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2023届湖北省武汉二中等校高三下学期5月高考冲刺模拟试卷英语试题（七）
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这是一份2023届湖北省武汉二中等校高三下学期5月高考冲刺模拟试卷英语试题（七），共21页。
秘密★启用前
湖北省2023年高考冲刺模拟试卷
英语试题（七）
注意事项：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号、座位号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题上。
第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt?
A. £ 19. 15. B. £ 9. 18. C. £ 9. 15.
答案是 C。
1．what time is the woman leaving?
A. At 3:30. B. At 4:00 . C. At 4:30 .
2．What is the woman doing?
A. Having an interview. B. Selling a typewriter. C. Doing some typing
3．How much time is left before the movie begins?
A. 7 minutes. B. 30 minutes. C. 15 minutes.
4．Which of the following can best describe Tony?
A. Dangerous. B. Merciless C. Brave.
5．Where are the speakers?
A. At a bus stop. B. On a bus. C. In the man’s home.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6．What was Renee Abramovitz before retiring?
A. She was a writer.
B. She was a teacher.
C. She was a web designer.
7．What will the man do next?
A. Tell the woman the website.
B. Go to see his grandma.
C. Read books to kids.
听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。
8．What does the woman ask the man to show her?
A. His passport. B. His business card. C. His ID card.
9．What is the date today?
A. October 21st. B. October 24th . C. October 27th .
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10． When does the special offer finish?
A. In March. B. In April. C. In May.
11．Where did the woman want to take her students at first?
A. Madrid. B. Barcelona. C. Valencia.
12．What is the normal price of the tour?
A. £600 per person. B. £1,200 per person. C. £1,800 per person.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13．How long does the course last?
A. For five hours. B. For six hours. C. For seven hours.
14．What is the woman’s attitude towards the course hours?
A. Disapproving. B. Understanding. C. Ambiguous.
15．What will the woman learn to do during the course?
A. Take good photos of food.
B. Write computer programs.
C. Edit pictures on the computer.
16．What do the woman want to be in the future?
A. A college teacher.
B. A fashion photographer.
C. A computer programmer
听下面一段独白，回答第17至20题。
17．When did the speaker get home?
A. At about 2:30 a.m. B. At about 7:30 a.m. C. At about 8:30 a.m.
18．How did the speaker feel about the weather during the party?
A. Surprised. B. Unconcerned C. Worried.
19．What can we learn about the speaker?
A. He had a great time at the party.
B. He likes disco very much.
C. He couldn’t find his car.
20．How did the speaker get home?
A. By car B. On foot. C. By taxi.
第二部分：阅读理解（共两节,满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Books teach us about love, heartbreak, friendship, war, and social injustice. Here are 4 books you should read at least once in your life.
Number the Stars
by Lois Lowry
This Newbery award-winning novel tells the story of Annemarie Yohansen, a Danish girl growing up in World War II Copenhagen with her best friend, Ellen, who happens to be Jewish. Lowry's novel is a powerful reminder that cultural and religious differences are no divide between true friends and that love shines all the brighter against the darkness of hatred.
The Kite Runner
by Khaled Hosseini
Set in Afghanistan from the 1970s to the period following 9/11, The Kite Runner is the story of the unlikely and complicated friendship between Amir, the son of a wealthy merchant and Hassan, the son of his father’s servant until cultural and class differences and the turmoil(动乱) of war tear them apart. It's a story about the enduring love of friendship, and the transformative power of forgiveness.
The Secret Garden
by Frances Hodgson Burnett
A beloved children's favorite about little Mary Lennox, who goes to live with her uncle after her parents die, The Secret Garden is a timeless classic about the beauty of nature, and the healing power of love. You'll laugh with her and cry with her as she learns how to love, how to trust, and how to reach outside herself to nurture the world around her.
The Fault in Our Stars
by John Green
The Fault in Our Stars recounts the experiences of Hazel, a teenager with cancer, and the experiences of the other teens in her cancer support group. As together they share their fears and their joys, readers come to appreciate the fragility of life through these young voices. Green reminds us that love, friendship, and faith transcend (超越) all, even death itself.
21．Which books are set in war?
A. The Fault in Our Stars and The Secret Garden
B. The Kite Runner and Number the Stars
C. The Fault in Our Stars and Number the Stars
D. The Kite Runner and The Secret Garden
22．Which book tells us the struggles of terminal illness?
A. Number the Stars B. The Secret Garden
C. The Kite Runner D. The Fault in Our Stars
23．This passage is to __________.
A. review the books B. rank the books
C. recommend the books D. advertise the books
B
Carl Giles was far more than just a cartoonist on the Daily Express; he was the Daily Express.
In the years after the Second World War he became the voice of the newspaper and his splendid
cast of characters—demanding grandma, sickly aunt Vera, Chalkie the skinny schoolmaster and
the herds of horrible children—were more popular with readers than anyone regular feature.
He touched so exactly on the hardships of family life—annoying relatives, noisy children, worn-
out mothers and long-tolerating fathers—that it brought him close to millions of readers with each
one of his 7, 500 cartoons.
Giles started training in the film world at age 14, and was soon drawing for the Reynolds
News, a left-wing paper run by the Co-op. During the war he drew as a journalist, in the tradition
of cartoonists such as Gillray and Rowlandson, who portrayed calamity through humor.
