2023北京朝阳初三(上)期末英语(教师版)
展开2023北京朝阳初三(上)期末
英 语(选用)
2022.12
(考试时间90分钟 满分60分)
学校 班级 姓名 考号
考生须知 | 1.本试卷共8页。在试卷和答题卡上准确填写学校名称、班级、姓名和考号。 2.试题答案一律填涂或书写在答题卡上,在试卷上作答无效。 3.在答题卡上,选择题用2B铅笔作答,其他试题用黑色字迹签字笔作答。 4.考试结束,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 |
第 一 部分
本部分共33题,共40分。在每题列出的四个选项中,选出最符合题目要求的一项。
一、单项填空(每题0.5分,共6分)
从下面各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选择可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
1. Mike is making a toy plane. Let's go and join________.
A. him B. me C. her D. us
2. You can see flowers and flags everywhere________1st October.
A. in B. on C. at D. to
3. — ________ I visit the Palace Museum on Monday?
—Sorry, you can't. It's closed on Mondays.
A. Can B. Need C. Must D. Will
4. The Great Wall is one of ________ man-made wonders in the world.
A. great B. greater C. greatest D. the greatest
5. — ________ do you play basketball, Daming?
—Twice a week. I play basketball with my friends after school.
A. How long B. How often C. How much D. How soon
6. The little girl was very happy________ her mother gave her a beautiful present.
A. but B. so C. because D. although
7. Look! Mr.Li________ at the school gate. He always welcomes us every morning.
A. stands B. stood C. will stand D. is standing
8. Don't give up. If you work hard, your dream________ true.
A. come B. came C. will come D. has come
9. I ________ to English songs when my sister came in. She enjoyed them too.
A. listen B. will listen C.am listening D. was listening
10. My friend Jack ________ Chinese for two years. He's more interested in Chinese culture now.
A. learns B. was learning C. has learned D. will learn
11. A new library________ in our school next year. It will be bigger than the old one.
A. is built B. will be built C. builds D. will build
12. —Do you know________?
—Yes, I do. To take some photos on the visit to the Summer Palace.
A. why Tony borrowed his father's camera
B. why did Tony borrow his father's camera
C. when Tony borrowed his father's camera
D. when did Tony borrow his father's camera
二、完形填空(每题1分,共8分)
阅读下面的短文,掌握其大意,然后从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选择最佳选项。
Basketball can be fun, or it can be trouble. People come together around a ball, but their reactions(反应)often go beyond the basketball itself.
It was a terribly __13__ summer day when the group of us appeared on the basketball court. Silently, we__14__ up and practiced, as always. The sun was a big“squeezer(挤压者)”,as it squeezed out not only our sweat(汗水) and __15__, but also our unhappy feelings . Body contact(接触)became more and more often, and we could all feel the anger among us. After another round of game, one of the players and I fell to the ground at the same time. From his burning eyeballs, I could see a__16__was almost unavoidable.
It suddenly came to me that my tins of Cola were lying on the ground, not far away from me. “Buddy, hot down here. What about a drink?”I said to him. __17__ I gave one to him, looking at him in the eyes with my most sincere(真诚的)facial expression. “I guess I'm quite fine. Well, lucky for us or we'll end up in the__18__ !” I said.
Other players watching nearby all laughed. I could clearly see some movement on his face. My humor did__19__! He picked the Cola up, tried to open it, and walked over. As he passed by my side, he held out his left hand, and smiled at me. I smiled back, took his hand, and gave him a light handshake.
A gentle wind caught me on the face as I returned to the basketball court. The sun continued to provide warmth for us. What could be more__20__ than a group of school students exchanging (交换)basketball skills on a warm, sunny afternoon?
13. A. hot B. rainy C. cool D. windy
14. A. teamed B. cheered C. looked D. caught
15. A. time B. energy C. health D. pride
16. A. match B. fight C. touch D. joke
17. A. Angrily B. Suddenly C. Secretly D. Carefully
18. A. museum B. school C. hospital D. park
19. A. develop B. fail C. improve D. work
20. A. boring B. terrible C. enjoyable D. surprising
三、阅读理解(每题2分,共26分)
阅读下列短文,根据短文内容,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选择最佳选项。
A
Match the problems with the replies.
