高考英语阅读理解专项训练

这是一份高考英语阅读理解专项训练，共43页。试卷主要包含了7 billin peple，D．In 1770，20 millin等内容，欢迎下载使用。

阅读理解
About 230 whales beached themselves on the western part of the Australian island of Tasmania. It is the second such incident in recent days. At least half are alive and animal officials are working to rescue them. They are trying to understand why the whales got stuck.
The whales are stuck on Ocean Beach near Macquarie Harbor in the western part of Tasmania. About two years ago, 470 whales became stuck on sand in the same area. That time, about 100 whales were saved but the rest died.
The whales are pilot whales, which weigh between 1,000 and 2,000 kilograms and measure over 6 meters. Pilot whales are the species that most often get stuck in large numbers. Some scientists believe it is because they travel in large groups and follow a leader.
A team from the Marine Conservation Program was heading to the area to help the whales. The harbor does not have deep water and its entrance is known by locals as Hell’s Gate.
Linton Kringle is a salmon farmer who once helped with the rescue in 2020. He told the Australian Broadcasting Corporation this year’s work would be more difficult. That time, he said that the whales were in the harbor, so people could reach them easily on boats. This time, they are outside of the safe area, on a beach, which means it will be harder to get boats near them. “It’s too shallow (浅的) and too rough. My thoughts would be to try to get them onto a vehicle if we can’t get them swim out,” Kringle added.
Vanessa Pirotta is a wildlife scientist who studies animals like whales and dolphins. She said the fact that the whales have gotten stuck around the same place during the same part of the year, suggesting there might be something environmental here.
1．What puzzles animal officials most?
A．The number of beached whales. B．The cause of whales’ beaching.
C．The times of whales’ beaching. D．The way to rescue beached whales.
2．What can make pilot whales suffer beaching in large numbers?
A．Their group travel habits. B．Their heavy weights.
C．Their poor eyesight. D．Their long bodies.
3．Why does Linton Kringle consider this year’s rescue work to be more difficult?
A．There aren’t so many rescue workers.
B．The entrance is known as Hell’s Gate.
C．Making them swim back to the sea is almost impossible.
D．The whales in danger are too far away to reach by boat.
4．What is the purpose of this text?
A．To introduce pilot whales.
B．To call on people to protect whales.
C．To recommend a suitable rescue method.
D．To tell an incident about whales’ beaching.

In this age of screens, smartphones, virtual assistants and voice-enabled speakers, we constantly receive visual and auditory (听觉的) suggestions of things to do, products to buy, and media to consume. Yet are all these messages created equal? According to a research, the answer is no.
In the spring of 2018, Mariadassou and Bechler, both graduate students of Business, were sitting in a seminar (研讨会), in which they were studying how different types of messages affect decision-making. They learned that people generally perceive someone as more intelligent when they convey spoken information rather than delivering the same message in writing.
As they chatted after class, Mariadassou recalls, “We wondered, ‘What would happen if you apply this to recommendations?’” They believed there is “a general perception that people act on auditory and visual information the same way” and wanted to explore this assumption.
Mariadassou, who is pursuing her PhD in marketing, with Bechler, now a professor at the University of Notre Dame’s Mendoza College of Business, ran a series of studies where the same information was presented to participants in different forms, including computer-generated audio that sounded like a smart speaker.
The researchers were surprised that auditory recommendations for products like beer were more influential than textual ones. “In theory, this shouldn’t produce any difference in behavior,” Mariadassou writes in an email. “Hearing that you should drink the pale beer or reading that you should drink the pale beer is really one and the same. The fact that it leads to psychologically different experiences that are significant enough to lead to a change in behavior is not something you would expect.”
The effect was small but strong enough to demonstrate a “consistent effect of auditory power”, Mariadassou says. She believes the power of auditory information has to do with its ephemeral nature —“it seems like there’s this sort of fundamental need to act on information that’s going away,” she says. Bechler agrees: “When something disappears, it creates a kind of urgency to respond.”
5．Why did Mariadassou and Bechler conduct the studies?
A．To apply what they learned into real life.
B．To find out what people are more intelligent.
C．To explore the reasons behind people’s different behaviors.
D．To test if different types of messages affect recommendations.
6．What does paragraph 5 tell us?
A．The findings of the research.
B．The theory behind the research.
C．The application of the research results.
D．The explanation of the research process.
7．What does the underlined word “ephemeral” in the last paragraph mean?
A．Uncertain. B．Temporary. C．Selective. D．Random.
8．What is a suitable title for the text?
A．Effect of Auditory Power Has Been Long Neglected
B．People Act on Auditory and Visual Information Equally
C．Effective Recommendations Are Better Heard Than Seen
D．Decision-making Has Little to Do With Types of Messages

Enter to Win Scholarship for College
The American Fire Sprinkler Association created the college scholarship program to help with the educational and training pursuits of students just like you. So, if you meet the contest requirements, please enter and good luck!
Applicant Requirements
The High School Senior College Scholarship Contest is open to high school seniors who are citizens legally living in the USA．Home-schooled students may apply as long as the course of study is equal to that of a senior in high school. Relatives of AFSA staff or NATIONAL board members may not enter.
Scholarship Contest Deadline
Scholarship contest entries will be accepted from September 1, 2023 until January 1, 2024.
Entry Details
Scholarship entries are ONLY accepted online through the AFSA scholarship website (www. afsascholarship. org).
Entrants must submit a completed entry form with all required information. If ANY false or misleading information is submitted on the form, the student will be disqualified.
Each entrant is allowed only ONE ENTRY submittal. Any attempt to enter again under a different name, address, etc. will automatically disqualify the entrant.
Prizes
A total of $5,000 is awarded. Five winners will receive a scholarship of $1,000 each. The scholarship is paid directly to the educational institution in the student’s account to be used to cover tuition fees. The scholarship may be used over a period not to exceed four years. AFSA will contact each winner by email and phone within 12 days of contest end-date, using the contact information given by the entrant during the application process.
9．Who is likely to enter the contest?
A．A college senior living in the USA．
B．A close relative of an AFSA employee.
C．A member working in NATIONAL board.
D．A homeschooler learning high school courses.
10．What should you do if you want to enter the contest?
A．Hand in your entry on the website.
B．Sign your name on the entry form.
C．Apply for the scholarship once again.
D．Submit your entry in February 2024.
11．What can we know about the prizes?
A．Each winner will get an award of $ 5000.
B．The winners will be contacted in two weeks.
C．No limit is set to the duration of the scholarship.
D．The scholarship is used for educational expenses.

Why is it difficult to end an embarrassing conversation (尬聊) when both parties are ready to stop? We are now having face-to-face chats with friends instead of talking online. But have you ever been in a conversation that you wish you could run away from? Scientists have proved that you might not be alone.
Recently, a research team surveyed 806 participants about a recent conversation they had with someone close to them. The participants were asked about the actual length and their expected length of the conversation, and how long they thought the other person wanted to talk for, whether they were chatting with friends or family.
About one-third of the conversation length was unwanted, according to the team’s paper published in the journal PNAS. Also, more participants believed that they wanted to end the conversation first. On average, they continued talking for 3. 87 minutes before they sensed that the other speaker wished the same thing. Situations are similar when it comes to strangers. Only about 1.6 percent of the conversations ended when both parties wanted them to.
The paper pointed out that when they talk to strangers, what makes people “mask their desires” may be their politeness. When talking to close friends and family, it may be their kindness as ending the conversation too soon may hurt the other’s feelings.
So what is the best way to end a conversation? Saying you only have a certain amount of time to talk at the start of the chat is a good place to start. “Remember conversations don’t end because people don’t know when the other person wants to go,” Adam Mastroianni who led the study told the Inverse website. You should make your partner feel good about the end of the chat by “clearly communicating that you had a nice time and would like to continue talking next time”. Mastroianni also suggested that the difficulty in ending conversations may be a “coordination (协调) problem”. It’s hard to tell your grandma you want to get off the phone just because you want the conversation to be over, for example. However, in some ways this dilemma may not be a bad thing. People need social connections, and conversation is a good way to make these connections happen.
12．What topic does the recent survey focus on?
A．Chat safety. B．Talk time. C．Conversation partner. D．Dialogue approach.
13．What conclusion can we draw from the research paper?
A．Most people talk longer than expected. B．The participants end conversations first.
C．Two-thirds of the participants are satisfied. D．1.6% of the conversations take place at parties.
14．What do the underlined words “mask their desires” mean in paragraph 4?
A．Express what they long for. B．Ignore their partner’s feelings.
C．Hide the details of the conversation. D．Pretend to prefer to continue the chat.
15．Which of the following is the best way to end a conversation?
A．To say I want to stop for a rest. B．To voice a desire to talk later.
C．To bring someone else into the talk. D．To state we’ve chatted for 10 minutes.

I remember clearly my first pineapple on ice at a corner deli in New York. It was on the north-east corner of Columbus and 57th Street, a store filled with flowers and fresh produce that stayed open all night. In my first flush of enthusiasm for the new city, everything about that deli seemed great. Abundance! Convenience! Pineapple, freshly cut and packaged on ice! A lasting memory.
It has been 15 years since then. Corner delis remain, but under pain of competition from a new generation of delivery alternatives like GoPuff and Getir that promise to deliver any item within 15 minutes, getting up off the sofa to walk half a block for some milk is a long past. One ingredient down for your dishes? No need to turn off your stove and put on your shoes! Instead, for a small fee, order a person to your door bearing a single can of chickpeas. LEGS NO MORE!
The downfall of old services , and the reversal(反转) of the consumption style are affecting the city landscape at all levels. As a multibillion dollar business, hyper- fast delivery is tearing at breakneck speed to make tiny delivery windows. It not only means more bikes on the streets, large areas of real estate(房地产) are being turned over to “dark stores” that you walk past every day but can only buy via an app once you’re home.
The threat to New York’s symbolic delis remains to be seen. Although nearly every business, from diners to bookshops, has closed their doors over the last 10 years, only the New York delis remain largely untouched. Still, the pressure must be intense.
Instant delivery is making us even lazier and more useless as people, of which I am not proud. Last week, when running out of milk, I ordered the delivery of a single coffee from Starbucks. I gave myself a pass because it was coffee. But if these things are quicker and more convenient, they’re also sadder and stripped of the bare minimum of human contact needed to hold neighbourhoods together. And, like so much innovation in technology, they can run counter to(与…背道而驰) the point of the very thing they enable.
16．What’s the author’s first impression of the corner deli?
A．Impressive. B．Comfortable.
C．Disappointing. D．Regretful.
17．What does the second paragraph imply?
A．More milk is available nowadays.
B．Chickpeas are cheaper to purchase.
C．People’s lifestyle has changed a lot.
D．Corner delis still have good business.
18．What message does the author convey in the last paragraph?
A．New technology is putting old things out of use.
B．Innovation in technology is benefiting us greatly.
C．Fast delivery is leaving us socially disconnected.
D．Instant delivery is bringing us more convenience.
19．What is the passage mainly about?
A．A reflection on the new consumption trend.
B．An unforgettable life experience in America.
C．An account of modern fast delivery industry.
D．The pressure new technology brings to delis.

