江苏省南通市如皋市2022-2023学年七年级下学期6月期末英语试题（含答案）

这是一份江苏省南通市如皋市2022-2023学年七年级下学期6月期末英语试题（含答案），共24页。试卷主要包含了听力部分，单项选择，完形填空，阅读理解，词汇，短文填空，阅读与回答问题，句子翻译等内容，欢迎下载使用。

2022-2023学年度第二学期七年级期末学业质量监测试卷
英 语
（时间：120分钟，总分：150分）
第I卷（选择题共80分）
一、听力部分（本题共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
第一部分 听对话回答问题。
1.What is the boy going to buy for his mum?

2.What does the girl's mum hope the girl can be?

3.Where is the shopping mall?

4.What can make the girl happy?

5.Which animal are they talking about?
A. The ant. B. The camel. C. The snake.
6.Where will Cathy go next Sunday?
A. To the park. B. To a bookshop. C. To a library.
7.When did they get to Shanghai?
A. At 2:30 p.m.. B. At 2:00 p.m.. C. At 11 a.m..
8.How many buildings are there in the boy's school?
A. Two. B. Four. C. Six.
9.How long is the Yellow River?
A. About 5,464 km. B. About 5,646 km. C. About 540,464 km.
10.How often does the boy have a swimming lesson?
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Every day.
第二部分 听对话或短文，回答问题。
听一段对话，回答第11-12小题。
11.Where are they going after lunch?
A. To the cinema. B. To a sports center. C. To a museum.
12.When will the film start?
A. At 11:30. B. At 12:30. C. At 1 p.m..
听第一篇短文，回答第13-15小题。请根据短文内容，选择正确答案，完成信息记录表。
How to save ourselves in a big fire
In a 13 house
We should keep the door closed and open the window to shout for help.
Clothes are on fire
We shouldn't 14 with the burning clothes. We should lie down on the ground and roll from side to side.
Try to get help
We should call 119 in time. We must tell firemen 15 we are and what is on fire. We shouldn't go back to save anything.

13.A. falling B. burning C. flying
14.A. run B. sleep C. ride
15.A. what B. how C. where
听第二篇短文，回答第16-20小题。
16.Which places do US students usually choose for camping?
A. Lakes and mountains. B. The forest and the park. C. Lakes and city centers.
17.What is the most important when camping?
A. To stay safe. B. To put up a tent. C. To decide the place to camp.
18.What can keep them safe from danger?
A. Clean water. B.A knife. C. Enough food.
19.What can they do when they get lost?
A. Cry forhelp. B. Read a map. C. Hide themselves in a tent.
20.What is fit for long walks?
A. Light trousers. B.A fur coat. C. A pair of leather boots.
二、单项选择（本题共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
从A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
21.-What's the name of elephant over there?
-Oh, it's Beibei. It's amazing elephant. It can draw well.
A. a; an B. a; the C. the; the D. the; an
22.Would you please your telephone number? I didn't hear you well just now.
A. remember B. repeat C. reply D. recommend
23.— I ride a bike when I was three years old, mum?
—No . You learned to ride it two years later.
A. Could B. May C. Can D. Must
24.—What does the on the street say, Dad?
—It says we can't turn left here between 7:00 a.m. and 8:00 a.m..
A. message B. information C. notice D. sign
25.The baby next door must be tired. He sounds after crying for such a long time.
A. weak B. noisy C. strange D. excited
26.When you are cleaning the park, the rubbish with your hands wearing gloves. They can protect your hands.
A. put up B. put out C. pick up D. pick out
27.—Tom is not to take care of his little sister without their parents at home.
—Why not ask a neighbour for help?
A. too young B. too old C. young enough D. old enough
28. Ben didn't put out the fire after the picnic. he was!
A. How carefully B. What a careful boy
C. How carelessly D. What a careless boy
29.Alone, a lonely stranger in a foreign land,
I doubly pine for kinsfolk （亲戚）on a .
I know my brothers would, with dogwood spray in hand,
Climb the mountain and think of me so far away.
Which word can we use in the blank to make the poem rhyme?
A. festival B. holiday C. party D. meeting
30. —What nice music you played just now!
—I will practice harder after class.
A. That's great. B. Thanks. C. Really? D. Sure.
三、完形填空（本题共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
请认真阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
I'm good in school. I do my work and study a lot, but for some reason, I have a very bad habit of 31 things.
Last summer, I was on holiday with my family at the 32 . On the first day, my father gave me a new 33 because I lost one the year before. “You need to have a watch, so take good care of this one,” he said. The next day, I went swimming. The sun was shining on the water. The water was 34 and beautiful. I swam for a long time. I really 35 being in the water.
By the time I came back to shore, I was 36 so I lay down. At that moment, I 37 my watch and looked to see what time it was. But it was gone! I 38 all afternoon, but I could not find it.
That night at dinner， I arrived with my sleeves（袖子）pulled down， hoping 39 would notice that I didn't have my watch.
My sister asked, “What 40 is it?”
“ 41 Tom,” my mother said. “He has the fancy new watch.”
Dad looked at me and said, “Don't tell me that you've lost the watch!”
“No!” I said. I was afraid that they would find that it was a 42 . Just then, there was an announcement: “Ladies and gentlemen, someone found a very nice watch on the beach today. 43 you lost one, please come to the front desk.”
At once, I knew 44 I had to do. I slowly got up, with my whole family looking at me. I
went to the desk. There it was. It was still working. I walked back 45 the table and sat down. Everyone was frowning, but then my Dad smiled. He knew that I had finally learned my lesson.
31. A. forgetting B. breaking C. hiding D. losing
32. A. grass B. forest C. beach D. garden
33. A. watch B. lesson C. schoolbag D. job
34. A. cold B. warm C. dirty D. fresh
35. A. hated B. stopped C. began D. enjoyed
36. A. happy B. tired C. excited D. hungry
37. A. remembered B. found C. lost D. knew
38. A. played B. watched C. searched D. read
39. A. everybody B. nobody C. somebody D. anybody
40. A. date B. day C. size D. time
41. A. Ask B. See C. Hear D. Meet
42. A. question B. trick C. trouble D. lie
43.A. Because B. So C. If D. When
44. A. what B. how C. who D. when
45. A. past B. to C. along D. over
四、阅读理解（本题共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
请认真阅读下列短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
















