江西省宜春市2020-2021学年九年级上学期期末质量监测英语试题

这是一份江西省宜春市2020-2021学年九年级上学期期末质量监测英语试题，共7页。试卷主要包含了听力测试，单项填空，完形填空，阅读理解，补全对话，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。

一、听力测试(共27分)
A)请听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一小题， 从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后， 你都将有 10 秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(每小题 1分)
1. What's Peter's advice?
A. T stay at hme. B. T watch TV. C. T g climbing.
2. Whse schlbag is this?
A. Michael's. B. Tm's. C. Bill's.
3. When will the wman have the picnic?
A. On Friday. B. On Saturday. C. On Sunday.
4. Hw much shuld the girl pay fr the tw tickets?
A. 10 dllars. B. 15 dllars. C.20 dllars.
5. Which festival d yu think it is tday?
A. Father's Day. B. Christmas Day. C. Natinal Day.
6. Why des the by still stay in the library?
A. Because the bk is very interesting. B. Because he frgets the time.
C. Because f the bad weather utside.
7. Where des the cnversatin take place?
A. In a htel. B. In a restaurant. C. In a supermarket.
8. What des the man mean?
A. He's satisfied with his jb. B. He's gt truble finding a jb.
C. He likes wrking in ht summer.
B)请听下面5段材料。每段材料后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段材料前你都有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。(每小题1分)
请听第1段材料，完成第9至第 10 小题。
9. Hw lng has Sally been away?
A. Fr fur r five mnths. B. Fr fur r five weeks. C. Fr fur r five days.
10. Hw many times has the man been there?
A. Many times. B. Several times. C. Only nce.
请听第2段材料，完成第11 至第 12 小题。
11. When did the wman find her wall et lst?
A. When she was talking with her friend. B. After she gt back frm her trip.
C. When she was ging t pay fr the ticket.
12. Which f the fllwing is true?
A. Nancy was waiting fr a bus. B. Nancy came back in her friend's car.
C. Nancy culd remember where she left her wallet.
请听第3段材料，完成第 13至第15小题。
13. What kind f music des Linda like?
A. Flk music. B. Pp music. C. Rck music.
14. What might they d tnight?
A. G shpping. B. G fr a drink. C. Stay at hme.
.15. What d we knw abut Sam and Linda?
A. Sam is interested in flk music. B. Linda asks Sam t g t a cncert tnight.
C. They ften eat ut near their hme.
请听第4段材料， 完成第16至第18小题。
16. What subject is Susan interested in?
A. Music and P. E. B. P. E. and writing. C. Science and writing.
17. Hw des Eric like music?
A. Easy but bring. B. Easy and interesting. C. Hard but interesting.
18. What can we learn frm the cnversatin?
A. Science is difficult fr Susan. B. Eric can play an instrument.
C. Eric and Susan have the same interests.
请听第5段材料，完成第19至第22小题。
19. What's the matter with Harry?
A. He failed an exam. B. He did badly in his lessns.
C. He lst friends.
20. Why des everyne think Nick knws mre than Harry?
A. Because Nick scred tw gals in the schl ftball match.
B. Because Nick played basketball better than Harry.
C. Because Nick gave the crrect answer t a questin.
21. Hw des Harry feel nw?
A. Happy. B. Unhappy. C. Ppular.
22. What can we learn frm the mnlgue?
A. Harry wants t ask Jack fr help. B. Harry desn't like Nick at all.
C. Harry is as gd as Nick in his class.
C)请听下面一段独白，根据独白内容完成下列句子，每个空格不超过3个单词。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。(每小题1分)
23. The name f the new is Answer That.
24. Frty-eight wi ll be n the prgram every week.
25. At the beginning f the quiz the questins are .
26. Each winner f this week will get
27. Call if yu wuld like t be n Answer That.
二、单项填空(8分)
请阅读下面各小题，从题中所给的A、B 、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。(每小题1分)
28. I can't tell hw ld the tree is , but it must be very ld.
A. quickly B. differently C. simply D. exactly
29. —— D yu knw where I can buy a beautiful skirt fr my daughter?
—— I Qinglng Clthes Stres. It's suitable fr teenagers.
A. admire B. want C. suggest D. prefer
30. The students didn't leave the schl the heavy rain stpped.
A. because B. until C. if D. when
31. Stnehenge is ne f Britain's histrical places and it receives many visitrs every year.
A. famus B. mre famus C. mst famus D. the mst famus
32.—— Hw are yu ging t start the machine?
