浙江省嘉兴市八校联盟2022-2023学年高二英语下学期期中联考试题（Word版附答案）

这是一份浙江省嘉兴市八校联盟2022-2023学年高二英语下学期期中联考试题（Word版附答案），共16页。试卷主要包含了考试结束后，只需上交答题纸，上下文的连贯性等内容，欢迎下载使用。

绝密★考试结束前
2022学年第二学期嘉兴八校联盟期中联考
高二英语试题
考生须知：
1．本卷共8页满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2．答题前，在答题卷指定区域填写班级、姓名、考场号、座位号及准考证号并填涂相应数字。
3．所有答案必须写在答题纸上，写在试卷上无效。
4．考试结束后，只需上交答题纸。
选择题部分
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is the weather like right now?
A. Sunny. B. Rainy. C. Cloudy.
2. Where should the woman put the laundry soap?
A. In the closet. B. In the cupboard. C. On the shelf.
3. How does the man want to go to the palace?
A. By bus. B. On foot. C. By taxi.
4. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. A movie star. B. A concert. C. A dress.
5. What is the date today?
A. The 22nd. B. The 25th. C. The 28th.
第二节（共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。
6. Why is the woman concerned about the dessert?
A. She doesn’t like sweets.
B. She doesn’t like cheese.
C. She can’t eat milk products.
7. How does the man eat the dessert?
A. By itself. B. With water. C. With tea.
听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。
8. What is the man delivering?
A. Flowers. B. Balloons. C. Tires.
9. When does the party start?
A. At 2:00 p.m. B. At 6:00 p.m. C. At 7:00 p.m.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10.What is the relationship between the speakers?
A. Husband and wife.
B. Teacher and student.
C. Friends.
11. What is the conversation mainly about?
A. Advantages of playing sports.
B. School life.
C. Families.
12. What’s Mandy’s problem?
A. She feels lonely.
B. She is overweight.
C. She can’t focus in class.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What does the man want the woman to do?
A. Read a book to him.
B. Recommend a book to him.
C. Return a book to him.
14. What did the man last read?
A. War and Peace.
B. The History of Jews in Russia.
C. Great Expectations.
15. What kind of books does the man want to read now?  
A. More serious literature.
B. Ones about family life.
C. Best-sellers.
16. Who could the woman probably be?
A. A bookstore assistant. B. An author. C. A librarian
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What was the speaker’s final destination?
A. Paris. B. Vienna. C. Moscow.
18. How late did the speaker originally think she woke up?
A. 30 minutes. B. 10 minutes. C. 5 minutes.
19. What was in the backpack?
A. A pen and a notebook. B. Her glasses. C. A ticket.
20. How did the speaker feel in the end?
A. Angry. B. Happy. C. Worried.