46.How many symptoms are mentioned in the material?
A. Four. B. Five. C. Six. D. Nine.
47.What does spring mean for people with seasonal allergies?
A. Dust mites and mold. B. Cutting off the pet hair.
C. Beautiful flowers and trees. D. Having symptoms like itchy eyes.
48. What can people do if they have spring allergies?
A. Wear a mask and glasses.
B. Take medicine after going back.
C. Change clothes after taking a shower.
D. Open the window before leaving home.
B
It grows easily in tropical countries. Many people think it's a tree, but it's really a grass. There are about 1,000 species（种） of this amazing plant around the world． People use it to build houses，bridges and furniture（家具）.
There's a bridge in China nearly 2,000 years old that is made of this material. People use it to replace（代替）steel and wood， and it has a much lower cost. Many people think it a product of yesterday, but it could easily become a star product of the future. Why?
Well, for one thing, it's easy to grow. And it grows very quickly. How about three centimetres an hour! That's fast. But wait! In Japan, one species can grow more than one metre in one day! In Brazil, one species can grow up to 45 meters tall. Best of all, it can reach full height in about two months. In comparison, it takes about 50 years for a tree to grow up. Another unbelievable thing about this grass： when you cut a stem （茎） from it， a new stem quickly grows back to replace it.
What is it? You may already guess it. It's bamboo! In fact, studies have shown that bamboo is harder than the wood from some of the world's strongest trees. Its stems are strong and flexible. It's light, easy to work with and cheap to produce. And, it's good for the environment. The list goes on and on.
One more thing: there is only one animal on this planet that eats nothing else but bamboo. Do you know what that animal is? It's an endangered and protected species. It lives in China. It's black and white, and very cute.
You guessed it-the panda!
49.What can people use bamboo to build?
A. Beds, houses and woods. B. Bridges, chairs and woods.
C. Woods, chairs and beds. D. Houses, bridges and beds.
50.The underlined part In comparison in Paragraph 3 means
A.相比之下 B.更有甚者 C.总而言之 D.久而久之
51.Why do people use bamboo to replace wood because
A. bamboo is popular with giant pandas.
B. bamboo will become a star in the future.
C. bamboo is strong and easy to work with.
D. bamboo is harder than wood from all the trees.
52.What can we know from the passage?
A. Bamboo won't grow if you cut a stem from it.
B. Bamboo, a wonderful grass, grows easily and quickly.
C. There are about 100 species of bamboo around the world.
D. In Brazil, one species can grow up to 45 meters tall in one day.
C
I always hoped to get Most Valuable Player. Yes, MVP-the best. Win this award and others will see you as the best player on your team.
Back in Grade 6, football became my favourite sport. I watched the World Cup and I got interested. I wasn't the best player on the team at the beginning of the year. But after a lot of hard work, by the end of the year, I felt that I was the MVP.
As the football season went on， our team made it to the playoffs（复赛）.We finished second in the city. We were a very good team, and I was a big part of that.
Kenny was the captain（队长），but I had the most goals （得分） on the team. This was amazing because I had not played much football before this year. Kenny would always pass（传球）the ball to all his players.
At the end of the year, there was a sports dinner at school. People got awards for great performance. Everyone on the team felt that I would get the MVP.
At the end of the dinner， the coach（教练）stood up and announced the winners for the awards. The football coach got up and said, “The winner for MVP is.... Kenny.”
I was shocked.
After the event, the teacher came up to me and explained. He said, “You were the best player on the team, but you did not pass the ball. You were out there for yourself and not for the team. You have to realize that football is about the team, not about one player.”
That night, I did get an award. It was called the Most Improved Player. It was hard to learn from my mistake, and I was embarrassed by the coach's words.
But now that I am in Grade 9 and the captain of the football team, I feel that I have learned that a team sport is not just about “you”. It is about “us”. Now I am both a better player and a better captain because of this.