Fifteen years ago, Erin Merryn met Bailey, a kitten who needed a home when she was a college student. He jumped into her arms and refused to let her go. “I was attached immediately and decided that I would take a risk and try hiding the kitten in my college dorm where pets are obviously not allowed,” Erin recalled. A week later she was caught and given 48 hours to remove the cat. After several phone calls, Erin managed to convince her parents to let her keep him.
Six years ago, Erin had Abby, her beautiful daughter. She didn’t know what Bailey would think about the new addition when she brought her home from the hospital. “But it was love at first sight.” Erin said. Bailey stayed by Abby’s side, guarding and showering her with love and purrs. As Abby grew, he became her protective brother, watching over her every step of the way. Abby picked up a book one day and tried to read it with Bailey by her side. He became her perfect audience, and the sweet boy was completely attracted by Abby as she told him stories of wonder.
A video showing Abby reading to Bailey went viral online in 2018. Numerous people followed Erin on social media platforms.
Unfortunately, on December 8, 2018, just months after becoming famous, the 14-year-old cat passed away from kidney failure. A full month after Bailey’s passing, Erin still got cards and gifts from caring individuals. It is this love that Erin hopes Bailey’s fans hold on to. She hopes people will be inspired to treat the world with love.
20．Why was it a “risk” for Erin to keep the cat in her dorm?
A．She knew nothing about keeping cats. B．Her parents did not like animals at all.
C．A kitten could sometimes be dangerous. D．Animals are forbidden in college dorms.
21．What do we know about the cat from paragraph 2?
A．He was made to guard the newborn baby. B．He kept her company in Abby’s childhood.
C．He shared many interesting stories with Abby. D．He could understand what Abby read entirely.
22．How did so many people get to know the cat?
A．In a story book. B．From a reading show.
C．On the Internet. D．Through a filmmaker.
23．Which of the following is the best title for the text?
A．No Ordinary Cat B．A Wonderful World
C．Battle of Win-Win D．Love from Animals

On the day he almost died, Kimbal Musk had food on the brain. The Internet startup talent and restaurateur had just arrived in Jackson Hole from a conference where chef Jamie Oliver had spoken about the benefits of healthy eating. This was something Musk thought about a lot- how he might make a difference to the food industry—but beyond expanding his farm-to-table movement along with his restaurant, Musk hadn’t yet broken the code. Then he went sailing down a snowy slope (坡) and fell over, breaking his neck. The left side of his body was paralyzed.
Musk eventually made a full recovery, but it involved spending two months on his back, which gave him plenty of time to come up with a plan. Since then, he has launched an initiative to put “learning gardens” in public schools across America; attracted Generation Z to the farming profession by changing shipping containers into high-tech, data-driven, year-round farms; and this year, is kicking off a new campaign to create one million at-home gardens.
Aimed at reaching low- income families, the Million Gardens Movement was inspired by the pandemic, as both a desire to feel more connected to nature and food insecurity have been at the forefront of so many people’s lives. “We were getting a lot of inquiries about gardening from people that had never gardened before,” says Musk. “People were looking to garden for a bunch of reasons: to supplement their budget, to improve the nutritional quality of their diets, or just to cure the boredom that came with the lockdown.”
The program offers free garden kits that can be grown indoors or outdoors, and will be distributed through schools that Musk's non-profit, Big Green, has already partnered with. It also offers free courses on how to get the garden growing and fresh seeds and materials for the changing growing seasons. “I grew up in the projects when I was young, in what we now call food deserts,” says EVE, one of the many celebrities who have teamed up with the organization to encourage people to pick up a free garden. “What I love about this is that it's not difficult. We are all able to grow something.”
24．What inspired Musk to be devoted to food industry?
A．An accident. B．Jamie Oliver’s speech.
C．The pandemic. D．The farm-to-table movement.
25．What can we learn about the Million Gardens Movement?
A．It has mainly attracted young generations. B．It has just accomplished its target.
C．It may be stimulated by a lack of food security. D．It increases economic burdens for the poor.
26．Which of the following best describes Musk?
A．Charitable. B．Honest. C．Flexible. D．Strict.
27．Why is EVE taken as an example?
A．To demonstrate the program to be non-profit. B．To share his experience in a food desert.
C．To encourage people to start a free garden. D．To clarify the reason why he loves a garden.

Speaking to The Guardian at the Third International Conference on Human genetic editing, Prof Jennifer Doudna, a 2020 Nobel chemistry prize winner, said, “We’ll definitely be seeing genetic therapies (治疗；疗法) for heart diseases, brain diseases, and eye conditions.” But she warned, “One of the riskiest and most realistic potentials is that trials of gene editing in embryos (胚胎) will probably follow.”
The technology can and will smooth the way for therapies for enhancing healthy humans, to make them faster, smarter, stronger, or more resistant to diseases, though enhancement would be more difficult than mending single faulty genes. According to the experts at the conference, including geneticists, public health researchers and philosophers, a wave of gene editing therapies were expected to reach clinics in the next five years or so. The therapies will correct disease-causing disorders in tissues and organs and become mature as researchers work out how to make multiple edits at once and reach difficult areas such as parts of the brain.
However, Doudna and the other experts also expressed their concern that the next generation of advanced genetic therapies raises serious issues that must be tackled to ensure the technology benefits patients and society. Prof Françoise Baylis, a philosopher at Dalhousie University in Canada, was worried that in addition to the sure sign of genetic enhancement coming, the cost of the new therapies would be too high for much of the global population. Prof Mayana Zatz, at the University of São Paulo, Brazil, said she was against editing genes for improvement but added, “There will always be people ready to pay for it in private clinics and it will be difficult to stop.”
One conclusion almost all experts shared was that while all these potential problems and risks did exist, a future full of promise would definitely be witnessed. After all, it is not technology itself but ways in which people employ it that decide the result.
28．Which is not considered as beneficial by Prof Jennifer Doudna?
A．Gene editing for diseases in heart.
B．Gene editing for diseases in brain.
C．Gene editing for diseases in embryos.
D．Gene editing for diseases in eyes.
29．What can we infer in paragraph 2?
A．Genetic therapies are more difficult than mending.
B．Society will benefit from genetic therapies entirely.
C．Genetic therapies have already reached some clinics.
D．All disorders can’t be corrected by genetic therapies.
30．What did Prof Françoise Baylis and Prof Mayana Zatz agree on?
A．Editing genes for improvement is unavoidable.
B．Editing genes for improvement is promising.
C．The cost of the new therapies would be too high.
D．Editing genes for improvement should carry on.
31．What is the attitude of most experts towards genetic therapies in the text?
A．Objective. B．Negative. C．Supportive. D．Unconcerned.

Both humans and animals possess the ability to cry out for help when endangered or threatened. Plants, as it turns out, can too.
“We found that plants usually emit (发出) sounds when they are under stress and that each plant and each type of stress is associated with a specific identifiable sound,” researchers from Tel Aviv University in Israel wrote in their findings, published in the scientific journal Cell. “While undetectable to the human ear, the sounds emitted by plants can probably be heard by various animals, such as bats, mice, and insects.”
Stressors like dehydration (脱水) and damage to leaves gave rise to the plants’ high-pitched (尖声的) cries, which ranged from 20 to 250 kHz. The bigger the danger, the more frequent a plant’s signals. “Unstressed plants emitted less than one sound per hour, on average,” researcher Lilach Hadany said, “while the stressed plants — both dehydrated and injured — emitted dozens of sounds every hour.”
To catch these sounds, Hadany’s team surrounded tomato and tobacco plants with super-sensitive microphones. They then fed the data into an artificial intelligence program that could tell the difference between the species of plant and the types of sounds produced.
“Our findings suggest that the world around us is full of plant sounds, and that these sounds contain information,” Hadany wrote. She added that to translate that information, we just need the “right tools such as sensors that tell growers when plants need watering.” Doing so, researchers noted, may allow farmers to judge exactly when and where to water crops. Saving water, increasing harvests, and lowering stress for both plant and humankind.
32．What did researchers from Tel Aviv University in Israel find?
A．Creatures tend to cry out for help when in danger.
B．Plants can give off sounds when they are stressed.
C．Plant sounds can be heard by both animals and humans.
D．Plants make the same sound whatever type of stress they have.
33．What does the author want to show in paragraph 3?
A．The influence of stress on plants.
B．The urgency of relieving stress of plants.
C．The possibility of plants emitting sounds.
D．The importance of conducting the research.
34．Why was an artificial intelligence program used in the research?
A．To help get rid of plant stress.
B．To identify the types of stress.
C．To collect sounds emitted by plants.
D．To analyze the collected sounds of plants.
35．What can we learn from Hadany’s words in the last paragraph?
A．The research is of practical value.
B．It’s difficult to understand plant sounds.
C．Further research is needed in the future.
D．It’s as easy as pie for farmers to grow crops.