第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 (共15小题，每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答卷上将该项涂黑。
A
Festival of Light, Longleat Safari Park, Wiltshire
Longleat is celebrating its 50th anniversary this year. Giant lanterns take the shape of some of the park’s animals, and there are also lots of characters in Beatrix Potter’s book, such as Peter Rabbit, Jemima Puddle Duck, Squirrel Nutkin, to mark the 150th anniversary of the author’s birth. There is also a 20-metre-high birthday cake.
▲£27.85, adult/£20.65, child/under-threes, free.
▲15Dec. to 2 Jan.
Christmas Glow, RHS Wisley, Surrey
The garden is glowing with giant lighted flowers. Some of the trees are brilliant, too. The glasshouse is decorated like a gingerbread house, and displays seasonal plants. There are lanterns around the lake. The cafe serves hot chocolate and apple juice.
▲£9.90, adult/£3.60, child.
▲20 Dec. to 2 Jan.
Christmas at Kew Gardens, London
Kew is a special place to visit at any time of the day or year, but the festive light show gives it a magical twist, as the mile-long trail through the garden is decorated with 60,000 lights. Some of the garden’s oldest and tallest trees are also beautifully lit along the way.
▲£l6, adult/£l0, child/£48, family/under-fours, free.
▲24 Dec. to 2 Jan.
21. Who are probably attracted by Longleat Safari Park?
A. Flower lovers. B. Garden lovers.
C. Lovers of animal characters. D. Big fans of shows.
22. How much is the admission to Kew Gardens for Mr. Green and his five-year-old twins?
A. £36. B. £26 C. £42 D. £16
23. What do the parks mentioned above have in common?
A. They are located in Canada. B. They are in the cheerful atmosphere.
C. They are free for kids under four. D. Their opening and closing dates are the same.
B
David Brown is known as the world’s fastest completely blind runner. He was diagnosed(诊断) with Kawasaki disease at 15 months old, which led him to completely lose his sight by age13.
Brown says he was living in fear for a number of years until he discovered his passion for running. After winning an essay contest, he earned the ticket for the Olympic Games in Beijing in 2008. It was at that time that he knew he wanted to compete himself.
Paralympic(残奥会) runners train and compete alongside sighted guides. At the Rio Games in 2016, Brown and his partner Jerome Avery ran 10.99 in the men’s 100-meter dash to take home the gold. Brown made his way to running from another sport. He explains that he lost his left eye when he was 3, and lost vision in his right eye over time. He played basketball as a kid, but was increasingly getting injured because he couldn’t see the ball coming. “I took the opportunity to run on the playground, and realized I had some speed there,” he says.
He pursued his passion at the Missouri School for the Blind. Brown started at the school when he was 11, and it was there that he really started running track.
He got to his first Paralympic games by writing about running. Brown was one of the 25 winners of an essay contest that got to attend the event in Beijing. He says he wrote about how he used sports to overcome difficulties, noting that as he grew up he struggled with depression.
24. What made David Brown decide to take part in the competition himself?
A. Winning an essay contest. B. Winning an Olympic medal.
C. Attending the 2008 Olympics. D. Attending the Missouri School.
25. What made David Brown change from basketball to running?
A. His change in personal interest.
B. The decline and loss of his sight.
C. The diagnosis with Kawasaki disease.
D. His participation in his first Paralympic games.
26. What can we know about David Brown’s essay?
A. It was inspiring. B. It was interesting.
C. It was pessimistic. D. It was depressing.
27. Which proverb best describes David Brown’s story?
A. All roads lead to Rome. B. Where there is a will, there is a way.
C. Every dog has its day. D. Hope for the best, prepare for the worst.
C
When you set a foot outside of your door to drop trash, go to a social event or go for a walk, thoughts like “I hope I don’t see anyone I know” or “please don’t talk to me” may run through your mind. I’ve also said such things to myself. Sometimes the last thing you want to do is to talk with someone, especially someone new.
Why do we go out of our ways to avoid people? Do we think meeting new people is a waste of time? Or are we just lazy, thinking that meeting someone new really is a trouble?
Communication is the key to life. We have been told that many times. Take the past generations, like our parents, for example. They seem to take full advantage of that whole “communication” idea because they grew up talking face to face while Generation-Y grew up staring at screens. We spend hours of our days sitting on Facebook. We send messages to our friends and think about all of the things we want to say to certain people that we don't have the courage to do in reality.
Nowadays, we are so caught up in our little circle of friends—our comfort zone. We love it that they laugh at our jokes, understand our feelings and can read our minds. Most importantly, they know when we want to be alone. They just get us.
Holding a conversation with someone new means agreeing with things that you don’t really believe and being someone you think they want you to be—it is, as I said before, a trouble. It takes up so much energy, and at some point or another, it is too tiring.
But meeting new people is important. Life is too short, so meet all the people you can meet, make the effort to go out and laugh. Remember, every “hello” leads to a smile—and a smile is worth a lot.
28. What do we learn about the author?
A. He likes to meet someone new. B. He feels stressed out lately.
C. He’s active in attending social events. D. He used to be afraid of talking to others.
29. What’s the problem of Generation-Y in the author’s eyes?
A. They rely on the Internet to socialize. B. They are less confident in themselves.
C. They have difficulty in communicating. D. They are unwilling to make new friends.
30. Why do many young people avoid meeting new people?
A. They think it troublesome. B. They are busy with their study.
C. They fear to disappoint their friends. D. They want to do meaningful work.
31.Why does the author write the text?
A. To stress the importance of friends.
B. To give tips on how to meet new people.
C. To encourage people to meet new people.
D. To display the disadvantages of Generation-Y.
D
Beethoven is undoubtedly one of the greatest musicians. He completed 722 musical works. Unfortunately, the master died while still working on his 10th Symphony (交响曲). Now, a team of musicians and scientists have used artificial intelligence (AI) to complete the artist’s final composition.
Dr. Matthias first came up with the idea to complete the composition in 2019. He thought it was an appropriate way to celebrate Beethoven’s 250th birthday in December 2020. He began by persuading an international team of music experts to help him with the giant task. They included music composer Walter and Dr. Ahmed, the creator of the AI technology for the art market.
Ahmed and his colleagues started the process by teaching the AI software with a broad range of classical music, and then, narrowed it to just Beethoven’s work. Meanwhile, Walter and his group tried to interpret the rough drafts and the handful of notes.
The team then began the slow and careful task of feeding the AI software musical notes from the unfinished composition. To stay true to Beethoven’s original composition, Ahmed’s team sent Walter hundreds of AI-produced musical note variations(变奏曲) every evening. Walter would listen to them and then select the one that he thought was closest to what the artist would have written. The AI team would add the music and rerun the software to produce the next suggestions. And piece by piece, the team was able to complete Beethoven’s 10th Symphony!
The composition was firstly released on October 9, 2021. Not surprisingly, it caused some controversy (争议). Critics believe technology should not be used to replicate the human creative process. Ahmed and his team agree with their opinions and say their AI software is not out to replace humans—it is just a tool to help artists to express themselves in new ways.
