2023年河南省南阳市油田中考二模英语试题

2023年南阳油田中招第二次模拟考试试题

英语

注意：本试卷分试题卷和答题卡两部分。考试时间100分钟，满分120分。考生应首先阅读答题卡上的文字信息，然后在答题卡上作答，在试题卷上作答无效，交卷时只交答题卡。

一、听力理解

第一节

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。

1. What are the two speakers talking about?

A. How to get to Mount Tai.  B. When to go to Mount Tai. C. The place of Mount Tai.

2. What does the girl want to do?

A. To taste tea.   B. To drink coffee.   C. To go to Hangzhou.

3. Where are the speakers?

A. In a bookstore.   B. In a restaurant.   C. In a classroom.

4. What is the relationship between the speakers?

A. Teacher and student.  B. Mother and son.   C. Husband and wife.

5. How long will the graduation ceremony last?

A. For one and a half hours.  B. For two hours.   C. For two and a half hours.

第二节

听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。

6. What is the conversation mainly about?

A. The girl’s job.   B. A graduation ceremony.  C.A foreign country.

7. How will the speakers go to the airport?

A. By bus.    B. By subway.   C. By taxi.

听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。

8. Where will the two speakers meet?

A. At the airport.   B. At the bus stop.   C. At the school gate.

9. What does Jeff think of Della?

A. Clever.    B. Nice.    C. Lovely.

听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12三个小题。

10. Where does Sandra work?

A. In a bus station.   B. In a railway station.   C. In a TV station.

11. Why is Sandra going to Paris?

A. Because she wants to visit her friends.

B. Because she is going to work there.

C. Because she wants to visit her parents.

12. What does the speaker like doing?

A. Traveling.   B. Dancing.   C. Outings.

听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15三个小题。

13. What does Frank do?

A. A doctor.   B. A student.   C. A worker.

14. What kind of film does Frank like best?

A. Action films.   B. Comedy films.   C. Documentary films.

15. When will the speakers see a film together?

A. This evening.   B. Tomorrow afternoon.  C. Tomorrow evening.

第三节

听下面一篇短文。按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。

A        B          C         D        E

16. _______ 17. _______ 18. _______ 19. _______ 20. _______

二.阅读理解。（40分）

A

根据材料内容选择最佳答案。

21. Who visited a traditional Chinese medicine hospital?

A. Mike.   B. Joanna.   C. Bill.   D. Cindy.

22. How long did Joanna stay with her host family in China?

A. Three months.  B. Four months.  C. Five months. D. Six months.

23. Cindy thinks her host sister is ________.

A. a wonderful cook    B. a responsible doctor

C. a warm-hearted teacher   D. a hardworking student

24. It can be inferred that ________ know/knows more about foreign culture than other host families.

A. Mike’s host family    B. Joanna’s host mother

C. Bill’s host parents    D. Cindy’s host sister

25. Where can you probably read this passage?

A. In a book about cooking.   B. In an advertisement.

C. In a newspaper.    D. On a notice.

B

Type in “A cat wants to go to space” and ask the robot to write a bedtime story. Just one second later, you’ll get the story of Max, who was on his way past many difficulties to sing among the stars.

This robot writer is real. It’s called ChatGPT. From writing Shakespeare-style poetry to making music, ChatGPT has amazed the world since its launch out in late 2022 by the US company OpenAI. OpenAI developed it to generate (生成) human-like texts. It can translate languages, talk with people and write songs, poems and even jokes. It’s one of the most powerful AI of its kind, with the complete writing abilities of a real person!

People around the world have tried ChatGPT and posted their results on social media. Some used it to write history reports, some asked it to take notes of presentations, and some even generated advice on how to communicate with people at a party, reported The Atlantic.

The power of ChatGPT lies in its speed and understanding of complicated (复杂的) matters. We may spend hours researching, understanding and writing an article on the theory of evolution (进化论). But ChatGPT can produce a well-written one in seconds. Another good thing about it is that if you ask dark, harmful questions, such as how to make weapons (武器), it will not give you an answer.

ChatGPT comes along at a time when AI is becoming increasingly able to do creative tasks. There is no doubt that ChatGPT is a powerful tool. However, some schools in the US, Australia and France have banned (禁止) the use of ChatGPT. In the US, for example, New York City public schools banned students and teachers from using ChatGPT on the local networks and computers, CNN reported. The move comes out of worries that the tool could make it easier for students to cheat on homework. Some also worry that ChatGPT could be used to spread improper information.