—— It's easy. I can fllw the .
A. interviews B. inventins C. instruments D. instructins.
33. Nt nly Jim but als his sister, afew cities in the suth since they came t China.
A. have visited B. has visited C. visited D. visits
34. —— Culd yu please tell me ?
—— At 6:00 every mrning.
A. what time Tm usually takes exercise B. what time des Tm usually take exercise
C. what time Tm usually will take exercise D. what time will Tm usually take exercise
35. My bike is brken. It tmrrw.
A. repaired B. was repaired C. will repair D. will be repaired
三、完形填空(25分)
A)请先阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各小题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项。(每小题 1分)
Have yu ever disagreed with yur parents abut putting away the tablet(平板电脑) r turning ff a vide game? Mst 36 are having these fights. In 2018, Brigham Yung University and Deseret News made their American Family Survey. It shwed that the Number 1 37 fr parents f teenagers was t much technlgy.
If yu're in schl nw, yu may nt 38 a time when there were nt smartphnes and tablets everywhere. The iPhne was intrduced in 2007, and the iPad 39 three years later. But screen time is nthing 40 . When yur parents were grwing up, they. watched as much televisin as yu d nw, r even 41 . They prbably played vide games, t.
Mbile devices(设备) can cme with 42 everywhere we g: t the dinner table, t restaurants, int the car and int the bedrm when we're ging t 43 . They are planned t remind us t pick them up r keep using them at times. That's part f what makes smartphnes smart!But it als means that they are 44 trubling us while we're trying t have family time r fun with friends.
Scientists say t much screen time can cause 45 . Mre than tw hurs a day f screen time raises yur risk f being verweight. T much screen time at 46 stps yu frm getting healthy sleep. Children wh grw up with the mst screen time can have a 47 time ding well in schl. And many families fight abut screen time, which is n 48 fr anyne.
Make an agreement with yur family abut where, when, and hw yu are ging t use cmputers and 49 devices. N mre than an hur a day is enugh fr kids during the schldays. Parents shuld als put dwn their phnes. 50 yu d use a device, cnsider enjying it with yur family, perhaps by playing games r watching a mvie.
36. A. schls B. library C. families D. markets
37. A. fear B. happiness C. luckiness D. wish
38. A. frget B. remember C. take D. bring
39. A. turned ut B. lked ut C. gave ut D. came ut
40. A. cheap B. new C. small D. fine
41. A. mre B. slwer C. less D. faster
42. A. him B.her C.them D.us
43. A. eat B. play C. sleep D. shp
44. A. always B. hardly C. smetimes D. never
45. A. events B. questins C. prblems D. accidents
46. A. birth B. hme C. hand D. night
47. A. hard B. gd C. big D. busy
48. A. time B. fun C. wrry D. mney
49. A. anther B. either C. neither D. ther
50. A. After B. When C. Until D. Because
B)请先阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后用方框中所给词的适当形式填空。每个词限用一次。 (每小题1分)
death, try, general, thirteenth, with, similar, cuntry, sit, number, never
At eight minutes past eight n the eighth day f the eighth mnth f 2008, the Olympic Games started in Beijing. In China eight is a lucky 51 , and peple believe that it will bring gd luck. Millins f Chinese peple 52 t have an“Olympic baby”and in 2008 there were a lt mre births than in a nrmal year.
But why eight? In Chinese, the prnunciatin fr eight (ba) sunds 53 t the wrd fr “wealth”r“gd luck”.
Unlike the number eight, the number fur is 54 disliked in China. The number fur in Chinese sunds like the wrd fr“ 55 ”, s many peple think it is an unlucky number, which will bring bad luck. In many East Asian cuntries buildings dn't have any flr numbers 56a fur in them.
In sme Eurpean 57 , the unlucky number is thirteen. This is because Judas was the 13th persn at the Last Supper. Many htels d nt have the 58 flr. The flrs g frm 12 t 14,and there is n number 13. Sme peple will 59 sit at a table with 12 ther peple. They will ask anther persn 60 with them.
四、阅读理解(40分)
A)请阅读下面短文，根据短文内容从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。(每小题2分)
A
Franklin Swimming Training Schl
Jin us t discver a lifelng swimming jurney with ur experienced caches.
We have lessns fr all ages.
61. Where can yu swim if yu want t have lessns every Mnday?
A. At public swimming pls. B. At private swimming pls.
C. At public and private pls. D. At any swimming pl.
62. Hw much des it cst Tm (8-year-ld) and his father if they want t have l-n-1swimming lessns fr a mnth?
A.$100. B.$140. C.$150. D.$190.