32. What is the purpose of the writer in writing paragraph 1?
A. To voice his greatest respect for Beethoven.
B. To compare traditional music and AI music.
C. To present the team of music experts’ hard work.
D. To introduce a new method to create music.
33. Which can be used to best describe the team’s work?
A. Inspiring. B. Steady. C. Challenging. D. Boring.
34. What does the underlined word “replicate” in the last paragraph mean?
A. Question. B. Replace. C. Direct. D. Speed.
35. Which of the following can be the best title for the text?
A. Beethoven’s 10 Symphonies Is Finally Staged
B. AI Helps Complete Beethoven’s Unfinished Symphony
C. A Team of Experts Conduct a Mission Impossible
D. A Controversial Way Successfully Interprets Beethoven’s Music
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项。
How would you feel if a colleague suggested you take a comedy class to improve your sense of humor. I felt stressed. 36
Yet according to Jennifer Aaker and Naomi Bagdonas, humor is not something you are born with or without. 37 What’s more, finding our funny sides strengthens relationships, unlocks creativity, and makes us more likable. It helps in any life situation. 38
I turned to Aaker and Bagdonas and they agreed to teach me how to find my funny bones. In our first call, we discuss the common misunderstandings that stop many of us in our comedy tracks. The first, Aaker says, is the belief that humor has no place in certain situations, especially at work. 39 But 98% of the bosses say they prefer employees with a sense of humor and believe they do better work.
They believe the power of humor that they also improve the ability to help people avoid difficult situations. 40 Research shows that people who watch a funny video before trying to solve a puzzle are twice as likely to be successful.
A. Rather, it can be developed gradually.
B. We worry that humor is not welcomed in the office.
C. Humor has been proved to increase creativity.
D. Some people just aren’t funny and I’m one of them.
E. Therefore, people eagerly sign up for the humor course.
F. Every joke follows the fundamental structure of setup and punch line.
G. If you feel uncomfortable making the jokes, leave them to someone else.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从41-55各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D)中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
At the age of 60, my father was hit by a car when he walked to a nearby supermarket to buy vegetables. After sleeping for two months in hospital, he finally woke up. His waking up 41 all our family. Unluckily, he didn’t know any of us. Doctors said his brain was hurt so 42 that he had lost all his memory. And his mental age was only five. We were sorry to hear about the bad news.
Since I was his only child, it was my 43 to look after him. He forgot nearly everything, but he did remember he liked sweets. I used the sweets as a way of 44 bad behaviors. I would give him one sweet 45 he didn’t sit on the ground, a second for stopping painting on the wall, and another for not trying to put clothes on the dog.
Dad became the 46 child in town. He broke my window with a ball and 47 our telephone in water like washing clothes. When I told him he was doing 48 things, he would answer smilingly, “I like that!” My son, then aged five, and two eight-year-old daughters, welcomed their 49 playmate. He would happily make them real cigarettes, and 50 his sweets with them.
It is eight years since the 51 . Dad has accepted the fact that he is the 52 of his three playmates but not a brother. He has also accepted that they grow taller but his 53 stays the same. Though it is still 54 to take care of him, he brings us a lot of fun. In some way I think it is a(n) 55 thing to look after dad like looking after a child. How many people can have the chance to care for a child-like parent?
41. A. excited B. calmed C. hurt D. protected
42. A. slowly B. strangely C. lightly D. seriously
43. A. idea B. duty C. favor D. habit
44. A. stopping B. performing C. accepting D. planning
45. A. so B. though C. if D. before
46. A. cleverest B. oldest C. bravest D. kindest
47. A. repaired B. designed C. answered D. cleaned
48. A. useless B. wrong C. kind D. impolite
49. A. foolish B. big C. shy D. foreign
50. A. show B. lend C. share D. sell
51. A. graduation B. invention C. mistake D. accident
52. A. teacher B. grandfather C. doctor D. uncle
53. A. weight B. age C. height D. look
54. A. tiring B. relaxing C. amusing D. interesting
55. A. perfect B. important C. easy D. happy
非选择题部分
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个恰当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Michelle Yeoh, 56 famous actress in Chinese cinema, made history 57 Sunday night by becoming the first Asian woman 58 (win) the Academy Award for best actress.
The Malaysian-born actress defeated 59 (power) competitors, such as two-time winner Cate Blanchett 60 five-time nominee(提名) Michelle Williams, and took home the world-famous award for her extraordinary performance in the film Everything Everywhere All at Once.
The film, where Yeoh plays a struggling laundromat (自助洗衣店) owner 61 becomes the rescuer of the universe, swept the Oscars with a total of seven awards, 62 (include) the best picture and the best director, making it the 63 (big) winner of the night.
“For all the boys and girls who look like me watching tonight, this is light of hope and 64 (possible),” the actress said in her acceptance speech in Los Angeles, California, the United States, to stress that one must dream big as dreams do come true. “And ladies, don’t let anyone ever tell you you’re past your prime,” the 60-year-old 65 (add).
第四部分、写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 应用文写作(满分15分)
假定你是学生李华,你校下周将举办室外草坪音乐节（Music Festival）。请写封邮件邀请你的英国好友Tom参加,内容包括:
1.说明写信的目的;
2.活动安排（时间，地点，活动等）;
3.希望他参加并表演节目。
注意:
1.词数80左右; 2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节 (满分25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Two years ago, homeless Minnie was adopted(收养) by a single rich woman. Life did get a bit easier but the little girl was still not happy. How she wished she could have a father!
One morning in class, Minnie’s teacher, Mr. Thompson, made a surprising announcement, making Minnie frown (皱眉) again.
“Kids, tomorrow is Father’s Day! And at school, we’re all celebrating it by having breakfast with Dads! All of you get to bring your dads or anyone you look up to as your dad to school tomorrow. We’ll all sit in one circle, share funny stories, and have breakfast together.”
“What a terrible idea!” Minnie muttered (咕哝) under her breath.
For the rest of the day, most kids were talking about their fathers: businessmen, policemen, engineers, and even an actor. Everybody had somebody who was a father figure, except for Minnie.
After school, Mr. Thompson spotted the sad little girl sitting alone by the school gate. “Are you all right, Minnie?” Mr. Thompson asked. Suddenly, the child hugged his legs and cried. Minnie told her trouble to her teacher and Mr. Thompson comforted her.
After getting home that evening, Mr. Thompson couldn’t shake off the sadness he had seen on Minnie’s face. Suddenly, he had an idea. He opened his laptop and put out a post on social media, sharing Minnie’s story and asking for a dad to volunteer for Minnie and show up to school the next day as her father figure.
Thirty minutes later, by the time the teacher checked his phone, he was shocked to see the number flashing across the screen. “50 volunteers? Am I reading this right?” Mr. Thompson put on his glasses and read through all the responses on his post. He was so surprised. These 50 volunteers all wanted to come and help Minnie.
注意:
1.续写词数应为150左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Paragraph 1:
The next day, Minnie went to school sadly, not knowing the surprise was waiting for her.
______________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2:
Minnie was confused at first, but when she saw those “dads”, she was obviously happy.