21. I find it hard to control my bad moods(情绪) . I have them a lot. I try but I can't cheer myself up. Do you have any advice? —Leo | A. Most people are shy from time to time, so you're not alone. If you meet new people, ask them about their interests and their everyday life. It's a great way to turn strangers into friends. Start making friendly conversations today. |
22. I always get nervous before tests. I study hard, but when the test starts, I forget everything. I feel so stupid. What can I do? —Adam | B. Trust yourself. If you study hard every day, you'll achieve your goals. When you're taking your test, you'd better keep calm and pay attention to your answers, I'm sure it will help you produce good results. |
23. How can I stop being so shy? I want to make friends, be popular and talk to people easily, but I'm not sure how. —Kate | C. It's common to be in low spirits sometimes, but it's unhealthy to often have bad moods. If you feel yourself getting angry, take ten deep breaths. It'll help you cool down. It's also a good idea to talk about your problems with someone you trust. |
21.__________ 22. __________ 23. __________
B
I'm Lisa. The summer I turned 12, I wished to grow up more quickly.
Summer camp was coming, and I was so worried about my height that I had got into a big argument with my mom.
“But Ill hate it!” I cried. I was certain that everyone would see me as nothing more than “the short girl”
“Lisa, you won't know anything until you get there,” calmed my mom. And I had to agree.
On Monday, my teacher Maggie told us about the climbing course, and I lost hope when I saw the wall. I was afraid of it. I was the last one to try to climb that huge wall. It might have been ten floors high, and I knew that I had no chance to succeed. But I had to, after the other campers finished.
I asked for a “short person's pass,” smiling weakly and walking around the wall.
“You know, Lisa, what the mind can believe, the heart can achieve.” encouraged Maggie.
“I'd really like you to do your best to get over the wall.”
I pretended(假装)to hurt my knee so I could avoid it .
“How's the knee? Does it hurt a lot?” Maggie asked. She was so kind, which made me feel bad because I didn't like to lie.
Maggie was really patient, showing me how she climbed the wall. And some campers were there cheering for me.
I didn't want to lie any more, and I didn't want to give up again. I could see how much everyone believed in me, and I wanted to show them how much I valued their support, so I kept trying.
And then something amazing happened—I made it! “What the mind can believe, the heart can achieve,” Maggie reminded me. Yes, believe in myself and I can achieve my goal.
24. When Lisa saw the wall, she felt__________.
A. excited B. afraid C. interested D. angry
25. With Maggie's encouragement, Lisa finally __________ .
A. agreed with her mum B. forgot about her hurt knee
C. got over the wall D. got a “short person's pass”
26. From her experience, Lisa learned about__________ ·
A. the way of supporting others B. the value of showing kindness
C. the benefit of helping each other D. the importance of believing in herself
C
Picture this: You wake up in the morning. A soft light is turned on in your room. You go into the kitchen. Your favourite breakfast is already cooked, and it's on the table, ready to eat. Now it's time to go to work. It's a rainy day. You live alone, but you find that your umbrella and hat are already by the door. How is all this possible? Welcome to your future life!
Appliances(家电)That Talk
Technology will allow homes in the future to be “smart.” Appliances will communicate with each other—and with you. Your stove, for example, will tell you when your food is cooked and ready to eat. Fridges will suggest what you can cook based on the food you already have. The technology is possible because of little information-storing devices(装置)called RFID chips. People already use them to search pets and farm animals. Future RFID chips will store information about all the food in your kitchen. For example, they will record the date that you bought the food. Other devices will “read” this information using radio waves. When you need more food, your fridges will tell you to buy it.
Houses that think
Are you tired of the colour of your walls? In a smart home, you won't have to repaint them. The walls will actually be digital screens, like computer or TV screens. The technology is called OLED. OLEDs are little devices that use electricity to lighten things. You can find the same technology in today's thin TV screens. OLED walls will become clear, like windows, or show colours, like walls. A computer network will connect these walls with everything else in your house. This computer“brain”will control your whole house . It's called“ambient intelligence(环 境智能) . ”It will also change to your preferences . Your house will learn about your likes and dislikes. It will then use that knowledge to control the environment. For example, it will set the heat in the house to your favorite temperature. It will turn on the shower at the right temperature. It will also darken the windows at night and lighten them when it's time to wake up.