Unlike most of his fellow Express cartoonists, Giles preferred to work from his Suffolk home
and send his daily cartoon by train. He was a pub-loving man who felt out of place in the artificial
attraction of Fleet Street and visited the Express offices only for functions. He resisted publicity
and had to be persuaded to let the Express’s Peter Tory write his life story. He proved difficult to
interview, largely due to increasingly poor health, but the Giles story was one of brilliance mixed
with an understanding of human nature.
His most famous character was Grandma, the hard-swearing bad-tempered old lady who didn’t
care what she said to anyone. Who was it based on? When Giles produced a small self-portrait for
his local pub, the answer was obvious: in the mouth, the smiling yet world-weary(厌世的) eyes,
Giles was Grandma.
24．Paragraph Two mainly tells us _________
A. The personality and achievements of Carl Giles.
B. The family and relatives of Carl Giles.
C. The figures and theme of Carl Giles’ works.
D. The misfortunes and blessings in Carl Giles’ life.
25．What does the underline word “calamity” in paragraph 3 mean?
A. suffering B. excitement C. disappointment D. happiness
26．According to the passage, Giles is a/ an_________ cartoonist.
A. productive and easy-going B. shy but humorous
C. brilliant and life-loving D. rigid but positive
27．What is this passage?
A. A book review B. A guide to cartoons
C. A research report D. A biography
C
Some birds are inner decorators, placing big, showy feathers in their nests. But rather than
decorating their homes, these birds may be trying to frighten nest stealing neighbors.
Karen Wiebe is a behavioral ecologist at the University of Saskatchewan in Saskatoon, Canada.
She and her colleague Slagsvold saw birds placing large feathers on the surfaces of nests. Those
feathers wouldn't help with warmth. The researchers wondered whether the birds might be using
the decorations to send a message.
For birds that nest in holes, competition for nests can be really violent. These somewhat rare
holes can also hide danger because predators (掠夺者) may be hiding inside. If a nest contains
feathers or other remains, it might be evident that a predator had been there, Those holes might not
be as desirable.
Wiebe and Slagsvold assumed that some birds may use feathers to create a mock(模拟的) kill
site.
During spring, when nest competition is the most violent, the scientists set up pairs of nesting boxes. One box contained white feathers. The other either contained no feathers or black feathers. Inside the boxes, black feathers were more difficult to see than white ones. Using video cameras, the researchers spied on how birds reacted to the boxes. When birds took longer to enter, that suggested the animals were scared.
Birds hesitated to enter boxes with white feathers. But when feathers were in front of a nest, birds jumped right up and grabbed them. That suggested that birds weren't afraid of the feathers themselves.
“It was really interesting to discover that birds were using a trick to help them keep their nests.” Wiebe says. When a bird leaves its nest to search for food, that opens the door for a nest stealer. “But if it can buy a little time by scaring away predators with these feathers, then it has a better chance of coming back in time to defend its nest site.”
28．What makes the competition for nests intense among birds?
A. The warmth of nests. B. The cruelty of predators.
C. The color of feathers. D. The quantity of holes.
29．Why did scientists set up pairs of nesting boxes?
A. To prove that birds are good at decorating their nests.
B. To explore when birds compete for nests most severely.
C. To test whether birds send messages through decoration.
D. To investigate if birds are afraid of the feathers themselves.
30．Which of the flowing nesting boxes are birds unwilling to enter?
A. The one with white feathers outside. B. The one with white feathers inside.
C. The one with black feathers outside. D. The one with black feathers inside.
31．By writing the passage, the author intends to tell us that_______________.
A. birds compete with each other for nests.
B. birds' living environment faces great risks.
C. birds may scare off competitors with a trick.
D. birds' feathers can guarantee their nests' safety.
D
The FIFA World Cup Trophy is arguably one of the most iconic(偶像的) prizes in the sporting world. So far, two different trophies（奖杯）have been used in the history of the FIFA World Cups.
The Jules Rimet Trophy was the first trophy awarded to the winners of the FIFA World Cups. Initially, the old trophy was originally named “Victory”. However, this trophy was renamed “the Jules Rimet Trophy” in 1946. This change was made to honor former FIFA president Jules Rimet, who voted to organize the first FIFA World Cup in 1930. French sculptor Abel Lafleur designed the trophy in 1930. The trophy was 14 inches in height and weighed 8.4 pounds. It was comprised of a winged representation of Nike, the Greek Goddess of Victory and was inspired by the Nike of Samothrace statue.
Uruguay became the first champion and kept the trophy in 1930. The trophy was eventually retired when Brazil won the World Cup final for the third time in 1970. Following their success in Mexico, Brazil was allowed to keep the trophy permanently. Following the retirement of the Jules Rimet Trophy, FIFA needed a new cup. Eventually, Italian artist Silvio Gazzaniga’s design was selected as the new World Cup trophy.
The modern FIFA World Cup trophy describes two human figures holding the earth on top of their heads. The base of the trophy has “FIFA World Cup” engraved(刻). Furthermore, following every World Cup, the name of the winning team and the winning year is also engraved at the base. The trophy weighs 13.61 pounds. Unlike the Jules Rimet Trophy, the winning nations and future winners don’t get to hold the original trophy anymore. The new regulations state that it remains in FIFA’s possession. Instead, winners are given a gold-plated bronze replica（青铜复制品）provided by FIFA. West Germany was the first nation to lift the modern World Cup trophy in 1974.
