福建省福州第一中学2022-2023学年高一下学期期末考试英语试卷(无答案)

这是一份福建省福州第一中学2022-2023学年高一下学期期末考试英语试卷(无答案)，共9页。
福州一中2022-2023学年第二学期第四学段模块考试
高一 英语学科 必修二模块试卷
（完卷120分钟 满分150分）
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the woman want to do?
A. Find a place. B. Buy a map. C. Get an address.
2. What will the man do for the woman?
A. Repair her car. B. Give her a ride. C. Pick up her aunt.
3. Who might Mr. Peterson be?
A. A new professor. B. A department head. C. A company director.
4. What does the man think of the book?
A. Quite difficult. B. Very interesting. C. Too simple.
5. What are the speakers talking about?
A. Weather. B. Clothes. C. News.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟：听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6, 7题。
6. Why is Harry unwilling to join the woman?
A. He has a pain in his knee. B. He wants to watch TV. C. He is too lazy.
7. What will the woman probably do next?
A. Stay at home. B. Take Harry to hospital. C. Do some exercise.
听第7段材料，回答第8, 9题。
8. When will the man be home from work?
A. At 5: 45 B. At 6: 15. C. At 6: 50.
9. Where will the speakers goy
A. The Green House Cinema. B. The New State Cinema. C. The UME Cinema.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10 How will the speakers go to New York?
A. By air. B. By taxi. C. By bus.
11. Why are the speakers making the trip?
A. For business. B. For shopping. C. For holiday.
12. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Driver and passenger. B. Husband and wife C. Fellow workers.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Where does this conversation probably take place?
A. In a restaurant. B. In an office. C. In a classroom.
14. What does John do now?
A. He's a trainer. B. He's a tour guide. C. He's a college student.
15. How much can a new person earn for the first year?
A. $10, 500. B. $12, 000. C. $15, 000.
16. How many people will the woman hire?
A. Four. B. Three. C. Two.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. How long has the speaker lived in a big city?
A. One year. B. Ten years. C. Eighteen years.
18. What is the speaker's opinion on public transport?
A. It's comfortable. B. It's time-saving. C. It's cheap.
19. What is good about living in a small town?
A. It's safer. B. It's healthier. C. It's more convenient.
20. What kind of life does the speaker seem to like most?
A. Busy. B. Colourful. C. Quiet.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
History Fair Competition
Understanding history is vital to understanding ourselves as a people and as a nation. History is much more than the study of dusty old objects and events long past. It is an essential part of who we are today and who we will become. Thornton fiddle School History Fair Competition makes understanding history exciting, engaging, and fun!
This Year's Theme
All participants must address how communication or transportation technology has promoted the quality of life for Americans throughout history. To many people, technology means computers, hand-held devices, or vehicles that travel to distant planets. However, technology is also the application of scientific knowledge to solve a problem, touching lives in countless ways.
Individuals or groups may enter one of the following categories:
·Performance.
·Documentary
·Essay Writing
Category Requirements
Performance: A dramatic presentation of the topic no more than 10 minutes long. If special clothes are used, they should truly represent a given period.
Documentary: A visual presentation （such as a video, slide show, or computer project）no more than 10 minutes long. A desktop computer, screen, projector, and loudspeakers will be available. Students must provide their presentations on CDs before Friday, March 23.
Essay Writing: An academic paper of 2, 000 to 2, 500 words. No illustrations（图解）are allowed. Please do not include covers. A list of references must be included.
Important Dates
January 5 Submit a topic proposal to your history teacher. The teacher may require a second proposal if the first is off-topic or unclear.
February 5 Submit a first draft of your essay, performance script本），or documentary highlights.
February 19 A committee of teachers will evaluate materials and give opinions. Students then have an opportunity to improve their products
March 9 Submit a final draft of your essay.
March 15 Performance and documentary committee preview
March 24 Thornton Middle School History Fair Competition
21. What is the theme of this year's competition?
A. Technology advances science. B. Science interacts with technology.
C. Science has made the study of history easy. D. Technology has improved the life of Americans.
22. What would a participant have to do with an essay of 1, 500 words to meet the category requirement?
A. Remove the references. B. Provide a cover for the essay.
C. Explain the details with illustrations. D. Include more information in the essay.
23. What will the committee of teachers do on February 19?
A. Make comments on the materials. B. Improve the participant's first draft.
C. Preview performances and documentaries. D. Collect a second proposal from the participant.
B
At England's University of Plymouth, Professor Eduardo Miranda has been programming pairs of robots to compose music. Miranda's robots have simple “vocal cords”（声带）and are programmed to sing and to listen to each other. The robots' unique warbling sounds （颤音）do not perfectly match the human voice, but each machine is exactly sharing music with the other in a new and unique way.