2022学年第二学期嘉兴八校联盟期中联考
高二年级英语学科 参考答案
第一部分：听力（共20小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 30 分）
1-5 CBACB 6-10 BCACA 11-15 ACBBA 16-20 CCAAB
第二部分：阅读理解（共两节，满分 50 分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 37.5分）
21-23 CAB 24-27 CBAB 28-31 DAAC 32-35 DCBB
第二节（共5小题；每小题 2.5分，满分12.5分）
36-40 DAEBC
第三部分：语言运用（共两节，满分 45 分）
第一节：完形填空（共20小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 30 分）
41-45 ADBAC 46-50 BDBBC 51-55 DBCAD
第二节（共10小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
56. a 57. on 58. to win 59. powerful 60. and 61. who/that 62. including 63. biggest 64. possibility 65. added
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 应用文写作（满分15分）
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后评分。
3. 词数少于60和多于100的，从总分中减去2分。
4. 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写和词汇用法均可接受。
6. 如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
档次
描述
第五档
（13—15）
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
—覆盖所有内容要点。
—应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
—语法结构和词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的词汇运用能力。
—有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档
（10—12）
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
—虽漏掉1、2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
—语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
—应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档
（7—9）
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
—虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
—有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
—应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档
（4—6）
未适当完成试题规定的任务。
—漏掉或未描述一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
—语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。
—有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
—较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺乏连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档
（1—3）
未完成试题规定的任务。
—明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
—语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
—较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
—缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
0
未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求无关或所写内容无法看清。
（二） 参考例文
Dear Tom,
I’m glad to inform you of the upcoming Music Festival to be held in our school. Knowing that you are interested in music, I am writing to invite you to participate in the festival with me.
As scheduled, it will be held on the playground from 5 p.m. to 8 p.m. next Sunday. Additionally, sitting on the grass and enjoying the tasty food and drinks, we will be fully absorbed in the attractive and fascinating performances. Furthermore, we also expect to see you on the stage. Then I’d be more than delighted if you could come and share this joyful moment with me.
Looking forward to your early reply.
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua

