浙江省绍兴市浙江金华第一中学等2校2022-2023学年高二英语上学期开学考试试题（Word版附答案）

这是一份浙江省绍兴市浙江金华第一中学等2校2022-2023学年高二英语上学期开学考试试题（Word版附答案），共9页。试卷主要包含了 考试结束后, 只需上交答题卷等内容，欢迎下载使用。

2022学年第二学期浙江省名校协作体试题
高二英语
考生须知:
1. 本卷满分150分, 考试时间120分钟;
2. 答题前, 在答题卷指定区域填写学校、班级、姓名、考场、座位号及准考证号;
3. 所有答案必须写在答题卷上, 写在试卷上无效;
4. 考试结束后, 只需上交答题卷。
选择题部分
第一部分: 听力 (共两节, 满分30分)
第一节 (共5小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后, 你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题, 每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where might the speakers be now?
A. In a supermarket. B. In a hospital. C. At home.
2. How did the man feel last night?
A. Exhausted. B. Excited C. Curious.
3. What does the woman hope to do?
A. Take an exam. B. Get some guidance. C. Take a trip.
4. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. Where to meet. B. What sport to play. C. Which club to join.
5. What is the relationship between Emma and Tim?
A. Classmates. B. Teacher and student. C. Brother and sister.
第二节 (共15小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前, 你将有时间阅读各个小题, 每小题 5秒钟; 听完后, 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间, 每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料, 回答第6、7题。
6. How will the speakers go to the airport?
A. By bus. B. By taxi. C. By car.
7. When does the plane take off?
A. At 9:15 a.m. B. At 10:15 a.m. C. At 10:45 a.m.
听第7段材料, 回答第8至10题。
8. What did the man do in 2014?
A. He left college. B. He changed his major. C. He made a new kind of toy.
9. What do we know about the man?
A. He won a design championship.
B. He lacks interest in leading teams.
C. He has gained experience in marketing.
10. What is the woman doing?
A. Having a meeting. B. Hosting a program. C. Conducting an interview.
听第8段材料, 回答第11至13题。
I1. What is the man going to do next?
A. Go shopping. B. Pick up his sisters. C. Cook dinner.
12. What does the woman think of the man?
A. He’s proud. B. He’s helpful. C. He’s busy.
13. What does the woman ask the man to do?
A. See her aunts off. B. Make some new friends. C. Go to her graduation ceremony.
听第9段材料, 回答第14至16题。
14. Why does the man choose the 10 Harley Street?
A. The houses here are quite cheap. B. It is near his office. C. It has enough parking spaces.
15. What does the man care most about the apartment?
A. Its location. B. Its size. C. Its decoration.
16. What will the man probably do next?
A. Take part in a contest. B. Talk with his friend. C. Make payment.
听第10段材料, 回答第17至20题。
17. Who is the speaker?
A. A tourist. B. A reporter. C. A tour guide.
18. Why does the speaker recommend Top of the Rock?
A. It’s the cheapest. B. It offers relaxing drinks. C. It has wonderful views of New York.
19. What can people do on the second day?
A. Go for a picnic. B. Watch an art show. C. Visit Greenwich Village.
20. What is Three Lives & Company?
A. It’s a bar. B. It’s a bookstore. C. It’s a park.
第二部分: 阅读理解 (共两节, 满分50分)
第一节 (共15个小题: 每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的四个选项中, 选出最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Just as slang words, table manners, and other common customs vary greatly from nation to nation, so do rude gestures. The last thing you want to do when traveling to a new country is to offend (冒犯) the locals. Here are some hand motions you’ll want to be careful about making in certain countries.
Iran
What might seem to Americans like a universally positive gesture is not, in fact, universal. “Unfortunately, in Iran and neighboring countries, the thumbs-up is the same as the middle finger!” explains Dana Hooshmand, an author for Discover Discomfort. In America, the middle finger is the one showing disrespect; in Iran, it’s the thumb. So, bear it in mind to avoid making this sign to Iranians.
Malaysia
As a little kid, you may have been blamed that “it’s not respectful to point with your index finger!” especially if you dared pair the gesture with laughter. This is especially true in Malaysia. As a result, employees at Disney parks are trained to avoid doing this. Instead, if they must, they use two fingers — or, the common alternative is to point with your thumb (particularly the right thumb).