Each robot has speakers, software that mimics the human voice, a mouth that opens as it “sings,” a microphone for ears, and a camera for eyes. The robots also move. Miranda hopes that by studying his robot vocalists, he can discover something about how and why humans create, perform, and listen to music.
When the robots sing, 'first one robot makes six random sounds. Its partner responds with more sounds. The first robot analyzes the sounds to see if their sequences （序列）are similar. If they are, it nods its head and commits the sounds to memory, and the second robot notices and “memorizes” the musical sequence, too. If the first robot thinks the sounds are too different, it shakes its head and both robots ignore the sounds. Then the process continues.
Miranda set up an experiment in which he left the two robots alone in his study for two weeks. When he returned, his little warblers had, by copying, each other, not only shared notes but combined them. The product of their cooperation was far from symphonic, but the robots had begun to combine the notes into their own self-developed “songs”.
With the help of his warbling robots, one of Miranda's goals is to create music that no human would ever compose. Miranda believes the robots are ideal for this purpose because they would not be influenced by any existing musical styles or rules.
24. Which is closest in meaning to the underlined word “mimics” in Paragraph 2?
A. Identifies. B. Interrupts. C. Controls. D. Copies.
25. What did the two robots do during Miranda's experiment?
A. They interacted with each other. B. They ignored the unique sound.
C. They learned to sing better than humans. D. They committed random sounds to memory.
26. What does Miranda want his robots to do?
A. Sing as well as humans do. B. Create new forms of music.
C. Memorize a variety of music. D. Promote traditional musical styles.
27. What is the text mainly about?
A. Future robots. B. Special songs. C. Music by robots. D. Experiments by Miranda.
C
As data and identity theft becomes more and more common, the market is growing for biometric（生物量）technologies—like fingerprint scans—to keep others out of private e-spaces. At present, these technologies are still expensive, though.
Researchers from Georgia Tech say that they have come up with a low-cost device that gets around this problem: a smart keyboard. This smart keyboard exactly, measures the cadence （节奏）with which one types and the pressure fingers apply to each key. The keyboard could offer a strong layer of security by analyzing things like the force of a user's typing and the time between key presses. These patterns are unique to each person. Thus, the keyboard can determine people's identities, and by extension, whether they should be given access to the computer it's connected to-regardless of whether someone gets the password right.
It also doesn't require a new type of technology that people aren't already familiar with. Everybody uses a keyboard and everybody types differently.
In a study describing the technology, the researchers had 100 volunteers type the four times using the smart keyboard. Data collected from the device could be used to recognize different participants based on how they typed, with very low error rates. The researchers say that the keyboard should be pretty straightforward to commercialize and is mostly made of inexpensive, plastic-like parts. The team hopes to make it to market in the near future.
28. Why do the researchers develop the smart keyboard?
A. To reduce pressure on keys. B. To improve exactness in typing.
C. To replace the password system. D. To cut the cost of e-space protection.
29. What makes the invention of the smart keyboard possible?
A. Computers are much easier to operate. B. Fingerprint scanning techniques develop fast.
C. Typing patterns vary from person to person. D. Data safety measures are guaranteed.
30. What do the researchers expect of the smart keyboard?
A. It'll be environment-friendly. B. It'll reach consumers soon.
C. It'll be made of plastics. D. It'll help speed up typing.
31. Where is this text most likely from?
A. A diary. B. A guidebook C. A novel. D. A magazine.
D
For five days, Edmonton's Downtown Park is transformed into one huge stage where artists are able to share their talents, and where people are able to celebrate and enjoy themselves. Since its beginning in 1980, the Edmonton Folk Music Festival has been honouring the true feeling of what folk music is all about and that's the traditional togetherness that is felt when people gather to share stories and feelings through song.