53.Why did the writer think their team was a good one?
A. Because they had a great captain.
B. Because they played well in the playoffs.
C. Because they did a good job in the World Cup.
D. Because the team went to the city to play football.
54. Which is true according to the passage?
A. The coach didn't think the writer played well.
B. The coach gave the award MIP to the captain.
C. The writer really hoped to get the award called MIP.
D. The writer became good at football by working very hard.
55.What lesson did the writer finally learn?
A. The football game is a team show, not a person's.
B. The MVP must pass the ball to other players on the team.
C. Only Kenny and the writer got awards at the sports dinner.
D. The best player doesn't need to get the most goals for the team.
56.What may be the best title for the passage?
A. Most Valuable Player. B.A good team.
C. Most Improved Player. D.A good captain.
D
Fruit tea，toys，handicrafts（手工艺品） ... walk out of your home and go to a night market when the sun sets and you'll feel as if the day just begins.
New kinds of night markets have come out all over the country. Some of the markets have the same opening hours, others have a pop-up style. Bringing in the latest fashions or copying ancient（古代的）Chinese markets，they have become very popular with young shoppers.
The night market at Xixili street in Haikou, Hainan has attracted many people. Different from more traditional night markets，“you can see pet culture（文化），handmade culture and other popular subcultures, ”said Wang Yaqi to China Daily, who is a student from Hainan University.
Xu Dongjie，a pet stall（摊位）owner at the market，told Xinhua that more people are interested in his pets than at her pet shop. For her, being part of the market is also a way to make friends with pet lovers.
In a night market, people can also have a taste of traditional culture. At a night market held in Haikou, 30 stalls brought back the look of streets during the Song Dynasty. Stall workers decorated their stalls and dressed up in the style of that period.
Many cities are trying night markets to make the economy（经济）better. The “Night Touring of Qinhuai” project in Jiangsu has become a local hot spot. In Chongqing, one night market is full of stalls set up in the trunks（后备箱）of cars.
“Shoppers enjoy the night market, and at the same time, it builds up the confidence of stall workers. It brings more jobs.” Liu Jiangyong, an official from Chongqing, told Xinhua.
The government has encouraged businesses to develop a night-time economy（经济）.Night markets play a big part in the night-time economy. The term “night-time economy” can be dated back to the 1970s in Britain. It means all economy activities that take place between 18:00 to 6:00the next day. This kind of economy activity began to take shape in China's coastal cities as early as the 1980s.
57.What does the underlined word “sets" in Paragraph 1 mean?
A. Goes up. B. Goes down. C. Goes quickly. D. Goes slowly.
58. Which is true about Xu Dongjie's pet stall?
A. It is as big as his pet shop.
B. It has better pets than his pet shop.
C. It has more visitors than his pet shop.
D. It helps him make friends with snack lovers.
59. What's the main idea of Paragraph 5?
A. People in Haikou love the Song Dynasty.
B. People sell clothes from the Song Dynasty.
C. People can feel traditional culture at night markets.
D. People like to dress up in the style of the Song Dynasty.
60.Which of the following is true about night markets?
a. They are very popular all over the world.
b. They give people more jobs to make money.
c. They are good for shoppers and stall owners.
d. Every city in China is trying them to help economy.
A. ab B. bc C.cd D.ad
第II卷（非选择题共70分）
五、词汇（本题共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
A.请根据括号中的中文提示、英文释义或句意，写出句中所缺单词，使句子通顺。
61.We don't need to buy breakfast. The （旅馆）will give free breakfast.
62.Lucy wishes to live in a house with a （花园）and grow all kinds of flowers in it.
63. You'd better find a (making very little noise) place and stay there alone until you finish your homework.
64. The fireworks in the sky were so beautiful that I couldn't (feeI sure that something is true) my eyes.
65.——Is Betty your neighbour?
——Yes. I live on the top floor and she lives two floors me.
B.请根据句意从方框中选择合适的单词，并用其适当形式填空，使句子通顺。
care bad twelve they noise