Tapping, also known as Emotional Freedom Technique, or EFT, is an alternative therapy that’s gaining a lot of interest as a low-cost, non-invasive way to help manage stress and anxiety.
Tapping involves tapping on various points of your body while saying your feelings out loud. It draws on the idea of energy meridian lines (能量经络) from Chinese medicine, suggesting that tapping on these lines can re-balance energy in the body and help manage negative emotions.
While there is limited research about tapping, some studies have shown it can help with anxiety and many people are using the technique to help them manage their mental health. Caroline Fitzgerald from Galway in Ireland is one of them.
Since she started tapping three years ago, Caroline has felt like a different person. “I’ve never felt more supported in terms of my own mental health and my emotional well-being,” she says. Tapping has helped Caroline overcome over 20 years of anxiety and insomnia. “After exhausting so many other paths — CBT (认知行为治疗), counselling, medication, talk therapy and soon, EFT tapping has allowed me to process so many limiting beliefs and memories-it has allowed me to change my thinking,” she says.
“By physically tapping on 14 key easy-to-reach points on the body while talking about how you are feeling signals are sent to the amygdala in the brain,” says Sarah Tobin, EFT practitioner and trainer, and founder of Tapping for Mums, “which can help tell the brain you are safe and turnoff the stress response in the body.”
“Tapping is the hack that tells your brain you are safe, so by tapping in moments of stressor anxiety you are able to calm your nervous system, reduce the cortisol (皮质醇) and adrenaline (肾上腺素) and start to feel safe again,” Sarah says. While it can look slightly unusual, “the act of talking about how we are feeling while we are tapping effectively releases the negative emotion, making us feel lighter and the emotional intensity itself lessens,” says Sarah, who has been tapping since 2014 and now teaches other people how to use the technique.
Some critics of EFT say it can prevent people from seeking more traditional forms of help for physical or mental health problems, but as long as it’s practiced with care and as a complementary practice the risks are very low.
36．What does Paragraph 2 mainly tell us about tapping?
A．Its case study. B．Its origin.
C．Its teaching method. D．Its function，
37．What does the underlined word “amygdala” in Paragraph 5 most probably refer to?
A．The region associated with speech.
B．The area concerned with blood pressure.
C．The organ considered as the centre of emotions.
D．The part governing the fight， flight and stress response.
38．Which word can best describe the author’s attitude to tapping?
A．Skeptical. B．Supportive. C．Conservative. D．In different.
39．What can be the best title for the text?
A．How Do We Use Tapping to Save People?
B．Can Tapping Help with Anxiety?
C．How Does Tapping Cure Illness?
D．Can Tapping Work with Western Medicine?

We are eating more fish than ever these days. At around 20 kilograms per person, global fish consumption is now more than twice what it was in the 1960s. What’s really remarkable, though, is where that fish comes from.
For the first time in human history, most of our aquatic (水产的) food now comes from farming rather than fishing.
People ate around 73 million tonnes of farmed fish — just more than half of the volume of fish that humans consumed — in 2014. That’s out of a total fish supply of 167 million tonnes; the remaining 20 million or so tonnes go turn into things like animal feed and medical products.
To keep eating fish at the current rate, we’re definitely going to need to keep aquaculture (水产养殖) developing. That’s because the volume of fish caught in the wild has leveled off since the 1990s.
Back in 1974, only 10% of marine fish stocks had been over fished. Now, more than three-tenths are. Only a tenth of our oceans’ fish stocks could support heavier fishing than current levels.
But while catchings at sea have suffered, fish-farming has been growing at a fast rate. A lot of that is coming from China, which produces 60% of the world’s farmed fish. In fact, some 35 countries, including China, now produce more farmed than wild-caught fish.
This shift toward aquaculture isn’t just good for ensuring salmon (三文鱼) on your plate; it’s also crucial to ensuring food security and sustainability. By 2050, the world will need to feed an estimated 9.7 billion people. They’ll have to get their protein somewhere. However, raising cattle, pigs, and other land-based animals requires vast sums of grain and water. For example, pound for pound, beef requires 15 times more feed to raise than carp, a freshwater fish farmed all over Asia. That grain — and the water needed to grow it — could be consumed by people instead.
However, aquaculture is not a silver bullet. In some southeast Asian countries, shrimp farming does disastrous damage to marine ecosystems. Despite these problems, however, shrimp continues to be among the most popular seafood worldwide.
40．What is surprising about the fish we eat?
A．The history of fish. B．The farming of fish.
C．The importance of fish. D．The reproduction of fish.
41．What does the author say about China in terms of aquatic food?
A．It places increasing emphasis on fishing.
B．It supplies 60% of the world’s fish products.
C．It boasts of the world’s largest fishing stocks.
D．It raises more fish than caught from the wild.
42．Why does aquaculture have a vital role these days?
A．It is a must for feeding the world’s fast-growing population.
B．It ensures a balanced healthy diet for people the world over.
C．It proves a reliable source of protein for humans and animals.
D．It is essential to maintaining both mental and physical health.
43．Which has the closest meaning to the underlined “a silver bullet” in the last paragraph?
A．A big surprise. B．A minor problem. C．A wise move. D．A wet blanket.

We need your help!Volunteers are the heart of our organization and essential to our work. Each year our volunteers give a collective 10,000+ hours both in-shelter and out-of-shelter. Our staff and volunteers partner together to form a vital team that’s essential to carrying out our mission to promote the health, care, and adoption of these animals. There are many important roles that you can fill to help animals in need. For safety’s sake, all volunteers need to be 18 or older.
Cleaning/Organizing
Calling all those who love to organize! Our Cleaning volunteers are absolutely essential to the daily running of the operation. From helping with laundry and dishes to organizing food, toys, and more you can ensure a clean and nurturing environment and make a positive impact on so many animals.CURRENT OPEN POSITIONS
On alternate weekends
Animal Transport
Calling all those who love to drive! Due to the fact that we have limited in-shelter medical capabilities, we are very dependent on our off-site vet partners for major surgeries, diagnoses and more. There is no minimum number of transports—even an occasional transport is greatly appreciated—we need as many people as possible!CURRENT OPEN POSITIONS
Sat. AM and PM
Dog Care
Our Dog Care volunteers are a critical part of our team. From walks in the woods and playtime in our large back pen to just sitting with a dog or building enrichment, like Kongs and Lickimats, our Dog Care volunteers help enrich the lives of the dogs in our care and make their stay as positive as possible.CURRENT OPEN POSITIONS
No position available at this time.
Cat Care
Our Cat Care volunteers are essential to the daily care and enrichment of the cats and kittens in shelter. From cleaning their spaces and monitoring their well being to socializing a new cat or playing with kittens in our cat rooms, our Cat Care volunteers ensure a healthy and stimulating environment for our cats.CURRENT OPEN POSITIONS
Weekdays AM and/or PM
44．What should you do if you want to become a volunteer?
A．Become a staff member. B．Behave like a grown-up.
C．Care for animals’ welfare. D．Collect many animal shelters.
45．What is expected of an animal transport volunteer?
A．To drive animals home occasionally. B．To walk animals in the shelter woods.
C．To transport animals to the needy partners. D．To get animals to critical medical appointments.
46．Which one will you choose if you are only available on Mondays?
A．Cat Care. B．Animal Transport. C．Dog Care. D．Cleaning/Organizing.

Network-based technologies have become increasingly widespread, and they are now being used by countless individuals, professionals, and businesses worldwide. Despite their advantages, most network-based systems are highly at risk of malicious (恶意的) attacks.
The consequences of a malicious attack on network-based systems can be extremely harmful. For instance, an attack on a power plant network could leave millions of individuals and offices without electricity, while attacks on social media networks can lead to exposure of user information.
To overcome the weaknesses of network-based systems, computer scientists worldwide have been trying to develop advanced intrusion detection systems (IDSs) (入侵检测系统) that could help to identify malicious attacks, increasing a network’s safety. In recent years, machine learning (ML) algorithms (机器学习算法) have been found to be particularly promising for automatically detecting attacks and intrusions on a network’s functioning.
An important step in the development and training of ML-based IDSs is the selection of data features that a model can rely or focus on when making predictions. Ideally, by analyzing large datasets, researchers should be able to identify the most suitable features for solving a given task using ML tools, and this can also be applied to intrusion detection.
Researchers at Canadian University Dubai in the UAE have recently developed a new feature selection method that could enable the development of more effective ML-based IDSs. This method was found to perform remarkably well when compared with other commonly employed feature selection techniques. Using the features they identified as most important for intrusion detection, the researchers created a highly efficient ML-based detection system. This system was found to be capable of distinguishing between DDoS attacks and harmless network signals with 99% accuracy.
In the future, the feature selection method developed by the researchers and their findings could help the development of new, highly effective IDSs. In addition, the system they created using the features they identified could be applied in real-world settings to detect malicious attacks on real networks.
47．What does paragraph 1 focus on about network-based technologies?
A．Their targeted users. B．Their popularity.
C．Their potential risk. D．Their advantages.
48．How can IDSs increase the safety of networks?
A．By tracking malicious attacks.
B．By starting anti-virus programs.
C．By sorting out user information.
D．By recognizing malicious attacks.
49．What is the key to the development of ML-based IDSs?
A．Solving given tasks. B．Selecting reliable data features.
C．Making accurate predictions. D．Analyzing large enough datasets.
50．What’s the purpose of the text?
A．To introduce a new technique for IDSs.
B．To promote network-based technologies.
C．To raise people’s awareness of network safety.
D．To discuss ways to deal with malicious attacks.