27. According to the writer, people can have a better life by__________ .
A. living alone B. buying a big house
C. using smart appliances D. communicating with others
28. In Paragraph 2, the writer talks about a stove to _________ ·
A. raise readers' interest in a new smart appliance
B. show readers how smart future appliances will be
C. make readers know what his favourite appliance is
D. tell readers the great importance of smart appliances
29. What can we learn from the passage?
A. The computer is likely to remind you to buy more food.
B. RFID chips are already used today for searching pets and kids.
C. OLED technology will help control and change the temperature.
D. Darkening windows at night is an example of ambient intelligence.
D
We all have some people whom we respect very much, like our family members, our friends or our teachers. Perhaps respect often means different things to different people. There are several aspects(方面)that many people can agree on, though . For example, at its most basic level, respect means being kind and considerate to others.
Respect can take lots of different forms. Don't make fun of others. Put yourself in other people's shoes and think about how they feel. The list goes on. But the Golden Rule we all need to follow is to treat others the same way you'd like to be treated.
Respect is of great importance because it sets the proper stage(舞台)for all our human interactions (交往) .Friendship, love and even basic communication all must start with respect, meaning only with respect can people enjoy a better relationship.
Everyone wants to be respected from the bottom of their heart. To get respect, though, you must also show respect for others. It's always a two-way street. You can't be impolite to others and expect respect in return.
It's easy to show respect. Be polite. Look for the best in people instead of centering on mistakes. Show compassion(同情)for others and try to put their interests before your own. Make others comfortable when they're uneasy. Help out whenever you can. When you pay it forward, unexpected things can happen.
And be respectful to everyone. The world is an unbelievably huge place filled with a great number of people, each of whom is unique(独特的)and special. And it is necessarily true that you need to show your respect to everyone!
Be careful, though. Not everyone will respect you all the time. In fact, you'll probably see examples of impolite behaviour each and every day. How you respond to impolite behaviour, though, can make a great difference. If you choose to respond to impolite behaviour by acting rudely yourself, you'll get nothing. You're only continuing the way of impolite behaviour and setting a bad example. So, it is totally wrong. Instead, act respectfully and set a good example.
Always acting respectfully might help others learn from your example!
30. According to the Golden Rule, __________.
A. you'd better keep walking in others’ shoes
B. you should pay attention to your own feeling
C. the way you play jokes on other people matters
D. the way you want to be treated depends on yourself
31. What does Paragraph 5 mainly tell us?
A. Where to find respect. B. Why to avoid mistakes.
C. When to help others out. D. How to show respect for others.
32. The words “ respond to” in Paragraph 7 probably mean “__________”.
A. deal with B. forget about C. try out D. lead to
33. According to the last paragraph, what should we do if someone is impolite to us?
A. Show him/her true respect. B. Leave him/her alone.
C. Be kind to him/her sometimes. D. Treat him/her the same way.
第二部分
本部分共5题,共20分。根据题目要求,完成相应任务。
四、阅读表达(34-36题,每题2分,37题4分,共10分)
阅读短文,根据短文内容回答问题。
The World Health Organization says air pollution kills seven million people around the world each year. Even if polluted air does not kill us, it can make us very sick.
However, breathing dirty air may do more than hurt your body. It can also affect (影响)your brain and your ability to think .
A new study shows that air pollution can cause a“huge”reduction in our intelligence (智商) .The researchers reported that long-term exposure(暴露)to air pollution can affect a person's mental(智力的)abilities in two areas: language and math . Xi Chen, the researcher of the Yale School of Public Health led the study. He and his team found that breathing polluted air can reduce a person's education level by about one year.
Chen said that the effect generally is worse for those over 64 years of age, for men and for those with little or no education. “The older persons—they are more affected. And we find, quite interestingly men are more affected than women. And people working outdoors are more affected than people working indoors.”
The researchers noted that the influence of pollution on language ability is even more serious as people age, especially among men and the less educated. Why are a person's language skills more affected than math? There's an important part in our brain: white matter. White matter is more connected with a person's language skills. Studies have shown that air pollution has a great influence on the white matter in the brain.
Chen said that air pollution did affect the math skills just not as much as their language skills.