63. Which f the fllwing is true accrding t the ad abve?
A. Yu aren't allwed t chse experienced caches.
B.1-n-1 students can get regular prgress reprts and prize.
C. Swimming lessns are available nly n weekdays.
D. If yu want t knw mre, yu can call Mr. Jnes 8622-5987.
B
Alfred Traeger was an engineer wh invented the pedal(踏板) radi fr the Flying Dctr Service. This helped peple cmmunicate with each ther all ver the utback(澳大利亚内陆地区).
Alfred Traeger was brn in Dimbla, Australia n 2nd August 1895. When he was twelve years ld, Traeger made a telephne receiver. He was always interested in engineering, and his hbby was wrking with radis. Jhn Flynn asked Traeger t invent a simple radi fr the Flying Dctr Service. At the time, many peple in the utback culd nt cmmunicate with a hspital because they were far away frm telephne lines.
Traeger's jb was t develp a radi that was bth a transmitter(发射器) and a receiver,meaning it culd bth send a message and receive a message. The radi had t be small, easy t use and cheap enugh fr utback peple t buy. Traeger carried ut experiments and set up a small radi netwrk cnnected t Alice Springs which is in the utback.
Traeger als had t wrk ut hw t prduce the pwer(电) t run the radi. He develped a machine that was turned by hand, but the radi needed bth hands t run it, t. He came up with a simple and cheap way. He used bicycle pedals t prduce pwer, leaving the hands free. Pedal radis were used by the Flying Dctr Service, neighbrs and friends wh culd nw cmmunicate scially,and the Schl f the Air, which brught educatin t children all ver the wrld.
In 1933, Traeger als invented a keybard transmitter. On 31 July 1980, Traeger died in Adelaide Australia.
64. Why did Alfred Traeger invent the pedal radi?
A. Because he was always interested in engineering.
B. Because his hbby was wrking with radis.
C. Because he was asked t invent a simple radi fr hspitals.
D. Because he was helped by the Flying Dctr Service.
65. What des the underlined wrd“it”in Paragraph 3 refer t?
A. The transmitter. B. The receiver. C. The jb. D. The radi.
66. Put the events abut Alfred Traeger in the crrect rder.
①He develped a radi that can send and receive messages.
②He made a telephne receiver.
③He invented a keybard transmitter.
④He used bicycle pedals t prduce pwer.
A.②④①③ B.②①④③ C.①④②③ D.②③①④
67. What is the passage mainly abut?
A. Hw Alfred invented the pedal radi. B. Hw pedal radis helped the utback.
C. What Alfred did in the Flying Dctr Service. D. What Alfred did t better pedal radis.
C
There is certainly mre visiting withut an appintment(预约) in Australia than there wuld be in England. All the same, yu have t be careful abut yur timing.
A very clse Indian friend talked t me nce abut hw embarrassed(尴尬的) he felt when he called n his friends shrtly befre“Tea”(the evening meal, r dinner in Australia). They wuld sit talking very plitely, but clearly waiting fr him t leave. In fact, they were dying fr him t leave as
time went n.
In Asia f curse, and many Mediterrancan(地中海的) cuntric s t, the prblem simply wuld nt arise: the family wuld naturally invite their friend t share the evening meal with them. But this kind f thing des nt cme easily t Australians, s d nt expect it. Instead, leave befre dinner time. Australians give visitrs a hug, r even give visitrs a kiss, but they dn't ffer visitrs a drink when they cme fr a visit, unlike in sme cultures, particularly Asian cultures.
If yu cme frm a sciety where hme help r servants can be gt quite easily, yu shuld remember that this is usually nt true in Australia. S it wuld be a gd idea t ffer t help clear the table and t wash up when yu finish dinner at a friend’s place. The hstess may refuse yu, but she will certainly be thankful fr yur ffer.
68. In what way are Australians different frm Englishmen?
A. They waste mre time. B. They ften plan ahead.
C. They visit their friends mre ften. D. They are less strict with appintments.
69. What can we knw abut the writer's Indian friend?
A. He knew nthing abut Australian Tea. B. He had a bad experience as a visitr.
C. He misunderstd his Australian friends. D. He helped t set the table befre dinner time.
70. What des the underlined wrd“arise”mean in the third paragraph?
A. appear B. achieve C. allw D. advise
71. What wuld be the best title fr the passage?
A. The Table culture in England. B. The custm f entertaining guests in England.
C. The Table culture in Australia. D. The custm f entertaining guests in Australia.
D
The nvel crnavirus has frced many schls t mve their classes nline. After a mnth f nline learning, Idalia Rizvic started getting headaches and felt stressed. S the eighth-grader frm Chicag, US, started an nline petitin(请愿) t shrten the schl day.