第二节：读后续写（满分25分）
评分原则
1．所续写短文的词数应为150左右(词数少于130的，从总分中减去2分)。
2．与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度。
3．内容的丰富性和对所标出关键词语的应用。
4．应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性。
5．上下文的连贯性。
评分标准
档次
描述
第五档(21—25)
—与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理。
—内容丰富，应用了至少5个短文中标出的关键词语。
—所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不会影响意义表达。
—有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档(16—20)
—与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理。
—内容比较丰富，应用了至少5个短文中标出的关键词语。
—所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。
—比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第三档(11—15)
—与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
—写出了若干有关内容，应用了至少4个短文中标出的关键词语。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但不影响意义表达。
—应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
第二档(6—10)
—与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
—写出了一些有关内容，应用了至少3个短文中标出的关键词语。
—语法结构单调，词汇项目有限，有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，影响了意义的表达。
—较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少内容连贯性。
第一档(1—5)
—与所提供短文和开头语的衔接较差。
—写出的内容太少，很少使用短文中标出的关键词语。
—语法结构单调，词汇项目很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达。
—缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。
（二）参考例文
The next day, Minnie went to school sadly, not knowing the surprise was waiting for her. She walked along the passage/corridor with her head down, failing to notice the line of adult men outside her class door. Mr. Thompson said her name after the other kids had introduced their dads to the class. Just as Minnie was about to say that she had no one, Mr. Thompson held her shoulders and said, “Minnie, I know you wanted to bring a father figure, and you thought there wasn’t one. You are right about that, my dear. There isn’t one father figure who has shown up for you; there are 50!”
Minnie was confused at first, but when she saw those “dads”, she was obviously happy. “You’ve really come for me?” she clapped in excitement. “Certainly, Minnie! Mr. Thompson told us all about you, and we wouldn’t miss it for the world!” one of the men said gently. The volunteers joined the other dads and kids for the day, taking part in every game. They had a happy and memorable day. After a thoroughly entertaining day, Minnie was thankful to those kind “dads” and they all promised that they would come to meet Minnie whenever she needed them.