The new trophy can hold up to seventeen names and years and is likely to be retired following the 2038 World Cup.
32．Why was the first World Cup trophy renamed?
A. To remember the designer of the cup.
B. To welcome a new global soccer event.
C. To expand the popularity of the World Cup.
D. To show great respect for the former FIFA president.
33．Which country has won the Jules Rimet Trophy three times?
A. Italy. B. Mexico. C. Brazil. D. Uruguay.
34．How is the modern FIFA World Cup trophy different from the previous one?
A. It is made of gold and bronze.
B. It is owned by FIFA instead of the winners.
C. It bears the word “Victory” at the bottom.
D. It varies the design every seventeen years.
35．What is the text mainly about?
A. The rules of the World Cup.
B. The history of the World Cup trophy.
C. The growing trend of watching the World Cup.
D. The inspiration for creating the World Cup trophy.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的七个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Why clever friends make you smarter?
Next time you raise an eyebrow at the views of your partner, friend, sibling(兄弟姊妹) or colleague , remember they could be helping to make you smarter. New research shows that intelligence is not fixed but can be improved throughout adulthood by family members, bright mates and intellectually stretching careers. Active households where people talk, make jokes and challenge each other can improve IQ levels by several points.
36 Current scientific consensus suggests that intelligence is controlled by genes, with environmental factors such as schooling and nutrition playing a part up to this age.
37
But James Flynn, a professor of political studies and psychology at the University of Otago in New Zealand, argues that people can ‘upgrade’ their own intelligence throughout their lives. He believes intellectual stimulation(刺激) from others is extremely vital as the ‘brain seems to be rather like a muscle’. 38 However, it is also true otherwise – so people who share a home or workplace with the intellectually challenged risk seeing their IQ levels fall as a result.
Professor Flynn analyzed US intelligence tests from the last 65 years and correlated the results with people’s ages. This enabled him to produce new IQ age tables. He found the cognitive (认知) quality of a family changes the IQs of all members, especially children. 39
Professor Flynn concluded that although genetics and early life experiences determine about 80 percent of intelligence, the remaining 20 percent is linked to lifestyle. This means that people can raise their IQ, or allow it to fall, by ten points or more. 40
A．After this point, IQ scores stabilize.
B．The more you use it, the stronger it gets.
C．However, children with a low IQ could gain six to eight points.
D．The study challenges the commonly held view that intelligence is fixed by the age of about 18.
E．Professor Flynn’s book, Does Your Family Make You Smarter? comes out next month.
F．To improve IQ levels is to socialize with bright friends, find an intellectually -challenging
job and marry someone cleverer.
G．It can lift or hold them back, depending on the gap between their brightness and that of
their siblings and parents.
第三部分：语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
This Saturday, Ana Wolff, the famous pianist, would perform at the concert hall. The music teacher, Mr. Leaf, had asked Elizabeth to 41 the flowers to Ms Wolff after the performance. Why did he have to choose her? Elizabeth hated 42 reports, plays at the church---anything where she had to talk in front of people.
But Elizabeth kept practicing. "Beautiful flowers for a beautiful performance…”
43 , the concert arrived. At the concert hall, Elizabeth took her seats with the bouquet(束) of red roses. Mr. Leaf hurried past.
“All set, Elizabeth?” he asked. Her stomach 44 , but she nodded at him. Onstage Ms. Wolff bowed, walked to the piano and took her seat. Then Ms. Wolff's fingers danced across the
45 . Drawn into the music, Elizabeth forgot for a moment about the six words she had to say.
Right before Ms. Wolff's last piece, Elizabeth 46 backstage.
The 47 moment was almost here. Ms Wolff played her final chord(和弦). Applause
48 through the hall. With the roses, Elizabeth walked 49 towards Ms. Wolff. Sweat
50 down Elizabeth's face. Finally she arrived where Ms Wolff was standing. She 51
the words, but no sound came out. Elizabeth tried again. The words felt 52 in her windpipe.
She began to see 53 in front of her eyes.
“This is it,” Elizabeth thought. She took a deep breath and said,"Beaut… Beautiful flowers
for a beautiful performance!" She handed the roses to Ana Wolff.
Her eyes flashed with 54 . “I made it. I 55 that fear and went out there anyway.”
She thought aloud.
41．A. reward B. picture C. present D. deliver
42．A. oral B. live C. autonomous D. authentic
43． A. Gradually B. Permanently C. Instantly D. Eventually
44． A. sank B. tightened C. loosened D. lowered
45． A. air B. notes C. keys D. strings
46． A. slipped B. stepped C. paced D. exited
47． A. cheerful B. fearful C. thrilling D. disappointing
48． A. flashed B. thundered C. spread D. arose
49． A. swiftly B. gently C. slowly D. quietly
50． A. lay B. hung C. lowered D. streamed
51． A. shouted B. mouthed C. fired D. aimed
52． A. stuck B. chewed C. lost D. buried
53． A. shadows B. threads C. dots D. blocks
54． A. joy B. sorrow C. relief D. despair
55．A. doubled B. digested C. fueled D. swallowed
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In the ancient city of Suzhou in east China’s Jiangsu Province, American lawyer Dudek built a private museum where visitors can have direct contact with all the exhibits on display.