Based on our purpose of creating a real connection with the beauty of a destination, we have carefully crafted the following Chengdu tours to explore all the highlights in and around Chengdu. All our private Chengdu tours are flexible and can be customized to suit your budget and interests.
1-Day Dujiangyan Panda Volunteer Program Tour
If you’re looking for close contact with pandas, this 1-day panda volunteer experience will make use of your time to its fullest. It’s a memorable chance to look after a cute and fluffy panda as you clean its enclosure, make its food, and watch it be fed.
3-Day Giant Panda, Giant Buddha, and Ancient Town Tour
Two of the most highly rated attractions according to our previous customers are the Chengdu Research Base of Giant Panda Breeding and Leshan Giant Buddha, both of which you can see on this 3-day smart tour. Furthermore, on this journey, you will discover the real Chengdu by tasting amazing Sichuan food and visiting a traditional ancient town.
5-Day Chengdu, Leshan and Mount. Emei Tour
This tour covers the most popular attractions in Chengdu and nearby cities. You will see the cute pandas, some vibrant scenes that may only happen in Chengdu, and most of all two UNESCO World Heritage Sites - the Giant Buddha cut during the Tang Dynasty, and Mount Emei.
6-Day Sichuan Adventure Tour
Starting from Chengdu, take a 6-day trip to discover incredible western Sichuan, including snowy mountains, forests, grasslands, and Tibetan villages. Be one of the first to journey into beautiful Yala Snow Mountain Scenic Area. There is a large area to the west of Chengdu (western Sichuan) that is a paradise for China’s adventurers and photographers.
51．What can visitors do in the 3-day tour?
A．Clean pandas’ enclosure.
B．Enjoy Sichuan Opera.
C．Have a bite of Sichuan food.
D．Hike on the snowy mountain.
52．Which tour will you choose if an adventurous experience is a must?
A．6-Day Sichuan Adventure Tour.
B．5-Day Chengdu, Leshan and Mount. Emei Tour.
C．1- Day Dujiangyan Panda Volunteer Program Tour.
D．3-Day Giant Panda, Giant Buddha, and Ancient Town Tour.
53．What do the tours have in common?
A．Tibetan culture.
B．Personalized travel service.
C．A close look at pandas.
D．A visit to an ancient town.

Tokyo has a great range of cafes, but many don’t offer free wireless Internet access or power outlets (电源插座). So, for the benefit of those looking for free Wi-Fi, here are our top spots in the Japanese capital.
Coffee Valley
Coffee Valley is a small coffee shop. While the first floor has limited seating, there are outlets for each seat. If you don’t need to charge, the second floor is much more spacious with an area that can accommodate groups of up to four people. They also have a good selection of snacks to accompany your coffee.
Date: Open daily.
Time: 8 A．M.—8 P.M. (From 9 A．M. on weekends).
Location: A five-minute walk from the east exit of Ikebukuro Station.
10° Cafe
10° Cafe is the perfect place for early birds. For some peace and quiet, work on the second floor. At 10° Cafe, each seat has power outlets while their counter seats offer a great view of the surrounding neighborhood. Their menu prices before 11 A．M. offer discounted breakfast.
Date: Daily (Closed every third Sunday of the month).
Time: 7:30 A．M.—9 P.M.
Location: A five-minute walk from Takadanobaba Station.
Good Sound Coffee
Come for the coffee, and stay for their music selection. Good Sound Coffee is a friendly neighborhood cafe close to Nakameguro Station. There are indoor and outdoor seats and plenty of outlets. It might get crowded on the weekends, and the cafe offers discounts on food items.
Date: Daily
Time: 8 A．M.—11P.M.
Location: A three-minute walk from the east exit of Nakameguro Station.
Valley Park Stand
Valley Park Stand opens from early in the morning to late in the evening. There are public tables with power outlets. It’s spacious with lots of natural light a few steps away from the Miyashita Park. There is a decently sized menu with tea, coffee and various sandwiches and bites.
Date: Daily.
Time: 8 A．M.—10 P.M.
Location: A few minutes’ walk from Miyashita Park.
54．What is the special part of 10° Cafe?
A．It opens to the late night. B．It has one day off each month.
C．It offers different delicious snacks. D．It’s not far from the Ikebukuro Station.
55．Which cafe is friendly to music lovers?
A．10°Cafe. B．Coffee Valley.
C．Good Sound Coffee. D．Valley Park Stand.
56．What do 10° Cafe and Good Sound Coffee have in common?
A．Customers can enjoy various snacks.
B．Customers can still drink coffee at 10 P.M. in the cafes.
C．Customers can get easy access to Nakameguro Station.
D．Customers can get food at a cheaper price during a certain period.

Jonathan the tortoise, the world’s oldest land animal, turned 190 over the weekend on the island of St. Helena, where he enjoyed a “cake” of leafy greens, seasonal fruits and vegetables, including carrots carved into the number “190”.
Jonathan was brought to St. Helena from the Seychelles in 1882 as a gift. According to Guinness World Records, Jonathan surpassed the previous record holder, Tu’i Malila, who lived in the 1770s until 1965 and could be even older. He arrived in St. Helena as a fully mature tortoise, meaning he was at least 50 in 1882.
“The vet is still feeding him by hand once a week to boost his calories, vitamins, minerals and trace elements, as he is blind and has no sense of smell. His hearing, however, is excellent and he enjoys the company of humans, and responds well to his vet Joe Hollins’ voice as he associates him with a feast.” Guinness World Records said.
“The tortoise enjoys the sun but on very hot days takes to the shade. On mild days, he will sunbathe his long neck and legs stretched fully out of his shell to absorb heat and transfer it to his core,” says Hollins. When it’s cold, Jonathan has been known to “dig himself into leaf mold or grass cuttings and remain there all day.”
In most cases, the lifespan of a tortoise or turtle depends on the species and level of care they receive. Generally, they live much longer in captivity (圈养) than in the wild, because in the wild, they must find their own food in addition to avoiding meeting predators while not getting medical treatment. Larger turtle and tortoise species also tend to live longer than smaller ones. Click here for more information about animal record holders.
57．In which year might Jonathan be born?
A．In 1882. B．In1832.
C．In 1965. D．In 1770.
58．Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the text?
A．Jonathan had a birthday cake made of fruits, vegetables, and meat.
B．Jonathan was born and raised on the island of St. Helena.
C．Jonathan is a very old but healthy tortoise with full senses.
D．Jonathan is the Guinness World holder of the oldest land animal.
59．Which of the following is not a reason why a tortoise in the wild has a relatively shorter lifespan?
A．Species differences. B．Food shortage.
C．Lack of medical treatment. D．Animal enemies.
60．Where can readers probably find the article?
A．In a biology textbook. B．On a news website.
C．In a science fiction. D．In a travel brochure.

The domestic film market hard-hit from the pandemic for almost three years is handing in an impressive report card. Here are some top films at the box office in 2022.
The Battle at Lake ChangjinⅡ
Release date: Feb l
Box office: $607.20 million
Retelling a lesser-known yet extremely brutal mission that almost changed history during the War to Resist US Aggression and Aid Korea(1950—1953), the sequel acted by Wujing, Yiyangqianxi and soon recounts how Chinese People’s Volunteer Soldiers sacrificed to destroy the bridge near the Funchilin Pass to cut US force’s withdrawal to the 38th Parallel.
Moon Man
Release date: July 29
Box office: $463.28 million
Dugu Yue, a spacecraft maintenance man, is unintentionally left on the moon after the evacuation of the crew of Lunar Shield. Witnessing the catastrophic hit from the moon, Dugu believes the Earth is completely destroyed and he’s the last human in the universe. However, what he doesn’t know is that the surviving people are all watching his every move from the Earth.
Too Cool To Kill
Release date: Feb l
Box office: $392.66 million
Wei Cheng gong, a nameless extra actor, believes it’s finally his turn to shine when he was “given the opportunity to play the role” of the male protagonist (主角), Carl the killer. Little does he know that he has become a killer in real life accidentally. What will he encounter in the course of his “performance”?
Lighting Up The Stars
Release date: June 24
Box office: $255.30 million
Funeral home worker Mo Sanmei meets orphan Wu Xiaowen at a funeral shortly after his release from prison. The appearance of Xiaowen unexpectedly changes Mo Sanmei’s attitude toward his career and life.
61．Which film seems to be a science fiction?
A．Too Cool to Kill. B．Lighting Up The Stars.
C．The Balt leat Lake Chang jinⅡ. D．Moon Man.
62．If a student was free from Jan 20 to Mar 1, which films could he probably choose?
A．Too Cool To Kill &.The Battle at Lake ChangjinⅡ.
B．Moon Man &.Lighting Up The Stars.
C．Lighting Up The Stars &.Too Cool To Kill.
D．The Battle at Lake ChangjinⅡ&.MoonMan.
63．What do these films have in common?
A．They maybe all related to a certain mission.
B．Their themes are all about romantic love.
C．They are all box office successes.
D．All of them are tragedies.

In English it’s common to say, “I know this town like the back of my hand!” While we may know our towns really well, how well do we actually know our hands? Maybe not quite as well as we think, said a scientific study.
Matthew Longo and his team from University College London studied the left hands of 100 people. With their hands placed palms (手掌) down under a board, Longo’s team gave the instruction to point to their knuckles (指关节) and fingertips with a marker. How did they do? Not that well.
“People think their hand is wider than it actually is,” said Longo. He said they also seemed to think their fingers were shorter than their true lengths. People were most accurate when finding their thumbs, but became less accurate with each finger, up to their pinkies.
“It is connected to our sense of position,” explained Longo. Humans know where different parts of our bodies are, even if we can’t see them. “It tells us whether a joint (关节) is straight or not,” said Longo. “We also need to know the distances between our joints,” he went on. Our brains know the sizes and shapes of our bodies from the maps they make for themselves. “This experiment tried to find those maps,” he said.
Maybe maps don’t need to be perfect. But why aren’t our brains more accurate? Longo said our brains “see” areas based on our sense of touch, with the stronger the sense of touch in a specific body part, the bigger that body part seems. An example is our lips. As they have more nerves than our noses, our brain’s map shows our lips are bigger. The same thing can happen with body parts that have a lot of nerves. If you’ve ever had something stuck in your teeth, it probably felt huge! That’s because our tongues also have lots of nerves.
If you want to have some fun, try this test with your classmates. Get some boards and some markers and have them mark the spots where they think their knuckles and fingertips are. Compare their hands to the marker spots and see how well they have performed.
64．The underlined sentence “I know this town like the back of my hand!” in Paragraph 1 is used to _____.
A．tell the readers how well the author knows his town
B．introduce the topic of the passage
C．make the readers know more about their hands
D．show the readers a map of one’s body
65．Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A．People know their hands much better than the researchers think.
B．One’s lips are much bigger than one’s nose.
C．Our sense of touch helps us to know about our body parts.
D．The experiment by Matthew Longo proved useless.
66．The underlined word thumbs in Paragraph 3 probably is _____.
A．a part of one’s hand B．the name of one of the researchers
C．a tool for the experiment D．a way to finish the research
67．What can be a suitable title for the passage?
A．How to know about our hands
B．Our Brain’s Magic “Map”
C．A Study by Matthew Longo
D．Our Hands and Our Town