Thailand
In USA, patting someone’s head can be a sweet gesture, and messing someone’s hair is a playful one. But in Thailand, it can be a serious offense. The head “is considered the most sacred (神圣的) part of the body,” she explains. So keep your hands away from others”heads to avoid disrespecting.
Taiwan, China
According to the locals, pointing to the moon will offend the moon goddess. Her punishment for this is very specific: She’ll cut your ear off, or at the very least cut it in Van Gogh-style. So if you’re admiring a beautiful full moon in Taiwan, try your best to keep your hands by your sides.
21. What is the common reason for minding gestures in different countries?
A. Out of admiration. B. Out of curiosity. C. Out of concern. D. Out of respect.
22. According to the article, which of the following can visitors do?
A. Touching others’ head in Thailand. B. Pointing with index finger in Malaysia.
C. Making a thumb-up to others in USA. D. Aiming one’s finger directly at the moon in Taiwan.
23. Where is this text probably taken from?
A. A travel magazine. B. A novel. C. A biography. D. A science report.
B
Working at a bank in New York City in the mid-2010s, Anna Sacks was living the life—just not the life she wanted. Sure, she was happy. But she wanted to do something that felt important and was fulfilling on a deeper level.
Some people seeking meaning might read a self-help book or perhaps volunteer a few hours a week. Sacks packed up her life and moved to Connecticut for three months to participate in Adamah, a Jewish farming program that focuses on sustainable (可持续的) living and growing sustainable food. She returned to New York with a new purpose and a variety of new skills to make her dreams a reality.
“One of the things that really stuck with me from Adamah, which means ‘Earth’ in Hebrew, was how they handled the waste they had, primarily through composting (堆肥),” she says. “And I just thought, ‘Why aren’t we doing that here?’”
The Adamah program opened Sacks’ eyes to the damage that consumer culture is doing on a local, national, and global level, and the need to find solutions. So in 2016, she took a master composting course and started working with a food rescue program, which she named “trash walking.”
During walks around her neighborhood, Sacks, 31, picked through garbage to look for reusable items. Soon, her trash walks expanded to include company trash cans along with residential trash. Surprisingly, she discovered a wide range of really great stuff—like clothing, decorations, plates and food.
Sacks’ main focus is simply getting people to pay attention to how many unnecessary things they buy and then throw away. “Once you become conscious of the way you consume, you can see ways you improve,” she says.
24. Why did Sacks participate in the program Adamah?
A. She was concerned about her job. B. She intended to do volunteer work.
C. She preferred a more meaningful life. D. She expected to learn living skills.
25. What impressed Sacks most about the program Adamah?
A. The way they dealt with the waste. B. The sustainable food they produced.
C. The importance they placed on farming. D. The modern lifestyle they stuck to.
26. Which of the following best describes Sacks?
A. A farmer. B. A doer. C. A follower. D. A dreamer.
27. What does Sacks suggest people do?
A. Take part in trash walking. B. Reflect on consumption patterns.
C. Stop throwing away things. D. Avoid buying new items.
C
The Moon is attracting much attention these days as NASA is ready for its Artemis I launch and preparing for more to follow. The mission objectives are clear: develop a sustainable presence on its surface and pave the way to go to Mars.
And then what? What’s the next great leap in humans’ quest for the secrets of the universe? When it comes to the near future scientific exploration, there are a few areas of the solar system that will be receiving some special attention.
First off there’s Venus, a planet which was a relative paradise (天堂), with oceans and a pleasant atmosphere. Something went terribly wrong there a few billion years ago, and NASA has scheduled a series of missions to explore what exactly is going on there.
At the other end are the gas giants. Several of the satellites of Jupiter and Saturn are covered in thick sheets of ice, and underneath that ice sit oceans of liquid water. NASA has missions planned to investigate those mysterious worlds, hunting for any signs of possible life hidden deep within.
As for us humans, Mars is certainly the grand prize in the coming decades. If we have the adequate drive and funds, we can establish a semi-permanent presence on the red planet, keeping crews working and studying in person on the Martian surface. The other planets of our solar system are not so suitable for people to settle on. Mercury is too close to the Sun for comfort and too far away from the Earth.