“The museum 56 (name) Six Arts because it is about stimulating all of your senses. You can touch things. You can smell things. It's different 57 other museums,”said Dudek.
Founded in 2018, the four-story museum now houses more than 40,000 Chinese antiques, with
another 60,000 items 58 (store)in warehouses. The antiques include wooden beds, folding
screens, sedan chairs, washbasins and stone statues.
“The collections not only help revisit old times but also express a sense of beauty,” said Xu Yun,
59 visitor from Shanghai. “There is even a smell of herbs coming from the medicine 60
(box) here.” Xu Yun said that most of the antiques were items of daily use in Chinese families
before the 1990s, 61 have been paled in comparison with new designs and styles.
Having never seen or used such items in his own country, Dudek is seized with a strong
62 (admire) of the delicate designs and complicated carvings of these old items.
“I think they are just beautiful, and I should collect them," said Dudek, 63 (add) that
most items may get eclipsed(黯淡失色) once 64 (random) packed in the warehouses or
ramshackle(摇摇欲坠的) residences, 65 they could shine again via careful renovation(修复)
and waxing.
第四部分：写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 应用文（满分15分）
假定你是李华，你的美国朋友Peter在写给你的邮件中提到他对你校正在提倡的节约粮食感兴趣。他向你询问有关情况，请你给他回信，内容包括：
1．具体措施。
2．活动的意义。
注意：
1．写作词数应为 80 左右；
2．请按如下格式作答。
Dear Peter,
How are you doing lately. _____________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
Yours, sincerely
Li Hua
第二节 读后续写（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。续写的词数应为150左右。
The Price of a Dream
I grew up in a poor family with six brothers, three sisters-- a group of foster kids, my father,
and my wonderful mother. We had little money and few goods, but plenty of love and attention. I
was happy and energetic. I understood that no matter how poor a person was, he could still afford a
dream.
My dream was athletics. By the time I was sixteen, I could throw a ninety-mile-per-hour
fastball and hit anything moving on the football feld. I was also lucky. My high-school coach was
Ollie Jarvis, who not only believed in me, but taught me how to believe in myself. One particular
incident with my coach Jarvis changed my life forever.
It was the summer holiday in senior two and a friend recommended me for a summer job.
This meant a chance for money in my pocket, certainly, money for a new bike and new clothes,
and the start of savings for a house for my mother. The prospect of this summer job was attractive,
and I wanted to jump at the opportunity.
Then I realized I would have no choice but to quit summer training to handle the work
schedule. However, I was afraid of telling my coach, and I encouraged myself with the advice
my mother offered us, “If you make your bed, you have to lie in it.”
When I told my coach Jarvis, he was as mad as I expected him to be. “You have your whole
life to work,” he said, “but your playing days are limited. You can’t afford to waste them.”
注意：
1．续写词数应为150左右；
2．请按如下格式作答。
I stood before him with my head hanging,
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
That question made me realize the difference between wanting something right now and
having a long-term goal.
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
2. 请按如下格式作答。
湖北省2023年高考冲刺模拟试卷
英语试题（七）参考答案
第一部分：听力
1—5 AACCB 6—10 BACAC 11—15 ACCBA 16—20 BCBAB
第二部分：阅读理解
21—23 BDC 24—27 CABD 28—31 DCBC 32—35 DCBB
七选五：
36—40 DABGF
完型填空
41—45 CADBC 46—50 ABBCD 51—55 BACAD
语法填空：
56. is named 57. from 58. stored 59. a 60. boxes
61. which 62. admiration 63. adding 64. randomly 65. but
第四部分：小作文
应用文写作：
Dear Peter,
How are you doing lately? I’m delighted that you show great interest in the campaign SAVING FOOD being carried out in our school.
Admittedly, wasting food is a universal phenomenon in our school, but we teenagers who have always lived an ample life and never suffered hunger, just turn a blind eye to it. However, the outbreak of COVID-19 has woken us up to the fact that food is not always accessible. So a campaign for saving food springs up. Posters, radio programs and lectures come flooding. Of course, relevant regulations and rules are introduced. We students volunteer to supervise and urge each other. You see, with those measures carried out, I dare say, seldom can we find any food in trash bins. And with the idea of saving food deeply rooted in our mind, we’ll be more economical and consume more sensibly. Of course, we’re to have the sense to fight jointly for the future of our motherland and even the whole world.
读后续写：
I stood before him with my head hanging, combing every corner of my mind for the proper words that would explain to him why my dream of buying my mom a house and having money in my pocket was worth facing his disappointment to me, but in vain. “How much are you going to
make at this job, son?” he demanded, still annoyed. “$3.25 per hour,” I replied, not looking him in the eye. “Well,” he said. “Is $3.25 an hour the price of a dream?”
That question made me realize the difference between wanting something right now and
having a long-term goal. I threw myself to baseball training like mad that summer and within the
year I was chosen by a famous professional baseball team and offered a $20,000 contract. I turned
it down, since I already had a baseball scholar-ship to the University of Arizona, which led me to
higher education and offered me more professional training. I signed with the Boston Red
Sox in 1984 for $1.7 million, and bought my mother the house of my dream.