听力材料
(Text 1)
W: It was sunny this morning, but now it’s becoming cloudy. We’d better get the jackets and rain boots out of the garage.
M: You're right. It might rain in the afternoon.

(Text 2)
M: When you’re finished, put the brush back in the closet(壁橱). The laundry soap goes in the cupboard.
W: I know. And the towels should be put on the shelf.

(Text 3)
W: It’s a long walk to the palace. Shouldn’t we take a taxi?
M: We'll miss all of the interesting sights. We could take a bus, though, and get off the buswherever we like.

(Text 4)
M: This dress would look nice on you, madam. I saw a picture of a movie star wearing one like this at a concert.
W: Yes, I like it, but I'm looking for something less expensive and more suitable for work.

(Text 5)
M: Did I miss your birthday, Rachel? I thought it was on the 22nd and it’s already the 25th.
W: No, my birthday hasn't arrived. It's on the 28th.

(Text 6)
M: Come and try this Indian dessert, Denise.
W: Thanks, but is there any cheese in it? I don’t like cheese.
M: Don’t worry. It’s made of milk, butter, sugar, and nuts.
W: It sounds very rich.
M: We only eat one or two pieces with tea after dinner.
W: That isn't very much. What kind of tea do you have?
M: Well, we usually have tea which is mixed with milk. Some people like it plain, but some people put sugar in it. We sit around and talk over tea and dessert.

(Text7)
M: I need to have my car repaired. It needs a new tire. Could I borrow yours to deliver some flowers?
W: I need it today between 10：00 a.m. and 2：00 p.m. to collect balloons for the birthday party. You can use it after that as long as you are careful.
M: I will. Oh, we are having a party this evening, aren’t we?
W: Yes. The party starts at 7：00p.m.
M: I can drive you to the party as well if you like. I should be finished by 6：00 p.m.

(Text8)
W: Did you know another benefit of making our children play sports?
M: Time alone?
W: I meant a benefit for them.
M: Well, it will help Greg lose some of his extra fatness.
W: Besides that, do you know it's good for their brains? A study was just done on this subject by a university in Chicago. The researchers found that people who play sports can concentrate on certain things better, like sounds. Sports also make you calmer inside, as well as better able to heal when you get hunt.
M: Mandy has a hard time concentrating in class. If this is true, playing a sport should help her do better in school.
W: I'm going to sign them up for soccer and tennis lessons today.

(Text 9)
W: Good afternoon. Are you looking for a particular book?
M: I don't really know what to read next. Is there anything you recommend?
W: Tell me what subjects you're interested in.
M: Oh, many different ones.
W: Well, which book did you just return?
M: It was The History of Jews in Russia.
W: So, you must be interested in history.
M: A little. I was mainly reading that book to find out more about my grandfather’s family.
W: I see. And what do you usually read for fun?
M: Comic books. But now I want to read more serious literature, like War and Peace.
W: That’s a long and heavy book. I’m going to recommend something a little easier to start with. It's fiction with some history included in the story.
M: Who is the author?
W: A famous English writer named Charles Dickens. You can start with one of his most well-Known works, Great Expectations.