34. How many people are killed by air pollution each year?
________________________________________________________________________________
35. In what areas can air pollution affect a person's mental abilities?
________________________________________________________________________________
36. How are a person's language skills affected by air pollution?
________________________________________________________________________________
37. What do you think of air pollution? What's your advice on stopping air pollution?
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
五、文段表达(10分)
38. 从下面两个题目中任选一题,根据中文和英文提示,完成一篇不少于50词的文段写作。 文中已给出内容不计入总词数。所给提示词语仅供选用。请不要写出你的校名和 姓名。
题目①
拥有天蓝、地绿、水净的美好家园,是每个中国人的梦想。保护我们赖以生存的家园是每一名成员的责任,需要大家共同携手,付诸努力。
假如你是李华,你校英语社团计划举办以“美好家园(Beautiful Home)”为主题的分享会 (Sharing Session)。你打算邀请你们班的交换生Peter参加,请用英语写一封电子邮件,告诉 他分享会的时间和地点以及他需要做的分享准备。
提示词语: school hall, speech, protect the environment, attractive, confident
提示问题:● When and where will the Sharing Session be held?
● What do you advise Peter to prepare for it?
Dear Peter, How is it going? I'm writing to tell you about the Sharing Session “Beautiful Home”. _____________________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Looking forward to your early reply. Yours, Li Hua |
题目②
人生漫漫旅途中,总会有这样一些人,他们或令你感动、或让你崇敬、或使你难忘…… 他们牵动我们的思绪,占据内心深处的记忆。
某英文报社正在开展以“难忘的人”为主题的征文活动。假如你是李华,请用英文写一篇短文投稿,谈谈谁是你难忘的人,他(她)曾经做过什么以及你从他(她)身上能学到什么。
提示词语:helpful, fail, encourage, learning methods, make progress
提示问题:●Who is the person you will never forget?
● What did he/she do?
● What can you learn from him/her?
In our lives, we may meet different people. The person I will never forget is_______________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ |
参考答案
第一部分
一、单项填空(每题0.5分,共6分)
1. A 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. C 11. B 12. A
二、完形填空(每题1分,共8分)
13. A 14. A 15. B 16. B 17. D 18. C 19. D 20. C
三、阅读理解(每题2分,共26分)
21. C 22. B 23. A
24. B 25. C 26. D
27. C 28. B 29. D
30. D 31. D 32. A 33. A
第二部分
四、阅读表达(34-36题,每题2分,37题4分,共10分)
34. Seven million.
35. Language and math.
36. In our brain white matter is more connected with a person’s language skills and air pollution has a great influence on the white matter.
37. It is harmful / terrible ... 能够自圆其说即可。
五、文段表达 (10分)
38. Possible versions:
题目①
It will be held in our school hall at 4 p.m. this Friday. You can share your “Beautiful Home” by giving a speech. I advise you to talk about what you can do to protect the environment in the daily life. For example, walk or ride a bike to school instead of taking a car. Also, you’d better prepare a poster to make your speech attractive. Do not be shy and try to be confident.
I believe that the sharing session will be a meaningful experience for you.
题目②
The person I will never forget is my English teacher.
I still remember that day at the end of last term. I failed in a big English test. I was so sad that I wanted to give up. When my teacher knew this, she encouraged me patiently and shared some useful learning methods. During the following days, she also helped me with my English after class. Little by little, I improved my skills and finally made great progress.
I will always remember her kindness and I can learn that the key of success is to be brave when facing difficulties.
评 分 参 考
一、选择题答错或不答均不给分。
二、第四大题(阅读短文, 回答问题),34-36题,内容和结构都正确2分;内容正确,结构不正确,给1分;内容不正确不给分。37题第一问2分,第二问2分。
三、第五大题(文段表达),先根据文章整体内容和语言表达确定档次,然后在该档次内评出分数,共10分。
具体评分标准如下:
第一档:(10 — 9分)完全符合题目要求,达到写作目的;信息点齐全,有适当的扩展;语法结构正确,词汇丰富,语意连贯,字体工整。允许有少量语言知识、大小写和标点错误。
第二档:(8 — 6分)符合题目要求,基本达到写作目的;信息点基本齐全,但没有适当的扩展;语法结构和词汇基本满足文章需要。语意基本连贯,书写清楚。允许有一些语言知识、大小写和标点错误,但所有错误不影响整体理解。
第三档:(5 — 4分)部分符合题目要求,没完全达到写作目的;漏掉主要信息,无关内容较多;语法结构单调,词汇有限。语言不通顺,语意难以理解, 书写潦草。语言知识、大小写和标点错误较多,影响整体理解。
第四档:(3 — 0分)不符合题目要求,没达到写作目的;有效内容很少;语法结构混乱,词汇贫乏。言不达意,语言知识、大小写和标点错误随处可见。
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