秘密★启用前
湖北省2023年高考冲刺模拟试卷
英语试题（七）
注意事项：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号、座位号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题上。
第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt?
A. £ 19. 15. B. £ 9. 18. C. £ 9. 15.
答案是 C。
1．what time is the woman leaving?
A. At 3:30. B. At 4:00 . C. At 4:30 .
2．What is the woman doing?
A. Having an interview. B. Selling a typewriter. C. Doing some typing
3．How much time is left before the movie begins?
A. 7 minutes. B. 30 minutes. C. 15 minutes.
4．Which of the following can best describe Tony?
A. Dangerous. B. Merciless C. Brave.
5．Where are the speakers?
A. At a bus stop. B. On a bus. C. In the man’s home.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6．What was Renee Abramovitz before retiring?
A. She was a writer.
B. She was a teacher.
C. She was a web designer.
7．What will the man do next?
A. Tell the woman the website.
B. Go to see his grandma.
C. Read books to kids.
听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。
8．What does the woman ask the man to show her?
A. His passport. B. His business card. C. His ID card.
9．What is the date today?
A. October 21st. B. October 24th . C. October 27th .
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10． When does the special offer finish?
A. In March. B. In April. C. In May.
11．Where did the woman want to take her students at first?
A. Madrid. B. Barcelona. C. Valencia.
12．What is the normal price of the tour?
A. £600 per person. B. £1,200 per person. C. £1,800 per person.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13．How long does the course last?
A. For five hours. B. For six hours. C. For seven hours.
14．What is the woman’s attitude towards the course hours?
A. Disapproving. B. Understanding. C. Ambiguous.
15．What will the woman learn to do during the course?
A. Take good photos of food.
B. Write computer programs.
C. Edit pictures on the computer.
16．What do the woman want to be in the future?
A. A college teacher.
B. A fashion photographer.
C. A computer programmer
听下面一段独白，回答第17至20题。
17．When did the speaker get home?
A. At about 2:30 a.m. B. At about 7:30 a.m. C. At about 8:30 a.m.
18．How did the speaker feel about the weather during the party?
A. Surprised. B. Unconcerned C. Worried.
19．What can we learn about the speaker?
A. He had a great time at the party.
B. He likes disco very much.
C. He couldn’t find his car.
20．How did the speaker get home?
A. By car B. On foot. C. By taxi.
第二部分：阅读理解（共两节,满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Books teach us about love, heartbreak, friendship, war, and social injustice. Here are 4 books you should read at least once in your life.
Number the Stars
by Lois Lowry
This Newbery award-winning novel tells the story of Annemarie Yohansen, a Danish girl growing up in World War II Copenhagen with her best friend, Ellen, who happens to be Jewish. Lowry's novel is a powerful reminder that cultural and religious differences are no divide between true friends and that love shines all the brighter against the darkness of hatred.
The Kite Runner
by Khaled Hosseini
Set in Afghanistan from the 1970s to the period following 9/11, The Kite Runner is the story of the unlikely and complicated friendship between Amir, the son of a wealthy merchant and Hassan, the son of his father’s servant until cultural and class differences and the turmoil(动乱) of war tear them apart. It's a story about the enduring love of friendship, and the transformative power of forgiveness.
The Secret Garden
by Frances Hodgson Burnett
A beloved children's favorite about little Mary Lennox, who goes to live with her uncle after her parents die, The Secret Garden is a timeless classic about the beauty of nature, and the healing power of love. You'll laugh with her and cry with her as she learns how to love, how to trust, and how to reach outside herself to nurture the world around her.
The Fault in Our Stars
by John Green
The Fault in Our Stars recounts the experiences of Hazel, a teenager with cancer, and the experiences of the other teens in her cancer support group. As together they share their fears and their joys, readers come to appreciate the fragility of life through these young voices. Green reminds us that love, friendship, and faith transcend (超越) all, even death itself.
21．Which books are set in war?
A. The Fault in Our Stars and The Secret Garden
B. The Kite Runner and Number the Stars
C. The Fault in Our Stars and Number the Stars
D. The Kite Runner and The Secret Garden
22．Which book tells us the struggles of terminal illness?
A. Number the Stars B. The Secret Garden
C. The Kite Runner D. The Fault in Our Stars
23．This passage is to __________.
A. review the books B. rank the books
C. recommend the books D. advertise the books
B
Carl Giles was far more than just a cartoonist on the Daily Express; he was the Daily Express.
In the years after the Second World War he became the voice of the newspaper and his splendid
cast of characters—demanding grandma, sickly aunt Vera, Chalkie the skinny schoolmaster and
the herds of horrible children—were more popular with readers than anyone regular feature.
He touched so exactly on the hardships of family life—annoying relatives, noisy children, worn-
out mothers and long-tolerating fathers—that it brought him close to millions of readers with each
one of his 7, 500 cartoons.
Giles started training in the film world at age 14, and was soon drawing for the Reynolds
News, a left-wing paper run by the Co-op. During the war he drew as a journalist, in the tradition
of cartoonists such as Gillray and Rowlandson, who portrayed calamity through humor.