“It does not build critical-thinking (批判性思维) and problem-solving skills,” said Jenna Lyle, the deputy press secretary of the New York City Department of Education. “The materials they create are difficult to tell from those made by humans. This causes many problems, such as the issue of copyright (版权). Since the system is largely trained using words from the Internet, it can also pick up on the Internet’s biases(偏见) and stereotypes (刻板印象) about certain groups. These are all the things that depend on humans to solve.”

26. The cat story was written to ________.

A. show what creative work ChatGPT can do

B. introduce a cat that wants to go to space

C. introduce a series of bedtime books

D. show how robots create scientific research

27. What do we know about ChatGPT?

A. It is still under development.

B. It is the most powerful kind of AI.

C. It can write almost anything humans can write.

D. People cannot tell the difference between ChatGPT and humans.

28. Paragraph 3 is mainly about ________.

A. the disadvantages of ChatGPT   B. the most popular use of ChatGPT

C. what people think about ChatGPT  D. how ChatGPT has helped people so far

29. Compared with human writing, ChatGPT is ________.

A. faster   B. safer  C. more interesting  D. more difficult

30. What’s the main idea of the last paragraph?

A. How people feel about writing in the future.

B. What problems AI writing can cause.

C. People’s wrong ideas about AI writing.

D. Human efforts in developing AI writing.

C

Malaria has been a big problem for humans since ancient times. Usually, people get malaria when infected mosquitoes bite them. Countless people have died from the disease. Luckily, Chinese scientist Tu Youyou found an effective drug called qinghaosu.

In 1969, Tu became the director of a national project to develop a drug for malaria. Her team took a special approach. They studied books about classical Chinese medicine. After reading more than 2,000 old remedies (药方), Tu and her team collected over 600 plants and listed almost 380 possible remedies for malaria.

One remedy, which is 1,600 years old, uses sweet wormwood as a treatment. Tu found it worked and tried to extract (提取) the qinghaosu from it to make a drug. The extraction failed at first, so Tu returned to the classical books again and finally found a way. She used a low-temperature method to extract the qinghaosu and finally succeeded in 1972.

After her team showed that qinghaosu could treat malaria in mice and monkeys, Tu and two of her coworkers decided to test the drug on themselves before trying it on human patients. It turned out that qinghaosu was safe, and all patients in the test got better. Gradually, qinghaosu became the first-line treatment for malaria recommended by WHO, saving millions of lives around the world.

In 2015, when Tu was given the Nobel Prize in physiology or medicine, she refused to take all of the praise. Instead, she praised her coworkers and Chinese traditional medicine. She once said, “Every scientist dreams of doing something that can help the world.”

31.How many remedies had Tu and her team read before they found the way to treat malaria?

A. More than 1,600.  B. over 600.  C. More than 2,000.  D. Almost 380.

32. What usually caused people to get malaria?

A. Dirty water.  B. Wrong medicine.  C. Polluted water.  D. Infected mosquitoes.

33. Where did Tu find a way to solve after the extraction failed at first?

A. From different plants.   B. From foreign remedies.

C. From classical medical books.   D. From tests on animals and humans.

34. In the 4 paragraph, what does the underlined word “it” refer to?

A. Malaria.  B. The drug.  C. The monkey.  D. The mouse.

35. Which of the following best shows the structure of the passage?

A.  B.  C.  D.

D

The Vieira family moved to the United States in 1981. At that time to stop speaking Spanish at home and only communicate in English because they were now living in an English-speaking country.

Now the Vieira children are adults, and they sometimes travel to Spain to visit their family and friends.36.       Unluckily this is common. When people move to new countries, they often leave their own customs and mother language behind. This is a mistake because there are many advantages to knowing more than one language.

One advantage is that you can communicate directly with more people around the world. 37       . Then you' re more independent.

Besides, speaking a second language also allows people to experience other cultures and customs better. Local expressions, vocabulary, and even jokes can have a powerful influence on a person's understanding of another culture..    38   

Finally, having more multi-language speakers improves relationships between countries.39 .       Countries will then have more respect for each other and better understand each other's problems.