Forty-three years seems like a long time to remember the name of a mere acquaintance (认识的人). I have forgotten the name of the old lady to whom I delivered newspapers but I can’t forget the lesson she taught me in forgiveness .
On a winter afternoon, a friend and I were throwing stones onto the roof of the old lady’s house . I found myself a perfectly smooth rock and threw it out. The stone was too smooth, however, so it slipped from my hand as I let it go and headed straight not for the roof but for a small window of the house.
At the sound of broken glass, we knew we were in trouble. We turned and ran away fast. I was too scared about getting caught that first night by the old lady with the broken window. However, a few days later, when I was sure that I hadn’t been discovered, I started to feel guilty for her misfortune.
She still greeted me with a smile each day when I gave her the paper, but I was no longer able to act comfortable in her presence. I made up my mind that I would save my paper delivery money, and in three weeks I had the seven dollars that I thought would cover the cost of her window.
I put the money in an envelope with a note explaining that I was sorry for breaking her window and hoped that the seven dollars would cover the cost for repairing it. I waited until dark, and put the letter I didn’t sign in her letter box.
The next day, I handed the old lady her paper and was able to return the warm smile that I was receiving from her.
She thanked me for the paper and gave me a bag of cookies she had made herself. I thanked her and ate the cookies happily.
After several cookies, I felt an envelope and pulled it out of the bag. When I opened the envelope, I was stunned. Inside were the seven dollars and a short note that said, “I’m proud of you.”
68．What happened when the author broke the old lady’s window?
A．He was caught red-handed. B．He thought he was not discovered.
C．He left seven dollars right now. D．He reported to the police at once.
69．What is true according to the passage?
A．The author borrowed seven dollars to give to the old lady.
B．The author felt quite all right after the accident .
C．The old lady had already discovered who broke her window.
D．The old lady kept the money given by the boy.
70．We may know from the passage that the old lady was_____.
A．critical B．suspicious C．generous D．gentle
71．The author wrote the passage to_____.
A．tell the readers the life story of a nice old lady
B．tell the readers a lesson he remembered for 43 years
C．talk about his paper-delivery adventure
D．talk about a young boy’s interesting story

Discover-It-Yourself(DIY) Visits are self-guided field trips to the Bay Area Discovery Museum for students. DIY Visits are a great option for preschools and early primary classrooms looking for a shared educational experience. DIY Visits provide timed exit at a lower price for groups of 10-80 children plus chaperones (在场监护人). This option provides up to 2.5 hours at the museum and visitors can explore at a speed that is comfortable for them.
Group Visits
Not a school but visiting the museum with more than 10 kids? Make a group reservation(预定) and save!
Reservations must be made in advance to receive the lower price. We have the right to turn away groups who do not have reservations in order to maintain a proper number for safety reasons. Museum member cards, passes, or other special tickets are not effective payment for group visits.
Details
Open Time: Wednesday-Friday
Timing: 2.5-hour periods starting at 9:15 am, 9:45 am or 10 pm
Grade Levels: Preschool-3rd grade
Group Size: 10-80 students; 1 adult required for every 5 students
Price：$9.95 per person
Preferred Vehicle Provider
Book a bus for your museum visit with Michael’ Transportation Services at 707 643 2099
72．Who are DIY Visits mainly intended for?
A．Guides. B．Students. C．Parents. D．Teachers.
73．How many adults are required for a group of 80 students?
A．10. B．12. C．16. D．20.
74．Where is the text probably from?
A．A guidebook. B．A news report.
C．A storybook. D．A book review.



















参考答案：
1．B 2．A 3．C 4．D

【导语】本文是一篇新闻报道。主要报道的是大约220头领航鲸在澳大利亚的Tasmania岛搁浅，人们正在努力进行救援，同时还分析了搁浅的原因和救援的困难。
1．细节理解题。根据首段中的“At least half are alive and animal officials are working to rescue them. They are trying to understand why the whales got stuck.(至少有一半还活着，动物保护官员正在努力营救它们。他们试图了解鲸鱼被困的原因。)”可知，官员们迷惑的是鲸鱼搁浅的原因。故选B项。
2．细节理解题。根据第三段中的“Pilot whales are the species that most often get stuck in large numbers. Some scientists believe it is because they travel in large groups and follow a leader.(领航鲸是最常被大量困住的物种。一些科学家认为，这是因为它们成群结队地旅行，并跟随一个领导者。)”可知，领航鲸是经常被成群困住的动物，科学家认为可能是群体跟着首领一起搁浅的。故选A项。
3．推理判断题。根据倒数第二段中的“This time, they are outside of the safe area, on a beach, which means it will be harder to get boats near them. “It’s too shallow (浅的) and too rough. My thoughts would be to try to get them onto a vehicle if we can’t get them swim out,” Kringle added.(这一次，他们在安全区域之外，在海滩上，这意味着船只很难靠近他们。“太浅太困难了。我的想法是，如果我们不能让它们游出来，就试着把它们弄上一辆车。”)”可知，这次搁浅的地方在安全区域之外，船无法靠近，如果让鲸鱼游出去不行，只能把鲸鱼弄到车上，由此可推断，今年救援工作很难是让鲸鱼游回去几乎很难。故选C项。
4．推理判断题。根据首段中的“About 230 whales beached themselves on the western part of the Australian island of Tasmania.(大约230头鲸鱼在澳大利亚塔斯马尼亚岛西部搁浅。)”以及下文对搁浅的领航鲸进行救援遇到的困难的介绍可知，本文的目的是介绍一次鲸鱼搁浅的事件。故选D项。
5．D 6．A 7．B 8．C

【导语】这是一篇说明文。文章介绍了一项研究，研究表明提供推荐时，听觉信息比视觉信息更有影响力。
5．推理判断题。根据第三段中“What would happen if you apply this to recommendations? (如果你把这应用到提供推荐中会发生什么？)”和“They believed there  is “a general perception that people act on auditory and visual information the same way” and wanted to explore this assumption.(他们相信“人们对听觉和视觉信息的反应方式是相同的”，并希望探索这一假设)”可推知，Mariadassou和Bechler的研究目的是测试不同类型的信息是否会影响提供推荐。故选D项。
6．主旨大意题。根据第五段中“The researchers were surprised that auditory recommendations for products like beer were more influential than textual ones. (研究人员感到惊讶的是，对啤酒等产品的听觉推荐比文本推荐更有影响力)”可知，本段告诉我们研究的结果。故选A项。
7．词句猜测题。根据划线词下文“it seems like there’s this sort of fundamental need to act on information that’s going away.(似乎有一种对即将消失的信息采取行动的基本需求)”可知，信息即将消失，持续的时间很短。由此推知，划线部分“She believes the power of auditory information has to do with its ephemeral nature(她认为听觉信息的力量与其ephemeral本性有关)”其中划线词汇应为“短暂的”的意思。故选B项。
8．主旨大意题。通读全文，根据第一段中“Yet are all these messages created equal? According to a research, the answer is no. (然而，所有这些信息都是平等的吗？根据一项研究，答案是否定的)”以及第五段中“The researchers were surprised that auditory recommendations for products like beer were more influential than textual ones. (研究人员惊讶地发现，对啤酒等产品的听觉推荐比文字推荐更有影响力)”可知，本文介绍一项研究，研究表明提供推荐时，听觉信息比视觉信息更有影响力。由此可知，选项C“有效的推荐听起来比看起来更好”适合作本文标题。故选C项。
9．D 10．A 11．D

【导语】本文为一篇应用文。文章主要介绍了奖学金竞赛的一些相关规则。
9．细节理解题。根据文章Applicant Requirements部分“Home-schooled students may apply as long as the course of study is equal to that of a senior in high school.(在家学习的学生可以申请，只要其所学的课程与高中学校学习的课程是一致的就行)”可知，一个学习高中课程的自主学习者可以参加奖学金的评比，故选D。
10．细节理解题。根据Entry Details部分“Scholarship entries are ONLY accepted online through the AFSA scholarship website (www. afsascholarship. org). Entrants must submit a completed entry form with all required information. Each entrant is allowed only ONE ENTRY submittal. (奖学金报名仅可通过奖学金网站AFSA。参赛者必须提交一份完整的参赛表格及所有必需的信息。每个参赛者只能提交一份参赛作品)”可知，如果你想要参加竞赛，你需要在网上提交参赛作品，故选A。
11．细节理解题。根据文章Prizes部分“The scholarship is paid directly to the educational institution in the student’s account to be used to cover tuition fees.(奖学金直接支付到学生账户的教育机构中，以支付学费使用)”可知，奖学金是用于教育花销，故选D。
12．B 13．A 14．D 15．B

【导语】这是一篇说明文。文章主要说明了研究发现大多数人说的话比预期的要长，导致了尬聊问题，分析了这一情况背后的原因以及给出了结束谈话的最好方式。
12．细节理解题。根据第二段“The participants were asked about the actual length and their expected length of the conversation, and how long they thought the other person wanted to talk for, whether they were chatting with friends or family. (参与者被问及谈话的实际长度和预期长度，以及他们认为对方想要谈多久，他们是在和朋友还是家人聊天)”可知，最近的调查关注的主题是谈话时间。故选B。
13．细节理解题。根据第三段“About one-third of the conversation length was unwanted, according to the team’s paper published in the journal PNAS. Also, more participants believed that they wanted to end the conversation first. On average, they continued talking for 3. 87 minutes before they sensed that the other speaker wished the same thing. Situations are similar when it comes to strangers. Only about 1.6 percent of the conversations ended when both parties wanted them to. (根据该团队发表在《美国科学院院刊》上的论文，大约三分之一的谈话时间是不必要的。此外，更多的参与者认为他们想先结束谈话。他们平均讲了3个小时。87分钟前，他们感觉到另一个说话者也有同样的愿望。遇到陌生人的情况也类似。只有1.6%的谈话在双方都希望结束时结束)”可知，从这篇研究论文中我们可以得出结论：大多数人说的话比预期的要长。故选A。
14．词句猜测题。根据划线词后文“When talking to close friends and family, it may be their kindness as ending the conversation too soon may hurt the other’s feelings.”可知，当与亲密的朋友和家人交谈时，这可能是他们的善意，因为过早结束谈话可能会伤害对方的感情，所以当人们与陌生人交谈时，他们假装想继续聊天，以免伤害对方的感情。故划线词意思是“假装想继续聊天”。故选D。
15．细节理解题。根据最后一段“You should make your partner feel good about the end of the chat by “clearly communicating that you had a nice time and would like to continue talking next time”. (你应该让你的伴侣在聊天结束时感觉良好，“清楚地表达你过得很愉快，希望下次继续聊天”)”可知，表示希望以后再聊是结束谈话的最好方式。故选B。
16．A 17．C 18．C 19．A

