional level”和“become skilled athletes”可知， Mission Hoops学院有资质训练学员达到专业运动员水平，他们的联系电话是(510) 936 – 1336。故选B项。
89．细节理解题。根据Coach Mickey部分“Our main focus is on the fundamentals and applying these skills in competitive games.(我们主要关注的是基础和在竞技游戏中应用这些基础技能)”可知，使学员掌握和在竞赛中运用基础技能是Coach Mickey的主要教学目标，basic skills 呼应fundamentals。故选C项。
90．细节理解题。根据SSB Basketball Academy部分的最后时间信息“Mon - Sun: 8:00 am - 7:00 pm”可知，该课程在周一至周日的每天早八点至晚七点都可以去上课，其中包括周日下午。故选D项。
91．推理判断题。根据文章标题Best Basketball Classes for the Pre-Teen Years in Fremont, CA中的“Pre-Teen Years”并纵观全文，这几个广告宣传的课程都是招收喜欢篮球的青少年学员。由此推断，对此最不感兴趣的人应该是想自己学篮球技术的成年人。注意题目中“least interested”。故选A项。
92．D 93．A 94．B 95．B 96．C

【导语】本文是说明文。讲述了作者对孩子可能会迷失在“科技的海洋”中，而不是去体验自然世界的担忧，呼吁每个人都应该帮助我们的孩子重新获得探索的自由和快乐。
92．主旨大意题。根据第二段中“Each of us has a place in nature we go sometimes, even if it was torn down. We cannot be the last generation to have that place. At this rate, kids who miss the sense of wonder outdoors will not grow up to be protectors of natural landscapes.(我们每个人在大自然中都有一个地方，我们有时会去，即使它被拆毁了。我们不能成为拥有这个地方的最后一代人。照这样下去，失去户外奇妙感的孩子长大后就不会成为自然景观的保护者)”可知，本段作者暗含的中心观点应该是孩子们被期望成长为大自然的保护者。故选D项。
93．推理判断题。根据第三段中“Without having a nature experience, kids, can turn out just fine, but they are missing out a huge enrichment of their lives. That applies to everything from their physical health and mental health, to stress levels, creativity and cognitive skills.  Experts predict modern kids will have poorer health than their parents — and they say a lack of outside play is surely part of it;   research suggests that kids do better academically in schools with a nature component and that play in nature fosters leadership by the smartest, not by the toughest.(没有大自然的体验，孩子们可以过得很好，但他们错过了丰富他们生活的巨大机会。这适用于他们的身体健康和心理健康，压力水平，创造力和认知技能。专家预测，现代的孩子会比他们的父母健康状况更差，他们说缺乏户外活动肯定是其中的一部分原因。研究表明，在有自然元素的学校里，孩子们在学业上表现得更好，在自然中玩耍可以培养最聪明的人的领导力，而不是最强硬的人)”可推知，没有经历过自然的孩子将会比他们的父母健康状况更差，这适用于他们的身体健康和心理健康。故选A项。
94．词句猜测题。根据第一段中“One of our biggest fears nowadays is that our kids might someday get lost in a “sea of technology” rather than experiencing the natural world. (我们现在最大的恐惧之一是，我们的孩子可能有一天会迷失在“科技的海洋”中，而不是体验自然世界)”和倒数第二段中“Kids are not responsible. They are over-protected and frightened. It is dangerous out there from time to time, but repetitive stress from computers is replacing breaking an arm as a childhood rite of passage.(孩子们不负责任。他们受到过度保护和惊吓。这有时是危险的，但来自电脑的重复压力正在取代折断手臂，成为童年的成人礼)”可知，儿童们沉浸在科技的海洋中，正在失去自然体验，可得出作者认为儿童的折断手臂指的是他们成长过程中的自然经历，故选B项。
95．词句猜测题。根据前文“Everyone, from developers, to schools and outdoor citizens, should help regain for our kids some of the freedom and joy of exploring, taking friendship in fields and woods(每个人，从开发商，到学校和户外市民，都应该帮助我们的孩子重新获得探索的自由和快乐，在田野和树林中建立友谊)”可知，此处讲述了每个人应该帮助孩子回到自然环境，去体会自然的快乐，因为这是有好处的，再根据后文“love, respect and need for landscape”可知，cement应该有利于对景观的热爱、尊重和需求，可推知，cement正面的意思，结合选项，应该和B项Strengthen“加强”意思相近。故选B项。