Unlike most of his fellow Express cartoonists, Giles preferred to work from his Suffolk home
and send his daily cartoon by train. He was a pub-loving man who felt out of place in the artificial
attraction of Fleet Street and visited the Express offices only for functions. He resisted publicity
and had to be persuaded to let the Express’s Peter Tory write his life story. He proved difficult to
interview, largely due to increasingly poor health, but the Giles story was one of brilliance mixed
with an understanding of human nature.
His most famous character was Grandma, the hard-swearing bad-tempered old lady who didn’t
care what she said to anyone. Who was it based on? When Giles produced a small self-portrait for
his local pub, the answer was obvious: in the mouth, the smiling yet world-weary(厌世的) eyes,
Giles was Grandma.
24．Paragraph Two mainly tells us _________
A. The personality and achievements of Carl Giles.
B. The family and relatives of Carl Giles.
C. The figures and theme of Carl Giles’ works.
D. The misfortunes and blessings in Carl Giles’ life.
25．What does the underline word “calamity” in paragraph 3 mean?
A. suffering B. excitement C. disappointment D. happiness
26．According to the passage, Giles is a/ an_________ cartoonist.
A. productive and easy-going B. shy but humorous
C. brilliant and life-loving D. rigid but positive
27．What is this passage?
A. A book review B. A guide to cartoons
C. A research report D. A biography
C
Some birds are inner decorators, placing big, showy feathers in their nests. But rather than
decorating their homes, these birds may be trying to frighten nest stealing neighbors.
Karen Wiebe is a behavioral ecologist at the University of Saskatchewan in Saskatoon, Canada.
She and her colleague Slagsvold saw birds placing large feathers on the surfaces of nests. Those
feathers wouldn't help with warmth. The researchers wondered whether the birds might be using
the decorations to send a message.
For birds that nest in holes, competition for nests can be really violent. These somewhat rare
holes can also hide danger because predators (掠夺者) may be hiding inside. If a nest contains
feathers or other remains, it might be evident that a predator had been there, Those holes might not
be as desirable.
Wiebe and Slagsvold assumed that some birds may use feathers to create a mock(模拟的) kill
site.
During spring, when nest competition is the most violent, the scientists set up pairs of nesting boxes. One box contained white feathers. The other either contained no feathers or black feathers. Inside the boxes, black feathers were more difficult to see than white ones. Using video cameras, the researchers spied on how birds reacted to the boxes. When birds took longer to enter, that suggested the animals were scared.
Birds hesitated to enter boxes with white feathers. But when feathers were in front of a nest, birds jumped right up and grabbed them. That suggested that birds weren't afraid of the feathers themselves.
“It was really interesting to discover that birds were using a trick to help them keep their nests.” Wiebe says. When a bird leaves its nest to search for food, that opens the door for a nest stealer. “But if it can buy a little time by scaring away predators with these feathers, then it has a better chance of coming back in time to defend its nest site.”
28．What makes the competition for nests intense among birds?
A. The warmth of nests. B. The cruelty of predators.
C. The color of feathers. D. The quantity of holes.
29．Why did scientists set up pairs of nesting boxes?
A. To prove that birds are good at decorating their nests.
B. To explore when birds compete for nests most severely.
C. To test whether birds send messages through decoration.
D. To investigate if birds are afraid of the feathers themselves.
30．Which of the flowing nesting boxes are birds unwilling to enter?
A. The one with white feathers outside. B. The one with white feathers inside.
C. The one with black feathers outside. D. The one with black feathers inside.
31．By writing the passage, the author intends to tell us that_______________.
A. birds compete with each other for nests.
B. birds' living environment faces great risks.
C. birds may scare off competitors with a trick.
D. birds' feathers can guarantee their nests' safety.
D
The FIFA World Cup Trophy is arguably one of the most iconic(偶像的) prizes in the sporting world. So far, two different trophies（奖杯）have been used in the history of the FIFA World Cups.
The Jules Rimet Trophy was the first trophy awarded to the winners of the FIFA World Cups. Initially, the old trophy was originally named “Victory”. However, this trophy was renamed “the Jules Rimet Trophy” in 1946. This change was made to honor former FIFA president Jules Rimet, who voted to organize the first FIFA World Cup in 1930. French sculptor Abel Lafleur designed the trophy in 1930. The trophy was 14 inches in height and weighed 8.4 pounds. It was comprised of a winged representation of Nike, the Greek Goddess of Victory and was inspired by the Nike of Samothrace statue.
Uruguay became the first champion and kept the trophy in 1930. The trophy was eventually retired when Brazil won the World Cup final for the third time in 1970. Following their success in Mexico, Brazil was allowed to keep the trophy permanently. Following the retirement of the Jules Rimet Trophy, FIFA needed a new cup. Eventually, Italian artist Silvio Gazzaniga’s design was selected as the new World Cup trophy.
The modern FIFA World Cup trophy describes two human figures holding the earth on top of their heads. The base of the trophy has “FIFA World Cup” engraved(刻). Furthermore, following every World Cup, the name of the winning team and the winning year is also engraved at the base. The trophy weighs 13.61 pounds. Unlike the Jules Rimet Trophy, the winning nations and future winners don’t get to hold the original trophy anymore. The new regulations state that it remains in FIFA’s possession. Instead, winners are given a gold-plated bronze replica（青铜复制品）provided by FIFA. West Germany was the first nation to lift the modern World Cup trophy in 1974.