【导语】本文为一篇说明文。文章主要讲述了新的服务方式——快递配送给人们带来生活便利的同时，正影响着城市的各个方面，让人们变得懒惰，失去了彼此之间的接触等问题的出现。
16．细节理解题。根据第一段“I remember clearly my first pineapple on ice at a corner deli in New York. (我清楚地记得我在纽约的一个转角熟食店的第一个冰菠萝。)”和“A lasting memory.(一段永久的回忆。)”可知，作者对于转角熟食店的第一印象是深刻的，无法忘怀的，故选A。
17．推理判断题。根据文章第二段“It has been 15 years since then. Corner delis remain, but under pain of competition from a new generation of delivery alternatives like GoPuff and Getir that promise to deliver any item within 15 minutes, getting up off the sofa to walk half a block for some milk is a long past.(从那以后已经15年了。街角的熟食店仍然存在，但在GoPuff 和Getir等承诺在15分钟内送达任何商品的新一代快递代替品的竞争中，从沙发上起来走半个街区买牛奶已经成为了过去。)”可知，作者在第二段中想要表达的是，在新一代的快递服务中，人们的生活方式已经发生了改变，故选C。
18．细节理解题。根据文章最后一段“But if these things are quicker and more convenient, they’re also sadder and stripped of the bare minimum of human contact needed to hold neighbourhoods together.(但是如果这些东西更快，更方便的话，它们也会更悲哀，并剥夺了连接社区团结在一起所需的最起码的人际接触。)”可知，在最后一段，作者认为快递服务让我们变得不再相互社交，相互联系了，故选C。
19．主旨大意题。根据文章第三段“The downfall of old services , and the reversal(反转) of the consumption style are affecting the city landscape at all levels.(旧服务的衰落和消费方式的反转正在影响着城市的各个层面。)”可知，文章主要讲述了新的服务方式——快递配送给人们带来生活便利的同时，正影响着城市的各个方面，让人们变得懒惰，失去了彼此之间的接触等问题的出现，故文章主要是“对新消费趋势的反思”，故选A。
20．D 21．B 22．C 23．A

【导语】这是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲述了Erin Merryn在15年前收养了一只猫，取名Bailey，六年前Erin有了自己的孩子Abby，Bailey也对Abby表现出喜爱之情，他们相处的视频在网络上传播开来。虽然如今Bailey去世了，但是Erin希望人们记住她毛茸茸的“第一个孩子”，因为它象征着同情，激励人们用爱对待世界。
20．细节理解题。根据第一段““I was attached immediately and decided that I would take a risk and try hiding the kitten in my college dorm where pets are obviously not allowed,” Erin recalled.( Erin回忆说：“我立刻就喜欢上了它，决定冒险把小猫藏在我的大学宿舍里，那里显然是不允许养宠物的。”)”可知，Erin把猫养在宿舍里是一种“风险”因为大学宿舍禁止养动物。故选D。
21．细节理解题。根据第二段“As Abby grew, he became her protective brother, watching over her every step of the way.(随着Abby的成长，他成为了保护她的哥哥，守护着她的每一步)”可知，猫陪伴着Abby的童年。故选B。
22．细节理解题。根据倒数第二段“A video showing Abby reading to Bailey went viral online in 2018. Numerous people followed Erin on social media platforms.(2018年，一段Abby给Bailey读书的视频在网上疯传。许多人在社交媒体平台上关注Erin)”可知，人们在网上认识了这只猫。故选C。
23．主旨大意题。根据最后一段“A full month after Bailey’s passing, Erin still got cards and gifts from caring individuals. It is this love that Erin hopes Bailey’s fans hold on to. She wants her furry “first-born” to be remembered as a symbol of compassion that inspires others to treat the world with love.( Bailey去世整整一个月后，Erin仍然收到一些关心她的人寄来的卡片和礼物。Erin希望贝利的粉丝们能保持这种爱。她希望人们记住她毛茸茸的“第一个孩子”，因为它象征着同情，激励人们用爱对待世界)”结合文章主要讲述了Erin Merryn在15年前收养了一只猫，一家人与猫相处融洽，他们相处的视频在网络上传播开来，获得人们的喜爱。虽然如今Bailey去世了，但是Erin希望人们记住她毛茸茸的“第一个孩子”，因为它象征着同情，激励人们用爱对待世界。因此推断A选项“不普通的猫”最符合文章标题。故选A。
24．B 25．C 26．A 27．C

【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了Musk在受Jamie Oliver演讲的启发后，创立百万个家庭花园，鼓励和教授人们自己种植自己的食物，来让自己吃的食物更健康。
24．细节理解题。根据第一段的“The Internet startup talent and restaurateur had just arrived in Jackson Hole from a conference where chef Jamie Oliver had spoken about the benefits of healthy eating. This made Musk think a lot—how he might make a difference to the food industry(这位互联网创业天才和餐馆老板刚刚参加完Jackson Hole的一个会议抵达Jackson Hole，会上主厨Jamie Oliver谈到了健康饮食的好处。这让马斯克思考了很多——他如何能对食品行业作出改变)”可知，Musk在参加完Jamie Oliver的演讲之后开始考虑对食品行业作出改变，即受到了这个演讲的启发。故选B。
25．细节理解题。根据第三段的“Aimed at reaching low- income families, the Million Gardens Movement was inspired by the pandemic, as both a desire to feel more connected to nature and food insecurity have been at the forefront of so many people’s lives. (百万花园运动旨在帮助低收入家庭，受到疫情的启发，因为许多人生活的首要问题是希望更多地与自然联系，以及粮食不安全)”可知，Million Gardens Movement可能是由于缺乏粮食安全而引起的。故选C。
26．推理判断题。根据第三段的“Aimed at reaching low-income families(旨在惠及低收入家庭)”可知Musk创立百万花园运动主要针对低收入家庭；由文章最后一段的“The program offers free garden kits that can be grown indoors or outdoors(该计划提供可以在室内或室外种植的免费花园套件)”可知他免费给人们提供种植套件；“It also offers free courses(它还提供免费课程)”可知Musk的计划还给人提供免费课程；综上所述，可推知Musk是富有慈善意识的。故选A。
27．推理判断题。根据最后一段的“ “I grew up in the projects when I was young, in what we now call food deserts,” says EVE, one of the many celebrities who have teamed up with the organization to encourage people to pick up a free garden. “What I love about this is that it's not difficult. We are all able to grow something.”(“我小时候在这些项目中长大，我们现在称之为食物沙漠，”伊芙说，她是许多名人之一，与该组织合作，鼓励人们挑选一个免费的花园。“我喜欢这个的原因是它并不难。我们都能种点东西。”)”推知，最后一段用EVE的例子是为了鼓励人们开始免费的花园。故选C。
28．C 29．D 30．A 31．A

【导语】这是一篇说明文。介绍了胚胎基因编辑以增强基因的技术。
28．细节理解题。根据第一段最后一句“One of the riskiest and most realistic potentials is that trials of gene editing in embryos (胚胎) will probably follow. (最具风险的和最现实的可能性之一是，胚胎基因编辑的试验可能会随之而来。)”可知，随之而来的胚胎基因编辑的试验存在风险，因此推测Jennifer Doudna认为基因编辑并非有益的。故选C项。
29．推理判断题。根据第二段最后一句“The therapies will correct disease-causing disorders in tissues and organs and become mature as researchers work out how to make multiple edits at once and reach difficult areas such as parts of the brain. (这些疗法将纠正组织和器官中的致病性疾病，并随着研究人员研究如何一次进行多次编辑并到达大脑等困难区域而变得成熟。)”可知，这些疗法能纠正组织和器官中的致病性疾病，但并非所以的疾病都能被纠正。故选D项。
30．推理判断题。根据第三段二三句“Prof Françoise Baylis, a philosopher at Dalhousie University in Canada, was worried that in addition to the sure sign of genetic enhancement coming, the cost of the new therapies would be too high for much of the global population. Prof Mayana Zatz, at the University of São Paulo, Brazil, said she was against editing genes for improvement but added, “There will always be people ready to pay for it in private clinics and it will be difficult to stop.” (加拿大达尔豪斯大学的哲学家Françoise Baylis教授担心，除了基因增强的确切迹象即将到来之外，新疗法的成本对全球大部分人口来说太高了。巴西圣保罗大学的Mayana Zatz教授表示，她反对为了改善而编辑基因，但她补充道，“总会有人准备在私人诊所为此买单，这很难停止。”)”可知，这两位教授都在担心编辑基因达到基因增强这件事的发生，即他们都认为这件事情即将到来，不可避免。故选A项。
31．推理判断题。根据最后一段第一句“One conclusion almost all experts shared was that while all these potential problems and risks did exist, a future full of promise would definitely be witnessed. (几乎所有专家都得出了一个结论，即尽管所有这些潜在的问题和风险确实存在，但未来肯定会充满希望。)”可知，对于基因疗法，多数专家既认同存在潜在风险，也能看到未来的希望，即他们对这件事情的态度是客观的。故选A项。
32．B 33．A 34．D 35．A