Over the coming decades humans expect to see a rise of “space hotels”, set up for visiting tourists and scientific explorations. Naturally, turning the space rock into a habitat for humans is not very practical considering our current level of technological maturity, but in my best estimation, it’s the next easiest thing to accomplish... after the Moon and Mars, of course.
28. What does the underlined word “quest” probably mean in the second paragraph?
A. Question. B. Explanation. C. Request. D. Search.
29. Which is the least likely to be explored in the next decades according to the passage?
A. Mars. B. Mercury. C. Venus. D. Gas giants.
30. What’s the author’s attitude towards the “space hotels”?
A. Ambiguous. B. Critical. C. Hopeful. D. Indifferent.
31. What’s the passage mainly about?
A. The launch of Artemis I. B. The secrets of the solar system.
C. The missions of NASA. D. The areas of the future universe exploration.
D
The typical image of a knitter (编织者) may be a white-haired lady but in the 1940s, young male Royal Air Force pilots used needles as they waited for their next mission. Wartime pilots crashed a lot and knitting helped rebuild flexibility in wounded limbs (四肢) and meanwhile settle wounded minds. They were the basis of early occupational therapy.
Today, millions of people around the world employ the same technique. Occupational therapist Jill Riley was part of a team from Cardiff University that surveyed more than 3,500 knitters and found that the more frequently people knitted, the calmer and happier they felt. As one person surveyed put it, “That rhythm of making stitch (针脚) after stitch is like deep breathing. It’s a flow where you don’t have to stress about it and you’ve got the rhythm happening.”
“Flow” is a concept first named by psychologist Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi. As he wrote in his book Flow: The Psychology of Optimal Experience, “The best moments in our lives are not the passive or relaxing times. The best moments usually occur if a person’s body or mind is in a voluntary effort to accomplish something difficult and worthwhile.” An artist, Shauna Richardson, knows just how true this is. The artist spent 18 months in a state of flow when she knitted three seven-metre-long lions for the 2012 Cultural Olympiad. To complete the task, she says she had to concentrate all her attention and keep a state of mind driven by rhythm and process.
Csikszentmihalyi also describes the opposite to flow. He points out that although people are healthier and live longer, they often end up feeling anxious and bored and cut off from satisfying work.
Because knitting is so accessible — at its heart it’s two sticks and one stitch — it helps people build confidence in their abilities. After all, if you make a mistake, you can just pull it all out and start again.
32. Why does the author mention “a white-haired lady” in paragraph 1?
A. To introduce the topic. B. To make a comparison.
C. To prove the writer’s opinion. D. To give an example.
33. According to the passage, how does “occupational therapy” help people?
A. Filling their free time by doing handwork. B. Improving their bodies and minds by knitting.
C. Reducing their stress by breathing deeply. D. Perfecting their skills by completing a task.
34. How do people feel in a state of flow?
A. Anxious. B. Relaxed. C. Bored. D. Focused.
35. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Active Hands, Calm Minds B. Knitting: An Easy Skill to Learn
C. Slower Rhythm, Greater Confidence D. Flow: The Best Moments to Enjoy
第二节 (共5个小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分12.5分)
根据短文内容, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How to Cram (仓促准备) for a Test without Going Crazy
Do you have a test coming up you should have been studying for weeks ago? Don’t worry. You’re not alone, and all hope is not lost. 36
You must start with the basics. No, we’re not talking about the material you’re learning; we’re talking about the environment you’re in. Do it in a space that isn’t crowded or messy. 37 If you’re worried about spending more time cleaning than studying, some of other favorite places to cram include coffee shops, bookstores, and parks.
We already stressed the importance of an environment, but we didn’t talk about what you are using in that environment. If you have your phone with you, we suggest turning it on silent and putting it away. 38 Close any outside communication applications and remove distractions from your study site to completely focus on the task at hand.
39 When studying, you shouldn’t push yourself past your limit. Our general rule of thumb is to give yourself a break at least once every hour. Each of your breaks should last for at least 10 minutes at a time to ensure you are refreshed and ready to get back into it.