    40     In fact, there are no disadvantages. It is very sad that many people don't try to learn another language. It is even worse when people let themselves forget their mother language and become silenced.

根据短文内容，将下面方框内的句子还原到文中空白处，使短文内容完整、通顺。每个选项只能用一次，其中有一个选项是多余的。(5分)

A. You do not have to depend on others to talk for you.

B. The advantages of knowing more than one language are clear.

C. But they cannot communicate with them.

D. So, knowing more than one language increases your knowledge of other cultures.

E. If people from different countries can communicate well, the world-can become close.

三.完形填空。（15分）

It was winter. Everything in Happy Valley was    41    with snow. Kids living nearby were making a snowman in the park. Julia brought her dad’s hat for the snowman. Laura got two shiny little stones for the eyes. Peter found two    42   to be the arms. Robert used a carrot to be the nose. The Smith brothers made two snowballs to    43    the head and body. With the teamwork of all the kids, a cute snowman appeared.

Julia said the snowman should be given a name. The kids couldn’t decide on a good one, for everyone wanted to make the decision. “I must be    44    to give him a name. Without my carrot, the snowman wouldn’t have a nose,” shouted Robert. “Without the sticks I picked, the snowman would have no arms. In that case, how    45    he would look then,” argued Peter. Soon the arguments turned into a big    46    . The kids walked away    47    with what they had brought. The snowman was nothing but a terrible memory.

Days passed, and laughter was    48    heard in the park of Happy Valley. The kids were beginning to get    49    and lonely. The parents began worrying. What could bring the kids together again? Then they met and had a plan. The next day, all the kids got a    50   , telling them there was something special at the park.

They    51     to see what it was, but they didn’t talk to each other on the way because of the    52   . When they arrived, the kids found a note on the snowman which read, “Dear kids, my heart   53    when Happy Valley isn’t what it used to be. Although I’m sad and have no name, I would rather see my happy kids.”

The note melted（融化）the ice in all kids’ hearts. They felt    54    because of what they had done and began to finish the snowman together. Finally, a much cuter snowman    55   there. They all agreed to call him “Mr. Warmheart” though he was made of snow. Happy Valley got cheerful laughter back.

41. A. covered  B. crowded  C. filled   D. provided

42. A. bottles  B. pencils   C. brushes   D. sticks

43. A. form  B. invent   C. move   D. take

44. A. taught  B. allowed   C. treated   D. introduced

45. A. ugly   B. strong   C. tall   D. heavy

46. A. secret  B. meeting   C. fight   D. pleasure

47. A. patiently  B. wisely   C. actively   D. angrily

48. A. always  B. often   C. never   D. sometimes

49. A. relaxed  B. bored   C. excited   D. surprised

50. A. change  B. message  C. reason   D. question

51. A. rushed  B. refused   C. failed   D. forgot

52. A. parent  B. villager   C. brother   D. snowman

53. A. hurts  B. cheers   C. flies   D. opens

54. A. proud  B. warm   C. sorry   D. thankful

55. A. walked  B. stood   C. dropped   D. travelled

四、语篇填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分）

第一节：阅读短文，从方框中选择合适的单词并用其适当形式填空。

Do you walk into the classroom with your head held high? Do you like ___56___ in front of the class? Do you smile and say hi to all your ___57___ actively? If yes, then you’re a very confident (自信的) person. But not everyone feels the same. Low self-confidence is a problem for many people. If someone ___58___ you at school, or you feel that you are left out in school activities, it can influence your confidence levels and cause ___59___ shyness around people. But if you can improve your confidence, you’ll feel ___60___ and better and be able to face new challenges.

Here are several ways that can help. ___61___ of all, you must think bright sides. Instead of paying attention to ___62___ you can’t do, pay attention to what you can! Accept things that you have to do and love the person you are. ___63___, think about what you have already managed to do and be proud ___64___ yourself! Show how special and talented you are. Lastly, ___65___now! Speak clearly, raise your head and you’ll notice the difference in the way you feel and the way people see you.

第二节：阅读短文，根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词。

Kuang Heng was born in a poor family. He liked reading books very much. He needed to work in the daytime, but he had to read books during the night. However, he was too poor ___66___ buy a candle.

One day, he found his neighbour had a light, ___67___ the light couldn’t go through his room. So he dug a small hole on the wall so that he could use the light to read books. From that day, he read books every night until the light went ___68___.