【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了关于植物会发声的研究。
32．细节理解题。根据第二段中“‘We found that plants usually emit (发出) sounds when they are under stress and that each plant and each type of stress is associated with a specific identifiable sound,’ researchers from Tel Aviv University in Israel wrote in their findings, published in the scientific journal Cell.(以色列特拉维夫大学的研究人员在发表在科学杂志《细胞》上的研究结果中写道：“我们发现，植物在受到压力时通常会发出声音，每种植物和每种类型的压力都与一种特定的可识别声音有关。”)”可知，以色列特拉维夫大学的研究人员发现植物在有压力时会发出声音。故选B项。
33．推理判断题。根据第三段“Stressors like dehydration (脱水) and damage to leaves gave rise to the plants’ high-pitched (尖声的) cries, which ranged from 20 to 250 kHz. The bigger the danger, the more frequent a plant’s signals. ‘Unstressed plants emitted less than one sound per hour, on average,’ researcher Lilach Hadany said, ‘while the stressed plants — both dehydrated and injured — emitted dozens of sounds every hour.’(脱水和叶片受损等压力因素会导致植物发出20至250千赫的高分贝叫声。危险越大，植物发出的信号就越频繁。研究人员Lilach Hadany说：“没有受到压力的植物平均每小时发出不到一个声音，而受到压力的植物——无论是脱水的还是受伤的——每小时发出几十个声音。”)”可推知，作者想在第三段主要想介绍压力对植物的影响。故选A项。
34．细节理解题。根据第四段中“They then fed the data into an artificial intelligence program that could tell the difference between the species of plant and the types of sounds produced.(然后，他们将数据输入一个人工智能程序，该程序可以分辨出植物种类和发出的声音类型之间的差异)”可知，在研究中使用人工智能是为了分析收集到的植物声音。故选D项。
35．推理判断题。根据最后一段中“She added that to translate that information, we just need the ‘right tools such as sensors that tell growers when plants need watering.’ Doing so, researchers noted, may allow farmers to judge exactly when and where to water crops. Saving water, increasing harvests, and lowering stress for both plant and humankind.(她补充说，要翻译这些信息，我们只需要合适的工具，比如传感器，告诉种植者植物何时需要浇水。研究人员指出，这样做可以让农民准确地判断何时何地给作物浇水。节约用水，增加收成，减轻植物和人类的压力。)”可推知，Hadany的话表明该研究具有一定的实用价值。故选A项。
36．B 37．D 38．B 39．B

【导语】这是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了轻敲叩击作为一种疗法对人们缓解压力和焦虑的作用。
36．主旨大意题。根据第二段“Tapping involves tapping on various points of your body while saying your feelings out loud. It draws on the idea of energy meridian lines (能量经络) from Chinese medicine, suggesting that tapping on these lines can re-balance energy in the body and help manage negative emotions.(轻敲包括轻拍身体的各个部位，同时大声说出你的感受。它借鉴了中医的能量经络的概念，表明敲击这些经络可以重新平衡体内的能量，并有助于管理负面情绪)”可知，关于轻敲，第二段主要告诉了我们它的起源。故选B项。
37．词句猜测题。根据划线词下文的定语从句“which can help tell the brain you are safe and turnoff the stress response in the body. (这有助于告诉大脑你是安全的，并关闭身体的压力反应)”可知，amygdala 的作用是告知大脑你是安全的，关闭身体对压力的反应。由此推知，amygdala 是大脑中管理战斗、逃避和压力反应的一个部位。故选D项。
38．推理判断题。根据最后一段“Some critics of EFT say it can prevent people from seeking more traditional forms of help for physical or mental health problems, but as long as it’s practiced with care and as a complementary practice the risks are very low. (EFT的一些批评者说，它可能会阻止人们寻求更传统形式的身体或精神健康问题的帮助，但只要谨慎地进行，并作为一种补充做法，风险就很低)”可知，作者认为轻敲叩击的风险还是比较低的。由此推知，作者的态度是支持的。故选B项。
39．主旨大意题。通读全文，尤其是第一段“Tapping, also known as Emotional Freedom Technique, or EFT, is an alternative therapy that’s gaining a lot of interest as a low-cost, non-invasive way to help manage stress and anxiety. (轻敲，也被称为情绪释放技术，或EFT，是一种替代疗法，作为一种低成本、非侵入性的帮助管理压力和焦虑的方法，它获得了很多兴趣)”可知，本文主要介绍了轻敲叩击作为一种疗法对人们缓解压力和焦虑的作用。由此可知，B项“敲击键盘能帮助缓解焦虑吗？”适合作本文最佳标题。故选B项。
40．B 41．D 42．A 43．C

【导语】这是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了水产养殖鱼类的现状以及其重要性。
40．细节理解题。根据第三段“People ate around 73 million tonnes of farmed fish — just more than half of the volume of fish that humans consumed — in 2014. That’s out of a total fish supply of 167 million tonnes; the remaining 20 million or so tonnes go turn into things like animal feed and medical products.(2014年，人们食用了大约7300万吨养殖鱼类，略高于人类鱼类消费量的一半。这是在1.67亿吨的总鱼类供应中；剩下的2000万吨左右变成了动物饲料和医疗产品)”可知，我们吃的鱼中，养殖鱼令人惊讶。故选B。
41．细节理解题。根据倒数第三段“In fact, some 35 countries, including China, now produce more farmed than wild-caught fish.(事实上，包括中国在内的大约35个国家现在的养殖鱼类产量超过了野生捕捞)”可知，关于中国的水产食品，养殖的鱼比从野外捕捞的鱼多。故选D。
42．细节理解题。根据倒数第二段“By 2050, the world will need to feed an estimated 9.7 billion people. They’ll have to get their protein somewhere. However, raising cattle, pigs, and other land-based animals requires vast sums of grain and water. For example, pound for pound, beef requires 15 times more feed to raise than carp, a freshwater fish farmed all over Asia. That grain — and the water needed to grow it — could be consumed by people instead.(到2050年，世界将需要养活大约97亿人。他们得从别的地方获取蛋白质。然而，饲养牛、猪和其他陆生动物需要大量的粮食和水。例如，一磅一磅的牛肉需要比鲤鱼多15倍的饲料，鲤鱼是亚洲各地养殖的淡水鱼。这些谷物以及种植谷物所需的水可以被人类消耗掉)”可知，水产养殖如今扮演着至关重要的角色因为它是养活世界上快速增长的人口的必需品。故选A。
43．词句猜测题。根据划线词后文“In some southeast Asian countries, shrimp farming does disastrous damage to marine ecosystems.”以及however表示转折，可知，水产养殖并不是明智之举，因为在一些东南亚国家，虾类养殖对海洋生态系统造成了灾难性的破坏。由此可知，划线词组意思是“明智之举”。故选C。
44．C 45．D 46．A

【导语】这是一篇应用文。文章是一则志愿者的招募启事，介绍了需要的志愿者类型和工作内容。
44．细节理解题。根据第一段“Our staff and volunteers partner together to form a vital team that’s essential to carrying out our mission to promote the health, care, and adoption of these animals.(我们的工作人员和志愿者一起合作，组成了一个至关重要的团队，这对于执行我们促进这些动物的健康、护理和收养的使命至关重要)”可知，如果你想成为一名志愿者，你应该关心动物的福利。故选C。
45．细节理解题。根据Animal Transport部分中“Due to the fact that we have limited in-shelter medical capabilities, we are very dependent on our off-site vet partners for major surgeries, diagnoses and more.(由于我们在收容所的医疗能力有限，我们非常依赖我们的非现场兽医合作伙伴进行大手术、诊断等)”可知，对动物运输志愿者的期望是把动物送到紧急的医疗预约。故选D。
46．细节理解题。根据Cat Care部分中“Weekdays AM and/or PM(工作日上午和/或下午)”可知，如果你只有星期一有空，你会选择Cat Care。故选A。
47．C 48．D 49．B 50．A

【导语】这是一篇说明文。介绍了IDSs (入侵检测系统)相关技术和发展。
47．主旨大意题。根据第一段最后一句“Despite their advantages, most network-based systems are highly at risk of malicious (恶意的) attacks. (尽管它们具有优势，但大多数基于网络的系统都很容易受到恶意攻击。)”可知，本段主要想要指出系统都很容易受到恶意攻击，即具有潜在的风险。故选C项。
48．细节理解题。根据第三段第一句“To overcome the weaknesses of network-based systems, computer scientists worldwide have been trying to develop advanced intrusion detection systems (IDSs) (入侵检测系统) that could help to identify malicious attacks, increasing a network’s safety. (为了克服基于网络的系统的弱点，世界各地的计算机科学家一直在努力开发先进的入侵检测系统（IDS），该系统可以帮助识别恶意攻击，提高网络的安全性。)”可知，该系统能够识别恶意攻击，提高安全性。故选D项。
49．细节理解题。根据第四段第一句“An important step in the development and training of ML-based IDSs is the selection of data features that a model can rely or focus on when making predictions. (开发和训练基于ML的IDS的一个重要步骤是选择模型在进行预测时可以依赖或关注的数据特征。)”可知，选择可依赖的数据特征是该系统的重要核心步骤。故选B项。
50．推理判断题。根据第三段第一句“To overcome the weaknesses of network-based systems, computer scientists worldwide have been trying to develop advanced intrusion detection systems (IDSs) (入侵检测系统) that could help to identify malicious attacks, increasing a network’s safety. (为了克服基于网络的系统的弱点，世界各地的计算机科学家一直在努力开发先进的入侵检测系统（IDS），该系统可以帮助识别恶意攻击，提高网络的安全性。)”可知，本文主要为了介绍IDSs (入侵检测系统)。故选A项。
51．C 52．A 53．B

【导语】这是一篇应用文。主要介绍了四个不同的成都之旅路线，探索成都及其周边的所有亮点。
51．细节理解题。根据3-Day Giant Panda, Giant Buddha, and Ancient Town Tour中“Furthermore, on this journey, you will discover the real Chengdu by tasting amazing Sichuan food and visiting a traditional ancient town.”（此外，在这次旅行中，您将品尝美味的四川美食，参观传统古镇，发现真正的成都。）可知，游客在3天的旅游中可以品尝一些四川菜。故选C项。
52．细节理解题。根据6-Day Sichuan Adventure Tour中“There is a large area to the west of Chengdu (western Sichuan) that is a paradise for China’s adventurers and photographers.”（成都(四川西部)西部有一大片地区，是中国冒险家和摄影师的天堂。）可知，如果冒险体验是必须的，你会选择6天四川探险之旅这趟旅行。故选A项。
53．细节理解题。根据第一段中“All our private Chengdu tours are flexible and can be customized to suit your budget and interests.”（我们所有的成都私人旅游都是灵活的，可以根据您的预算和兴趣进行定制。）可知，这些旅行的共同之处是提供个性化旅游服务。故选B项。
54．B 55．C 56．D