There are few things in the world as stressful as cramming for a test. Luckily, there are methods and tips to ensure you can still come out on top of your next test or exam. 40 Grab a pencil and a notebook and start cramming!
A. So, what are you waiting for?
B. The same goes for your computer or laptop.
C. You’re cramming, so it doesn’t have to be neat.
D. Electronic products will help you find a rhythm for cramming.
E. In fact, there are a ton of effective methods to cram for a test the right way.
F. If you study in an unorganized place, you will lose focus and the motivation to succeed.
G. It may come as a shock to you, but you should set up a timer to remind yourself of a break.
第三部分: 语言运用 (共两节, 满分30分)
第一节: 完形填空 (共15个小题: 每小题1分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中, 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Smith Justice and his son were coming back from the dentist, when they saw a homeless man in the road. Smith 41 to give the man some money, but didn’t have any cash. His son suggested giving the man the 30 cents he had. But Smith was 42 . He didn’t want to give this man just 30 cents since the man 43 needed all the help he could get. Moreover, his own pride and thoughts of the homeless man’s unknown 44 to receiving just thirty cents was standing 45 .
Smith told his son what people saw as a good thing was not good enough to make a 46 in someone’s life. But his son insisted. Smith 47 the window and said to the man, “I’m sorry, man. I don’t have any 48 on me but my son wants to give you everything he has right now.” The homeless man smiled, “God bless you, little man!” At that moment, the only thing 49 the brightness of the man’s smile was the bigger smile on the little boy’s face.
A chain reaction of kindness 50 behind them that day in Nashville, Tennessee, as other people rolled down their windows to 51 , too. Smith suddenly 52 that he was the only problem in this situation. He said, “My little boy 53 me by his actions that it’s always about the heart. It doesn’t 54 how much you have or how little. 55 love and sincerity will often bless others more than we think.”
41. A. managed B. promised C. intended D. agreed
42. A. confused B. doubtful C. tense D. hesitant
43. A. normally B. clearly C. secretly D. formally
44. A. reaction B. devotion C. objection D. solution
45. A. out of sight B. out of control C. in the way D. in the charge
46. A. fortune B. difference C. name D. commitment
47. A. rolled down B. reached for C. looked through D. lifted up
48. A. check B. card C. cash D. food
49. A. matching B. replacing C. reflecting D. showing
50. A. changed B. stopped C. remained D. started
51. A. greet B. smile C. chat D. donate
52. A. remembered B. realized C. accepted D. regretted
53. A. reminded B. comforted C. praised D. warned
54. A. help B. work C. mean D. matter
55. A. Returning B. Accepting C. Spreading D. Seeking
非选择题部分
第三部分: 语言运用 (共两节, 满分30分)
第二节 (10个小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分15分)
Is there anything nicer than a cooling ice cream on a hot summer’s day? This 56 (freeze) dessert is old, but our tastes and consumer habits are changing. How is the ice cream production process changing, and who is driving it?
The recipe is simple, just a 57 (combine) of milk, sugar and fat. But the process is complex, 58 demands time and energy to get the materials mixed, heated, and then cooled. Designers are working 59 (improve) the production process with new equipment. For now, 60 , even with the help of robots, it can take up to two years from testing a new treat to being available to consumers.
So, what new things can we expect? It is millennial (千禧年的) consumers who are driving interest 61 more flavours. They say the tastes for today’s ice cream products 62 (limit) only by our imagination. But according to Elsebeth Baungaard, 63 expert in economy, the next trend will be 64 (little) about innovation and more about size. “I’m sorry to say it’s 65 (simple) reducing in size”, she says, “but the quality will be higher.”
第四部分: 写作 (共两节, 满分40分)
第一节: 应用文写作 (满分15分)
假定你是校英语社社长李华, 社团将要排演英语剧Snow White, 需要选拔演员。请你写一则书面通知, 内容包括:
1. 选拔时间、地点;
2. 参选要求;
3. 期待参加。
注意:
1. 词数80左右;
2. 可适当增加细节, 以使行文连贯。
Notice



第二节: 读后续写 (满分25分)
阅读下面短文, 根据所给情节进行续写, 使之构成一个完整的故事。
Erika and the Necklace
Erika and her little sister Beth sneaked into their mommy’s room. “I’m just going to try on some jewelry,” said Erika. She took a necklace and tried to put it on her neck. “Oh, no,’ said Beth. “Mommy doesn’t like us playing with her stuff.” “Okay, you be the lookout,” instructed Erika. “Stand by the door and let me know if Mommy comes up the stairs.”