This year will be the sixth year when volunteer Riedel will be offering up her time to the festival. “People coming off a busy spring and summer have a moment of relaxation,” Riedel said. “It's really easy to relax; and it's great seeing family and friends have fun together.” These families and friends come from all different kinds of musical tastes. People who take pleasure in Blues are there, so are people who love Bluegrass. This festival does its best to develop everyone's musical interests.
With so many years of experience, the festival has become a well-oited machine, and does whatever it can to make attendees feel as comfortable as possible. There are free water stations throughout the venue（举办地）for people to fill up their travel cups. When people buy food, reusable dishes are given a $2 plate fee, but that is returned when the plate is brought back.
The festival has completely sold out of tickets, and in record time. But with big names such as Van Morrison and Jakob Dylan, it's easy to see how that was going to happen. There is no parking area during the festival, so using the Park &Ride system or Edmonton Transit is highly recommended. A bike lock-up area is provided and will be available Thursday until Sunday one hour before the gates open until 45 minutes after the gates close.
The Edmonton Folk Music Festival begins on Wednesday, Aug. 4 with Van Morrison playing the special donation fund concert, and will finish up on Sunday, Aug. 8.
32. What's the purpose of holding The Edmonton Folk Music Festival?
A. To gather people with different musical tastes
B. To remind people of the real sense of folk music
C. To exhibit good voices of great talents in folk music
D. To collect old stories of folk music
33. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Riedel has volunteered for the festival for at least 5years.
B. It's hard for people to appreciate Blues.
C. It costs people a little to fill up their cups from water stations.
D. People have to pay $2 for a plate of food.
34. What can we learn from the passage?
A. People can get tickets easily for the festival
B. The Edmonton Folk Music Festival is well organized.
C. Driving one's own car to the festival is highly recommended
D. Bikes are available at the festival from Wednesday to Sunday
35. What would the best title for the passage?
A. Folk Music of Blues B. One Festival for All
C. Festival for family Gathering D. Edmonton's Downtown Park
第二节（共5小题，每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项。
With the development of modern society, we have almost no time for relaxation and enjoyment. So celebrating festivals is a good excuse to escape the boredom. There are many kinds of festivals. Some are funny and interesting; some are traditional or religious; others are national. 36
Festivals are a significant tool to bring unity to all kinds of people. 37 They act as a special occasion when families can develop stronger relationship and strangers can become friends.
38 Nowadays, everyone is buried in work on regular working days without time to take away all the mental tension and get cheered up. On festivals, we can spend quality time enjoying sweets and foods and make ourselves feel more relaxed.
Some festivals are observed to remember some important days, or a great time. We are given an opportunity to value those moments. 39 It is a time when people all over the world celebrate the very beginning of a year. This day reminds us that one year has passed and the new one is coming with new things.
For an individual, a festival is not just a day off, but is a lot more than that. 40 We should try to understand the deep meaning behind celebrating them and the message that every festival gives us.
A. Without them, we can't enjoy life fully.
B. Therefore, we should enjoy festivals to the fullest.
C. Festivals also serve to give a break from daily rush.
D. It is a time to give the poor an opportunity to smile.
E. At the heart of festivals is the nature of togetherness.
F. For example, an important celebration is New Year's Day.
G. Whatever they are, they play an important role in people's life.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空自处的最佳选项。
I used to hate being called upon in class mainly because I didn't like attention drawn to myself. And unless otherwise assigned （指定）a seat by the teacher, I always 41 to sit at the back of the classroom.
All this 42 after I joined a sports team. It began when a teacher suggested I try out for the basketball team. At first I thought it was a crazy 43 because I didn't have a good sense of balance, nor did I have the 44 to keep pace with the others on the team and they would tease me. But for the teacher who kept insisting on my “ 45 for it”, I wouldn't have decided to give a try.
Getting up the courage to go to the tryouts was only the 46 of it! When I first started 47 the practice sessions, I didn't even know the rules of the game, much 48 what I was doing. Sometimes I'd get 49 and take a shot at the wrong direction—which made me feel really stupid. Fortunately, I wasn't the only one
“new” at the game, so I decided to 50 learning the game, do my best at each practice session, and not be too hard on myself for the things I didn't 51 “just yet”.
I practiced and practiced. Soon I knew the rules and the “moves”. Being part of a team was fun and motivating. Very soon the competitive 52 in me was winning over my lack of confidence. With time, I learned how to play and made friends in the 53 . I never had so much fun!