66.My baby brother is a little sometimes, but in fact, he brings much fun to our family.
67.It is his time to work as a volunteer to teach in a mountain village. How amazing!
68.I often meet Kate and Suzy after school because my school is next to
69.The engineer checked my computer to find out what was wrong.
70.The poor woman was ill and had to stay in hospital for some more days.

C.请根据句意从方框中选择合适的动词，并用其适当形式填空，使句子通顺。
feed happen become surprise not swim
71.Picasso's new way of painting the art world in the 20th century.
72.——You mustn't swim here. It's dangerous.
——Sorry. We here any more.
73．Zibo barbecue（烧烤） more and more popular these days because tourists can have a good time there.
74.Something strange in the house the other day. Now everybody is afraid to go near it.
75.Lily takes good care of her goldfish. She never them too much food.
六、短文填空（本题共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
A.根据课本内容，完成文中所缺词汇。
“Oh, dear! I'll be late!” said the rabbit. It took a watch out of its pocket and looked at the time.
How amazing! Alice stood up and ran (76)a the field after the rabbit. The rabbit jumped down a big hole. Alice did not want to let the rabbit get away, so she jumped down the hole too.
Down, down, down. Alice fell for a long time, and them she (77)h the ground.
She found herself alone in a long, (78) I hall. There were door all around, but they were all (79)l Alice saw a small key on a table, but it did not (80)f any of the doors.
Then Alice noticed a small door and put the key into it. The door opened!

B.请认真阅读下面短文，并根据各题所给首字母的提示，写出一个合适的英语单词完整、正确的形式，使短文通顺。
Dashrath Manjhi grew up in a poor family in an Indian village. One day, his wife got (81)h
and died because they were far away from the doctor in the town.
Manjhi wanted to make things (82)b for his village. The village wasn't actually that far from the town, but there was a mountain (83) b them. So villagers had to walk 55 kilometers to go (84)a the mountain. He decided to carve a new path through the mountain, so people could get to the town more （85）q ． With only a hammer（锤子）and chisel（凿子），he(86)s to work on it in 1960.
Many people thought he was crazy for trying to do something so big. But he (87)n
stopped. In 1982, Manjhi finished carving the path after 22 long (88)y of hard work. At only 100 meters long, this short road cut short the distance from the village to the town to
(89)j 15 kilometers. It helped people travel to the town much more easily and faster.
Manjhi died in 2007 at the (90) a of 73．His country gave him a state funeral（国葬）．Thirty years after Manji made the shortcut，the government finally paved（铺）the road and turned it into a major（主要的）road for people.
七、阅读与回答问题（本题共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
请认真阅读下面短文，并根据短文内容回答问题。
Giant pandas are China's treasure and are loved by people worldwide. In February, pandas including Xiang Xiang and Yong Ming have come back home. Before this，they were on loan（出借）to Japan.
Since the early 1980s, China has stopped sending pandas as gifts because of their falling numbers． In the 1990s， China started 10-year loans（出借）of pandas to other countries． Today about60 pandas are living in other countries.
This may lead you to question：How do overseas（海外的）zoos make sure they can give the pandas a comfortable life?
Wei Rongping, the head of the Wolong Shenshuping panda base in Sichuan, told that overseas zoos need to meet a few conditions（条件）.For example， there must be a healthy and safe environment for pandas to live in. Take Ouwehands Zoo in Rhenen, Netherlands as an example. In 2017, to welcome pandas Xing Ya and Wu Wen, the zoo built a Chinese-style panda house called Pandasia. It gives a panda couple a clinic （诊疗所），a cold bamboo storage room and a nursery for when they are ready to have babies.
Also, a giant panda may eat 12 to 38 kilograms of bamboo in a day. The zoo must give pandas enough food. Pandas Si Hai and Jing Jing traveled to Al Khor Park in Qatar in 2022. Every week, the park buys 1,000 kg of fresh bamboo from their hometown， Sichuan． Breeders（饲养员）there even learn the Sichuan dialect（方言）to talk to the pandas.
91.Why did China stop sending pandas to other countries as gifts in the 1980s?


92.How many pandas are still living in other countries?