The new trophy can hold up to seventeen names and years and is likely to be retired following the 2038 World Cup.
32．Why was the first World Cup trophy renamed?
A. To remember the designer of the cup.
B. To welcome a new global soccer event.
C. To expand the popularity of the World Cup.
D. To show great respect for the former FIFA president.
33．Which country has won the Jules Rimet Trophy three times?
A. Italy. B. Mexico. C. Brazil. D. Uruguay.
34．How is the modern FIFA World Cup trophy different from the previous one?
A. It is made of gold and bronze.
B. It is owned by FIFA instead of the winners.
C. It bears the word “Victory” at the bottom.
D. It varies the design every seventeen years.
35．What is the text mainly about?
A. The rules of the World Cup.
B. The history of the World Cup trophy.
C. The growing trend of watching the World Cup.
D. The inspiration for creating the World Cup trophy.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的七个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Why clever friends make you smarter?
Next time you raise an eyebrow at the views of your partner, friend, sibling(兄弟姊妹) or colleague , remember they could be helping to make you smarter. New research shows that intelligence is not fixed but can be improved throughout adulthood by family members, bright mates and intellectually stretching careers. Active households where people talk, make jokes and challenge each other can improve IQ levels by several points.
36 Current scientific consensus suggests that intelligence is controlled by genes, with environmental factors such as schooling and nutrition playing a part up to this age.
37
But James Flynn, a professor of political studies and psychology at the University of Otago in New Zealand, argues that people can ‘upgrade’ their own intelligence throughout their lives. He believes intellectual stimulation(刺激) from others is extremely vital as the ‘brain seems to be rather like a muscle’. 38 However, it is also true otherwise – so people who share a home or workplace with the intellectually challenged risk seeing their IQ levels fall as a result.
Professor Flynn analyzed US intelligence tests from the last 65 years and correlated the results with people’s ages. This enabled him to produce new IQ age tables. He found the cognitive (认知) quality of a family changes the IQs of all members, especially children. 39
Professor Flynn concluded that although genetics and early life experiences determine about 80 percent of intelligence, the remaining 20 percent is linked to lifestyle. This means that people can raise their IQ, or allow it to fall, by ten points or more. 40
A．After this point, IQ scores stabilize.
B．The more you use it, the stronger it gets.
C．However, children with a low IQ could gain six to eight points.
D．The study challenges the commonly held view that intelligence is fixed by the age of about 18.
E．Professor Flynn’s book, Does Your Family Make You Smarter? comes out next month.
F．To improve IQ levels is to socialize with bright friends, find an intellectually -challenging
job and marry someone cleverer.
G．It can lift or hold them back, depending on the gap between their brightness and that of
their siblings and parents.
第三部分：语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
This Saturday, Ana Wolff, the famous pianist, would perform at the concert hall. The music teacher, Mr. Leaf, had asked Elizabeth to 41 the flowers to Ms Wolff after the performance. Why did he have to choose her? Elizabeth hated 42 reports, plays at the church---anything where she had to talk in front of people.
But Elizabeth kept practicing. "Beautiful flowers for a beautiful performance…”
43 , the concert arrived. At the concert hall, Elizabeth took her seats with the bouquet(束) of red roses. Mr. Leaf hurried past.
“All set, Elizabeth?” he asked. Her stomach 44 , but she nodded at him. Onstage Ms. Wolff bowed, walked to the piano and took her seat. Then Ms. Wolff's fingers danced across the
45 . Drawn into the music, Elizabeth forgot for a moment about the six words she had to say.
Right before Ms. Wolff's last piece, Elizabeth 46 backstage.
The 47 moment was almost here. Ms Wolff played her final chord(和弦). Applause
48 through the hall. With the roses, Elizabeth walked 49 towards Ms. Wolff. Sweat
50 down Elizabeth's face. Finally she arrived where Ms Wolff was standing. She 51
the words, but no sound came out. Elizabeth tried again. The words felt 52 in her windpipe.
She began to see 53 in front of her eyes.
“This is it,” Elizabeth thought. She took a deep breath and said,"Beaut… Beautiful flowers
for a beautiful performance!" She handed the roses to Ana Wolff.
Her eyes flashed with 54 . “I made it. I 55 that fear and went out there anyway.”
She thought aloud.
41．A. reward B. picture C. present D. deliver
42．A. oral B. live C. autonomous D. authentic
43． A. Gradually B. Permanently C. Instantly D. Eventually
44． A. sank B. tightened C. loosened D. lowered
45． A. air B. notes C. keys D. strings
46． A. slipped B. stepped C. paced D. exited
47． A. cheerful B. fearful C. thrilling D. disappointing
48． A. flashed B. thundered C. spread D. arose
49． A. swiftly B. gently C. slowly D. quietly
50． A. lay B. hung C. lowered D. streamed
51． A. shouted B. mouthed C. fired D. aimed
52． A. stuck B. chewed C. lost D. buried
53． A. shadows B. threads C. dots D. blocks
54． A. joy B. sorrow C. relief D. despair
55．A. doubled B. digested C. fueled D. swallowed
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In the ancient city of Suzhou in east China’s Jiangsu Province, American lawyer Dudek built a private museum where visitors can have direct contact with all the exhibits on display.