With my 54 self-confidence comes more praise from teachers and classmates. I have gone from “ 55 ” in the back of the classroom and not wanting to call attention to myself, to raising my hand—even when I sometimes wasn't 100 percent sure I had the right answer. Now I have more self-confidence in myself.
41. A. hoped B. agreed C. meant D. chose
42. A. continued B. changed C. settled D. started
43. A. plan B. idea C. belief D. saying
44. A. right B. chance C. ability D. patience
45. A. going B. looking C. cheering D. making
46. A. point B. half C. rest D. basis
47. A. enjoying B. preparing C. attending D. watching
48. A. less B. later C. worse D. further
49. A. frightened B. motivated C. embarrassed D. confused
50. A. focus on B. act as C. rely on D. try out
51. A. want B. do C. support D. know
52. A. roles B. part C. mind D. value
53. A. process B. operation C. movement D. situation
54. A. expressed B. improved C. preserved D. recognized
55. A. dreaming B. playing C. relaxing D. hiding
第二节（共10小题；每小题1. 5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Diwali, known as the festival of lights, is a Hindu（印度的）festival 56 （hold）in honor of Lakshmi, the goddess of wealth. It has long been a cultural holiday, during which people get together, have 57 （party）, give gifts to each other and generally pray （祈祷）for 58 better future. For some communities, the day after Diwali 58 （mark）the beginning of the new year. Its dates change each year because they are based on the Hindu lunar calendar, but 60 （typical）, the festival is celebrated in October or November. During the celebration, people will often line candles and lamps throughout their houses and along their driveways 61 （light）up the surroundings. For Hindus, Diwali is a time for charitable （慈善）giving and selfless service. They are required to reflect 62 what they are grateful for and how they can shine light on others as well. Hindus traditionally perform a deep cleaning of their homes and surroundings, as cleanliness 63 （believe）to be a prayer for the presence of wealth and well-being. Hindus also celebrate with 64 （color）patterns of flowers, powder, rice or sand on the floor, 65 means bringing good luck.
第四部分 课文知识（共四节，满分25分）
Ⅰ. 语境填空（每题1分，共10分）
66. The old temple ________（date）back to the 15th century was rebuilt last year.
67. It is a c________ to eat Zongzi on Dragon Boat Festival.
68. Robots are doing things that previously only humans were c________ of.
69. If you can solve the r________ on the lanterns you will get a prize.
70. ________（equip）with much knowledge and experience, Mr. Wang is popular with the students.
71. The art gallery which is open to the public this term ________（以……为特征）works of students in our school.
72. Congratulations on winning the Best Singer A________!
73. There are a lot of difficulties in front of us, yet we still have f________ in success.
74. Not everything on the Internet is true. Instead, much of it is f________.
75. The historic building v（destroy）by fire in the past two years.
Ⅱ. 汉译英（每题1分，共5分）
76. ________________（每逢一个节日即将来临）, you will see various businesses taking advantage of social media to sell their products.
77. Believe it or not, beautiful music can help one calm down and ________________（度过艰难时期）more easily.
78. Parents should help their children to have ________________（平静而充实的内心）.
79. Every year, people celebrate the National Day with a variety of activities, ________________（包括从）the flag-raising ceremony to fireworks,
80. The wedding party lasted for a few hours, and everyone sang and danced throughout ________________（沉浸在欢乐的气氛中）.
Ⅲ. 根据课文内容填空（每题2分，共10分）
81. People celebrate to show that they ________________ the year's supply of food.
82. With the development of modem society and the spread of new ideas, some traditions may ________________ and others may be established.
83. Festivals are an important part of society. They ________________, beliefs, faiths and attitude towards life.
84. John Logan said, “Music is the ________________ .” And it's true. Music helped me recover.
85. I hope all of you will somehow ________________ music and make it a part of your life.
Ⅳ. 应用文写作（满分15分）
假如你是李华，你校将举办主题为“Protecting wild animals'”的英语演讲比赛，你将参加此比赛，请用英文写一份演讲稿。内容包括下列要点：
1. 野生动物减少的原因：（1）捕猎；（2）栖息地遭到破坏；（3）环境污染
2. 需要采取的措施
3. 合理的结尾
注意：1. 词数80-100左右（开头和结尾已经给出，不计入总词数）
2. 可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Good morning, everyone!
My name is Li Hua.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Thank you!