93. What conditions should oversee zoos meet to borrow pandas?



94.What is Pandasia according to the passage?

95.Is it easy for overseas zoos to keep pandas? Why or why not?

九、句子翻译（本题共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
96．他们转过身但是什么也没看见。（but．．．）

97．我想邀请你来参加这个晚会。（would like to do）

98．我住在一个离伦敦15英里远的城镇。（live in．．．）

99．一些家庭养牛，还有一些家庭种植大米。（some．．．，others．．．）

100．她看到一个穿外套的白兔子正从旁边经过．（see sb．doing）

十、书面表达（本题满分20分）
建设美好社区，推动城市发展，你的城市正在举行“最美社区”的评选活动。假如你是李明，你想推荐你的社区 Garden Community参选。请根据以下信息，写一份推荐信。

注意：1．文章中应包含所要求的信息，可以适当发挥。
2．词数80词左右，信得开头和结尾已经写好，不计入总词数。
3．文中请勿提及真实校名及姓名。
Dear Sir/Madam,
I am writing to recommend Garden Community for the Most Beautiful Community.








I will be happy if our community can be the Most Beautiful Community.
Yours sincerely,
Li Ming.

2022-2023学年度第二学期七年级期末学业质量检测
参考答案
第Ⅰ卷（选择题 共54分）
一、听力部分（本题共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. B
6. C 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. A
11. A 12. C 13. B 14. A 15. C
16. A 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. A
二、单项选择（本题共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
21. D 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. A
26. C 27. D 28. D 29. B 30. B
三、完形填空（本题共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
31. D 32. C 33. A 34. B 35. D
36. B 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. D
41. A 42. D 43. C 44.A 45. B
四、阅读理解（本题共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
46. B 47. D 48. A 49. D 50. A
51. C 52. B 53. B 54. D 55. A
56. A 57. B 58. C 59. C 60. B
五、词汇（本题共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
61. hotel 62. garden 63. quiet 64. believe 65. below
66. noisy 67. twelfth 68. theirs 69. carefully 70. badly
71. surprised 72. won’t swim 73. is becoming 74. happened 75. feeds
【说明】A、B、C部分任何形式的错误均不得分，因书写潦草导致单词难以辨认的不得分。
六、短文填空（本题共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
76. across 77. hit 78. low 79. locked 80. fit
81. hurt 82. better 83. between 84. around 85. quickly
86. started 87. never 88. years 89. just 90. age
【说明】单词拼写、单复数、大小写、动词时态错误等均不得分。
七、阅读与回答问题（本题共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
91. Because of their falling numbers.
92. About 60.
93. They must have a healthy and safe environment for pandas to live in and enough food for pandas to eat.
94. A Chinese-style panda house.
95. No. Because it’s not easy to look after pandas./ It is expensive. ...(言之有理即可)
【说明】1)96-99题 所回答问题均符合问题要求，简单回答或完整回答，均给分。
2) 第100题内容只要符合问题要求，言之有理均给分。
3) 回答中出现拼写、单复数、大小写等形式错误（小错），一处不扣分，两处扣0.5分；出现语法、句子结构等形式错误（大错）一处扣0.5分，两处扣1分。 以此类推。
4) 在每个问题的答案中，如出现与该问题无关的信息超过一点（含一点）的，扣0.5分。以此类推。
八、句子翻译（本题共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
96. They turned around but saw nothing.
97. I would like to invite you to the party.
98. I live in a town 15 miles (away) from London.
99. Some families raise cows and others grow rice.
100. She saw a white rabbit in a coat passing by.
【说明】1) 每个单词0.25分，扣完为止，即每句最多扣1分，每题扣分不带入下一小题。
2) 无论哪种结构或表达，只要句子表达正确均得分。
九、书面表达（本题满分20分）
Dear Sir/Madam,
I am writing to recommend Garden Community for the Most Beautiful Community.Our community is in the south of the city center and it is next to a beautiful lake. It is a nice community with many green trees around. We can always hear the birds sing and smell the flowers here. Many people like jogging in the community and enjoy fresh air.
The neighbours in my community are really friendly and helpful. They are ready to help each other. Many of them are volunteers. They often help the people in need with all kinds of problems.
People in my community can take part in different activities. If you are interested in dancing, you can join the Dancing Group. Group members often dance together to have fun. Our community also has a “helping hands” meeting every weekend. You can get help from different people. Doctors there can make you feel better and artists are happy to teach you how to design the home.
My friends say I am lucky to live in this community. It is full of love.
I will be happy if our community can be the Most Beautiful Community.
Yours sincerely,
Li Ming.