【导语】本文是应用文。文章主要介绍日本首都东京的热门咖啡馆。
54．细节理解题。根据10° Cafe部分“Closed every third Sunday of the month (每月第三个星期天休息)”可知，在10度咖啡馆，每个月有一天是休息的。故选B。
55．细节理解题。根据Good Sound Coffee部分“Come for the coffee, and stay for their music selection. (为咖啡而来，为听他们挑选的音乐而留下来)”可知，音乐爱好者会喜欢去好声音咖啡馆。故选C。
56．细节理解题。根据10° Cafe部分“Their menu prices before 11 A.M. offer discounted breakfast. (他们上午11点之前的菜单价格提供折扣早餐)”和Good Sound Coffee部分“It might get crowded on the weekends, and the cafe offers discounts on food items. (周末可能会很拥挤，咖啡馆提供食品折扣)”可知，这两个地方会在特定的时间段提供便宜的食物。故选D。
57．B 58．D 59．A 60．B

【导语】本文为一篇说明文。文章介绍了已经190岁高龄的世界上最长寿的陆生动物乔纳森的情况，并分析了野生乌龟寿命相对较短的原因。
57．细节理解题。根据第一段“Jonathan the tortoise, the world’s oldest land animal, turned 190 over the weekend on the island of St. Helena, where he enjoyed a “cake” of leafy greens, seasonal fruits and vegetables, including carrots carved into the number “190”. (世界上最老的陆生动物——乌龟乔纳森上周末在圣赫勒拿岛度过了190岁生日。在那里，他享用了一个由绿叶蔬菜、时令水果和蔬菜组成的“蛋糕”，其中包括刻着数字“190”的胡萝卜)”，以及第二段最后一句“He arrived in St.Helena as a fully mature tortoise, meaning he was at least 50 in 1882. (他到达圣赫勒拿时已经是一只完全成熟的乌龟，这意味着他在1882年至少有50岁)”可知，Jonathan可能出生于1832年。故选B项。
58．细节理解题。根据根据第一段“Jonathan the tortoise, the world’s oldest land animal, turned 190 over the weekend on the island of St. Helena, where he enjoyed a “cake” of leafy greens, seasonal fruits and vegetables, including carrots carved into the number “190”. (上周末，世界上最长寿的陆生动物乔纳森在圣赫勒拿岛度过了190岁的生日，他在岛上享用了一个由时令水果、绿叶蔬菜和蔬菜组成的‘蛋糕’，其中包括刻着190字样的胡萝卜)”可知，Jonathan是世界上最长寿的陆生动物。故选D项。
59．细节理解题。根据最后一段“In most cases, the lifespan of a tortoise or turtle depends on the species and level of care they receive. Generally, they live much longer in captivity (圈养) than in the wild, because in the wild, they must find their own food in addition to avoiding meeting predators while not getting medical treatment. Larger turtle and tortoise species also tend to live longer than smaller ones. (在大多数情况下，乌龟的寿命取决于它们的种类和受到的照顾水平。一般来说，它们在圈养环境下的寿命比在野外要长得多，因为在野外，它们除了要避免遇到捕食者，还要在得不到治疗的情况下自己寻找食物。体型较大的海龟和陆龟也往往比体型较小的活得更长)”可知，野生乌龟寿命相对较短，是因为有捕食者，还存在食物短缺，以及医疗短缺，故选A项。
60．推理判断题。根据最后一段的最后一句“Click here for more information about animal record holders.(点击这里了解更多关于动物纪录保持者的信息)”可知，本文应该在网站上。故选B项。
61．D 62．A 63．C

【导语】本文是一篇应用文。文章主要介绍了2022年中国票房最高的四部电影。
61．推理判断题。根据Moon Man中的“Witnessing the catastrophic hit from the moon, Dugu believes the Earth is completely destroyed and he’s the last human in the universe. (目睹了来自月球的灾难性撞击，Dugu认为地球已经完全毁灭，他是宇宙中最后一个人类)”可推断，Moon Man是一部科幻电影。故选D。
62．细节理解题。根据The Battle at Lake ChangjinⅡ中的“Release date: Feb l (上映时间：2月1日)”和Too Cool To Kill中的“Release date: Feb l (上映时间：2月1日)”可知，从1月20日到3月1日有时间，可以去看这两部电影。故选A。
63．细节理解题。根据第一段“Here are some top films at the box office in 2022. (以下是2022年票房最高的几部电影)”可知，这些电影的票房都很高。故选C。
64．B 65．C 66．A 67．B

【导语】这是一篇说明文，文章介绍了人们并不像自己以为的那样了解自己手的尺寸，因为大脑“看”身体的区域是基于触觉，所以大脑会扭曲人们对自己身体的认知。
64．推理判断题。文章开头“In English it’s common to say, ‘I know this town like the back of my hand!’(在英语中，我们常说：‘我对这个城市了如指掌！’)”提到一个关于手的谚语，根据本段最后一句“Maybe not quite as well as we think, said a scientific study.(一项科学研究表明，可能没有我们想象的那么好)”以及后文主要讲述的就是我们并不是很了解我们的手可知，画线句是用来引入本文话题。故选B。
65．细节理解题。根据第四段中“Humans know where different parts of our bodies are, even if we can’t see them.(人类知道我们身体的不同部位在哪里，即使我们看不见它们)”和第五段中“Longo said our brains ‘see’ areas based on our sense of touch(Longo说，我们的大脑‘看到’的区域是基于我们的触觉)”可知，我们在看不见的情况下也知道身体部位的位置，这是基于我们的触觉，故我们的触觉帮助我们了解身体部位。故选C。
66．词义猜测题。根据画线词上文“He said they also seemed to think their fingers were shorter than their true lengths.(他说大家似乎认为自己的手指比实际长度短)”及下文“but became less accurate with each finger, up to their pinkies(但越指向小拇指，准确率就越低)”可知，本段是Longo团队关于手指的一些研究结果，故thumbs是指“拇指”，是手的一部分，故选A。
67．主旨大意题。根据全文内容，结合第四段中“Our brains know the sizes and shapes of our bodies from the maps they make for themselves.(我们的大脑根据自己绘制的地图，来了解我们身体的大小和形状)”可知，文章介绍了人们并不像自己以为的那样了解自己手的尺寸，因为大脑根据自己绘制的地图，来了解我们身体的大小和形状，大脑“看”身体的区域是基于触觉，所以大脑会扭曲人们对自己身体的认知。B项“我们大脑的神奇‘地图’”为最佳标题，故选B。
68．B 69．C 70．C 71．B

【导语】这是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲述了作者43年前一次打破了邻居家老太太的窗户，出于害怕，作者逃跑了。之后作者为此感到内疚，于是通过送报纸把窗户的钱补上了，结果第二天作者给老太太送报纸时，老太太送了一袋饼干，里面正装着作者赔偿窗户的钱以及一张纸条，写着“我为你感到骄傲”。
68．细节理解题。根据第三段“However, a few days later, when I was sure that I hadn’t been discovered, I started to feel guilty for her misfortune.(然而，几天后，当我确信我没有被发现时，我开始为她的不幸感到内疚)”以及最后一段“When I opened the envelope, I was stunned. Inside were the seven dollars and a short note that said, “I’m proud of you.”(里面是七美元和一张便条，上面写着：“我为你感到骄傲。”)”可知，当作者打破老太太的窗户时，他以为没有被发现。故选B。
69．细节理解题。根据最后一段“When I opened the envelope, I was stunned. Inside were the seven dollars and a short note that said, “I’m proud of you.”(里面是七美元和一张便条，上面写着：“我为你感到骄傲。”)”可知，C选项“老妇人已经发现是谁打破了她的窗户”正确。故选C。
70．推理判断题。根据倒数第二段“She thanked me for the paper and gave me a bag of cookies she had made herself.(她感谢我的报纸，并给了我一袋她自己做的饼干)”以及最后一段“When I opened the envelope, I was stunned. Inside were the seven dollars and a short note that said, “I’m proud of you.”(里面是七美元和一张便条，上面写着：“我为你感到骄傲。”)”可推知，这位老妇人很慷慨。故选C。
71．推理判断题。根据第一段“Forty-three years seems like a long time to remember the name of a mere acquaintance (认识的人).(要记住一个熟人的名字，43年似乎是很长的一段时间)”结合文章主要讲述了作者43年前一次打破了邻居家老太太的窗户，出于害怕，作者逃跑了。之后作者为此感到内疚，于是通过送报纸把窗户的钱补上了，结果第二天作者给老太太送报纸时，老太太送了一袋饼干，里面正装着作者赔偿窗户的钱以及一张纸条，写着“我为你感到骄傲”。可推知，作者写这篇文章是为了告诉读者一个他铭记了43年的教训。故选B。
72．B 73．C 74．A

【导语】本文是一篇应用文。文章介绍了湾区探索博物馆中自行探索参观的一些信息。
72．细节理解题。根据第一段第一句“Discover-It-Yourself(DIY) Visits are self-guided field trips to the Bay Area Discovery Museum for students.(自行探索参观是针对学生的在湾区探索博物馆的自助实地考察旅行)”可知，自行探索参观是为学生设计的活动。故选B。
73．细节理解题。根据Details下面的“Group Size: 10-80 students; 1 adult required for every 5 students(团体规模：10-80名学生；每5名学生需要1名成年人)”可知，每5名学生需要1名成年人，所以80名学生需要的成年人数量为：80÷5=16名。故选C。
74．文章出处题。通读全文并结合文中的Group Visits和Details可知，本文介绍了湾区探索博物馆中自行探索参观的一些信息。由此推知，本文可能出自一本旅行指南。故选A。