96．主旨大意题。根据第一段中“One of our biggest fears nowadays is that our kids might someday get lost in a “sea of technology” rather than experiencing the natural world.(我们现在最大的担忧之一是，我们的孩子有一天可能会迷失在“科技的海洋”中，而不是去体验自然世界)”以及后文，主要在讲述，孩子脱离自然后的坏处，可知，本文作者主要是想表现出他对孩子们缺乏自然经验的关心。故选C项。
97．A 98．C 99．B 100．C 101．D

【导语】这是一篇记叙文。我们都知道微软公司的创始人比尔·盖茨是一位非常成功的人，但是很多人不知道盖茨的成功多亏了他的伙伴保罗·艾伦。艾伦为盖茨的成功做出了极大贡献。
97．词义猜测题。根据第四段前两句“It was Allen who persuaded Gates to drop out of college to pursue software development. Plus, he came up with the Microsoft name and suggested focusing on its goal of providing software for small computers, rather than the earliest models that filled entire rooms.(是艾伦说服盖茨从大学辍学，从事软件开发。此外，他提出了微软的名字，并建议将重点放在为小型计算机提供软件的目标上，而不是那些占据整个房间的最早型号)”和最后一段中“We shouldn’t lose sight of the people who help us along the way.(我们不应该忽视一路上帮助我们的人)”可知，是艾伦和盖茨的合作使微软成为可能，故艾伦也对微软品牌的成功有帮助，所以instrumental意为“有帮助的”。故选A。
98．主旨大意题。根据第二段内容，结合本段中“Gates later mentioned the terminal as the object that brought the two together.(盖茨后来提到，终端是将两人联系在一起的对象)”可知，本段主要讲述艾伦和盖茨是如何成为朋友的。故选C。
99．推理判断题。根据第三段中“In the 1970s, Allen was a programmer in Boston, while Gates was a student at Harvard University. Gates quickly changed his focus and sped through the most advanced computer and mathematics courses Harvard offered. In 1975, Gates made a decisive call to a company that had built a personal computer called the Altair 8800. Gates offered to develop software for the system.(20世纪70年代，艾伦是波士顿的一名程序员，而盖茨是哈佛大学的一名学生。盖茨很快就转移了他的注意力，迅速完成了哈佛大学提供的最先进的计算机和数学课程。1975年，盖茨给一家生产个人电脑‘Altair 8800’的公司打了一个电话，该电话具有决定性意义。盖茨表示愿意为该系统开发软件)”可知，盖茨在哈佛大学上学时，非常清楚地知道自己想做什么，对未来有清晰的规划。故选B。
100．推理判断题。根据第四段前两句“It was Allen who persuaded Gates to drop out of college to pursue software development. Plus, he came up with the Microsoft name and suggested focusing on its goal of providing software for small computers, rather than the earliest models that filled entire rooms.(是艾伦说服盖茨从大学辍学，从事软件开发。此外，他提出了微软的名字，并建议将重点放在为小型计算机提供软件的目标上，而不是那些占据整个房间的最早型号)”可知，是艾伦说服盖茨辍学去从事软件开发，此外他提出了微软这一名称，并建议将重心放在为小型电脑而不是占据全部房间的早期机型提供软件上，由此可知艾伦很有远见，结合最后一段中“Allen and Gates’ collaboration made Microsoft possible. We shouldn’t lose sight of the people who help us along the way.(艾伦和盖茨的合作成就了微软。我们不应该忽视一路上帮助过我们的人)”可知，艾伦能够为盖茨提供支持。故选C。
101．推理判断题。根据最后一段“Allen and Gates’ collaboration made Microsoft possible. We shouldn’t lose sight of the people who help us along the way. Finding a business to work with those who support us sincerely and cheerfully is the surest path to accomplishing our goals.(艾伦和盖茨的合作成就了微软。我们不应该忽视一路上帮助过我们的人。找到一家企业，与那些真诚、愉快地支持我们的人合作，是实现我们目标的最可靠途径)”可知，本段说明了“一个好汉三个帮”、“一人不抵二智”的道理。故选D。