However, he finished reading all his books and ___69___ were no books for him to read. Then he went to a rich man’s house and worked for him without payment. The rich man asked, “Why ___70___ you want the money?” Kuang Heng said, “Because I only want to borrow your books.” The rich man agreed. Kuang Heng read the books one by one. Finally, he became a great scholar.

五、补全对话（5小题，每小题2分，共10分）

根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。

A: Hi! Long time no see. Could you tell me something about your hometown? ___51___?

B: Sure. Baihe River runs through my hometown, Nanyyang.

A: Oh, I see. Is it a big town?

B: No, it isn’t. It’s only got a population of about 10000, 000.

A: I see. And is it a town with many old buildings?

B: Yes. ___52___, such as The Temple of Wuhou（武侯祠）, The Memorial Temple of Medical Sage (医圣祠)and so on.

A: Really? Then it must be a popular place.

B: You’re right. Alot of tourists come every year.

A: Well, ___53___?

B: They can walk through the town, admire the old buildings and learn a lot about Chinese culture.

A: ___54___?

B: The most famous place is Mount Tongbai. You can see The Water Curtain Cave （水帘洞）there.

A: Great. I can’t wait to visit the ancient town.

B: ___55___.

六、书面表达。（20分）

76. Sunshine School 为了倡导青少年有梦想、有行动，成为对社会有用之人，学校英文校刊开展了主题为“Be a strong Chinese teenager”的征稿活动。假如你是李华，请根据以下提示和要点，展开合理想象，写一篇英文短文，参加征稿活动

注意：1.语意连贯，层次清楚，书写规范。

2.表达中请勿提及真实的姓名与校名。3.词数 100 左右，开头已给出，不计入总词数

Be a strong Chinese teenager

With the fast development of science and technology, China has become one of the most powerful countries in the world. A strong China needs strong teenagers, so it’s our duty to improve ourselves.

______________________________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________________________

2023年南阳油田中招二模考试英语试题

参考答案

一、听力理解(20小题，每小题1分，共20分）

1—5 CAABC      6—10 A C C B C       11—15 B C B B A     16—20 C B A D E

二、阅读理解。（40分）

21——25. ACDCC   26——30. ACDAB   31——35. CDCBA   36——40. C A D E B

三. 完形填空。（15小题，每小题1分，共15分）

41-45 ADABA  46-50CDCBB   51-55 ADACB 

四、语篇填空. （15小题，每小题1分，共15分）

56. speaking    57. classmates    58. hurts    59. your    60. happier   

61. First         62. what        63. Next    64. of      65. act

第二节：66．to    67．but    68．out  69．there   70．don’t

五.补全对话。（10分）

71. Is there a river around?   

72. Many old buildings were built in the old days.

73. What can the tourists do there?

74. What's the most famous place there?

75. Looking forward to your coming.

(答案不唯一，只要句子正确，符合题意均可)

八. 书面表达。（20分）

Be a strong Chinese teenager

With the fast development of science and technology, China has become one of the most powerful countries in the world. A strong China needs strong teenagers, so it’s our duty to improve ourselves.

I think we have lots of things to do. First, we should learn to be honest and thankful. We are supposed to be friendly to others and behave politely in public. Second, we should take interest in our study and we must work hard. At the same time, we should have good study methods, such as listening carefully in class, going over what we have learnt in time. Third, it’s helpful to be in good health. We’d better have enough healthy food instead of junk food, And we should spend at least an hour doing sports every day. Last but not least, we can spend our weekends doing some voluntary work at our community center or in the old People’s Home. It’s meaningful for us to do something for others.

If we follow these, we will be strong enough to realize our dreams.

评分标准：

书面表达，20分。考生应根据题目要求，采用适当的时态、语态、句式和词语，完整、准确地表达所要求的内容。分四档评分：

第一档：符合题目要求，内容完整，层次结构清晰，表达清楚，语言无误。18-20分。

第二档：基本符合题目要求，内容较完整，层次结构较清晰，表达较清楚，语言有少量错误。11-17分。

第三档：部分内容符合题目要求，内容不够完整，层次结构不够清晰，表达不够清楚，语言有较多错误。6-10分。

第四档：不符合题目要求，整篇表达不清楚，或照抄、拼凑几个词语。0-5分。