“The museum 56 (name) Six Arts because it is about stimulating all of your senses. You can touch things. You can smell things. It's different 57 other museums,”said Dudek.
Founded in 2018, the four-story museum now houses more than 40,000 Chinese antiques, with
another 60,000 items 58 (store)in warehouses. The antiques include wooden beds, folding
screens, sedan chairs, washbasins and stone statues.
“The collections not only help revisit old times but also express a sense of beauty,” said Xu Yun,
59 visitor from Shanghai. “There is even a smell of herbs coming from the medicine 60
(box) here.” Xu Yun said that most of the antiques were items of daily use in Chinese families
before the 1990s, 61 have been paled in comparison with new designs and styles.
Having never seen or used such items in his own country, Dudek is seized with a strong
62 (admire) of the delicate designs and complicated carvings of these old items.
“I think they are just beautiful, and I should collect them," said Dudek, 63 (add) that
most items may get eclipsed(黯淡失色) once 64 (random) packed in the warehouses or
ramshackle(摇摇欲坠的) residences, 65 they could shine again via careful renovation(修复)
and waxing.
第四部分：写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 应用文（满分15分）
假定你是李华，你的美国朋友Peter在写给你的邮件中提到他对你校正在提倡的节约粮食感兴趣。他向你询问有关情况，请你给他回信，内容包括：
1．具体措施。
2．活动的意义。
注意：
1．写作词数应为 80 左右；
2．请按如下格式作答。
Dear Peter,
How are you doing lately. _____________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
Yours, sincerely
Li Hua
第二节 读后续写（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。续写的词数应为150左右。
The Price of a Dream
I grew up in a poor family with six brothers, three sisters-- a group of foster kids, my father,
and my wonderful mother. We had little money and few goods, but plenty of love and attention. I
was happy and energetic. I understood that no matter how poor a person was, he could still afford a
dream.
My dream was athletics. By the time I was sixteen, I could throw a ninety-mile-per-hour
fastball and hit anything moving on the football feld. I was also lucky. My high-school coach was
Ollie Jarvis, who not only believed in me, but taught me how to believe in myself. One particular
incident with my coach Jarvis changed my life forever.
It was the summer holiday in senior two and a friend recommended me for a summer job.
This meant a chance for money in my pocket, certainly, money for a new bike and new clothes,
and the start of savings for a house for my mother. The prospect of this summer job was attractive,
and I wanted to jump at the opportunity.
Then I realized I would have no choice but to quit summer training to handle the work
schedule. However, I was afraid of telling my coach, and I encouraged myself with the advice
my mother offered us, “If you make your bed, you have to lie in it.”
When I told my coach Jarvis, he was as mad as I expected him to be. “You have your whole
life to work,” he said, “but your playing days are limited. You can’t afford to waste them.”
注意：
1．续写词数应为150左右；
2．请按如下格式作答。
I stood before him with my head hanging,
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
That question made me realize the difference between wanting something right now and
having a long-term goal.
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
2. 请按如下格式作答。
湖北省2023年高考冲刺模拟试卷
英语试题（七）参考答案
第一部分：听力
1—5 AACCB 6—10 BACAC 11—15 ACCBA 16—20 BCBAB
第二部分：阅读理解
21—23 BDC 24—27 CABD 28—31 DCBC 32—35 DCBB
七选五：
36—40 DABGF
完型填空
41—45 CADBC 46—50 ABBCD 51—55 BACAD
语法填空：
56. is named 57. from 58. stored 59. a 60. boxes
61. which 62. admiration 63. adding 64. randomly 65. but
第四部分：小作文
应用文写作：
Dear Peter,
How are you doing lately? I’m delighted that you show great interest in the campaign SAVING FOOD being carried out in our school.
Admittedly, wasting food is a universal phenomenon in our school, but we teenagers who have always lived an ample life and never suffered hunger, just turn a blind eye to it. However, the outbreak of COVID-19 has woken us up to the fact that food is not always accessible. So a campaign for saving food springs up. Posters, radio programs and lectures come flooding. Of course, relevant regulations and rules are introduced. We students volunteer to supervise and urge each other. You see, with those measures carried out, I dare say, seldom can we find any food in trash bins. And with the idea of saving food deeply rooted in our mind, we’ll be more economical and consume more sensibly. Of course, we’re to have the sense to fight jointly for the future of our motherland and even the whole world.
读后续写：
I stood before him with my head hanging, combing every corner of my mind for the proper words that would explain to him why my dream of buying my mom a house and having money in my pocket was worth facing his disappointment to me, but in vain. “How much are you going to
make at this job, son?” he demanded, still annoyed. “$3.25 per hour,” I replied, not looking him in the eye. “Well,” he said. “Is $3.25 an hour the price of a dream?”
That question made me realize the difference between wanting something right now and
having a long-term goal. I threw myself to baseball training like mad that summer and within the
year I was chosen by a famous professional baseball team and offered a $20,000 contract. I turned
it down, since I already had a baseball scholar-ship to the University of Arizona, which led me to
higher education and offered me more professional training. I signed with the Boston Red
Sox in 1984 for $1.7 million, and bought my mother the house of my dream.
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