Before Beth got to the door, Bouncer, the family’s Bernedoodle dog, bounded into the room and almost knocked Erika down. The necklace went flying. It had barely hit the floor when Bouncer bit it and raced off.
“Bouncer! Bouncer!” yelled Erika. “Beth, help me get the necklace back.” The girls were hot on Bouncer’s tail. “Stop!” they yelled. Bouncer dashed down the stairs and into the living room. He stopped just long enough for the girls to get close to him. Then off he went. “Stop!” yelled Erika. “Beth, you go the other way. We’ll corner him in the dining room.”
Erika met Beth in the dining room. Sure enough, Bouncer was there waiting for them. He was down low on his front legs with his tail in the air, ready to play. “Grab him!” screamed Erika.
Just as Beth was about to grab him, Bouncer took off. He whizzed (嗖地移动) by Beth and Erika. “Stop, you troublemaker!” yelled Erika as she raced after him. The girls were getting close again, but Bouncer zoomed down the basement stairs. The girls raced after him. “I don’t see him.” said Beth. Erika scratched her head. “He’s got to be down here. He’s hiding.”
Just then Mom called to the girls. “Erika, what’s all the noise? What’s wrong? I heard you from the yard.” “Uh, oh,” whispered Erika. “Uh... nothing’s wrong.” she shouted.
Beth dashed up the stairs. Erika heard her telling Mom everything. “That blabber mouth (多嘴的人),” said Erika under her breath.
注意:
1、所续写短文的词数应为150左右;
2. 续写部分分为两段, 每段的开头语已为你写好。
Paragraph 1:
“ERIKA!” said Mom. “Up here right now.”



Paragraph 2:
Mom and Beth followed her into the basement (地下室), Erika carrying the snacks.



2022学年第二学期浙江省名校协作体联考参考答案
高二英语
首命题: 玉环中学 次命题兼审校: 学军中学 审核: 绍兴一中
第一部分: 听力 (共两节, 满分30分)
1—5 CABBA 6—10 CBACC 11—15 ABCBA 16—20 BCCAB
第二部分: 阅读理解 (共两节, 满分50分)
第一节: (共15个小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分)
21-23 DCA 24-27 CABB 28-31 DBCD 32-35 ABDA
第二节: (共5个小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分12.5分)
36-40 EFBGA
第三部分: 语言运用 (共两节, 满分30分)
第一节: 完形填空 (共15个小题; 每小题1分, 满分15分)
41-45 CDBAC 46-50 BACAD 51-55 DBADC
第二节: 语法填空 (10个小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分15分)
56. frozen 57. combination 58. which 59. to improve 60. however
61. in 62. are limited 63. an 64. less 65. simply
第四部分: 写作 (共两节, 满分40分)
Notice
To fuel our enthusiasm for English drama, our society/club is going to put on an English play Snow White and we’re recruiting actors and actresses.
The tryout is scheduled for 9 a.m. this Saturday in the school auditorium. First, fluency in English is a must, which will guarantee the audience better appreciation of classical English works. Additionally, passion for performing and team spirit are necessary, for the rehearsal is challenging and demanding. Finally, priority will be given to those with previous performing experiences.
Let’s explore the world of art together! Looking forward to your participation.
The English Club/Society
三、参考范文
“ERIKA!” said Mom. “Up here right now.” Hurrying upstairs, Erika could feel her blood rushing to her face. While she was trying hard to find an excuse, Mom’s voice broke in. “Where is he now?” asked Mom, with arms crossed. Not daring to look into Mom’s eyes, Erika just pointed to the basement as a reply. The three remained silent, wondering how to get the necklace back. Suddenly, an idea flashed across Erika’s mind. She went straight to the kitchen counter and took some snacks. “I know what to do. Just come with me,” she smiled.