During the schl day, Rizvic usually studies in frnt f her cmputer frm 8 am t 3 pm and ften stay s up late t finish her hmewrk. Like many f her classmates, she feels mre cmfrtable with her camera ff. While sme students un-mute(取消静音) themselves t speak during class,mst just type what they want t say instead.“Online schling has made my anxiety g up a lt,”Rizvic said.“This time has been really difficult fr a lt f my peers’mental(精神的) health.”
Rizvic is nt alne. Students frm Senn High Schl als hpe t shrten the schl day. They are asking fr a half-day class schedule, citing(引用) research n the effects f t much screen time.If students must have a seven-hur schl day, their petitin states, they shuldn't be given hmewrk.
Scheduling has been an annying issue because f the beginning f the schl year. Chicag Public Schls (CPS) said the mdel schedules this year were apprved(批准) fr face-t-face learning, but nw things have changed. In light f the shift(转移) t nline learning, CPS Chief Educatin Officer LaTanya McDade said,“If schls want t re-vte... we are all set.”A plan fr next quarter will cme ut“very sn”, accrding t CPS.
Sme primary schls have already made changes t their schedules. Guadalupe Rivera, a furth-grade teacher, said she is trying t switch frm 60-minute t 30-minute nline lessn plans, as well as making lunch breaks lnger. Students wh have lnger lunch breaks will have mre time t play utside and take a break frm their screens.
72. Hw did Idalia Rizvic feel abut the nline learning?
A. She felt stressed ut. B. She started getting thinner.
C. She became interested in learning. D. She felt very tired.
73. Hw lng did Idalia Rizvic usually study in frnt f the cmputer during the schl day?
A. Fur hurs. B. Six hurs. C. Seven hurs. D. Eight hurs.
74. Match the names with the infrmatin and chse the right answer.
①Idalia Rizvic ②Students frm Sen n High Schl ③LaTanya McDade ④Guadalupe Rivera
a. She tries t switch frm 60-minute t 30-minute nline lessn plans.
b. She feels mre cmfrtable with her camera ff.
c. If schls want t re-vte, a plan will cme ut“very sn”.
d. They shuldn't be given hmewrk if they have a lng schl day.
A. ①-a ②-d ③-c ④-b B. ①-a ②-b ③-c ④-d
C. ①-b ②-d ③-c ④-a D. ①-b ②-a ③-c ④-d
75. What can we infer frm the last tw paragraphs?
A. A new plan fr next term will cme ut very sn.
B. Sme middle schls have already made changes t their schedules.
C. Sme primary schls have already made changes t their schedules.
D. Students will have lnger breaks and mre time away frm screens.
B)请先阅读下面短文， 掌握其大意， 然后根据短文内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个还原到文中使短文意思通顺、结构完整。(每小题2分)
Classrms in the US are different frm thse in China. This ffers us a chance t learn abut their educatinal style.
(76) Teachers take turns teaching in different classrms. Teaching this way ensures that all students learn the same things. But students are nt given much chice.(77)
In the US, students ften change classrms based n different subjects. Besides cmpulsry(必修的) classes like English and math, teens can chse t learn abut what they are interested in. Fr example, sme kids may chse t study music r advanced math(高等数学).
(78) Chinese classrms are arranged in a traditinal way, with rws f desks and.chairs facing a blackbard. Teachers usually stand n a platfrm when teaching.
(79) Fr example, if students need t have a grup discussin, tw r three f them will mve their desks t sit face t face. Students in drama r music classes als have different seating arrangements that make it easier fr them t perfrm.(80)
It's hard t say which way is“best”, r if there even is an ideal(理想的) way t arrange classrms. Yu just have t find the ne that wrks fr yu.
A. Smetimes, teachers even sit with their students.
B. Classrm arrangements(安排) als make a difference.
C. In China, mst students have fixed(固定的) classrms.
D. Usually, yu can nly chse ne subject that yu like t study.
E. N matter whether yu like a subject r nt, yu have t learn it.
F. In the US, students are free t enter any classrm withut permissin.
G. Hwever, in US classrms, seating arrangements are flexible(灵活的) depending n different class activities.
五、补全对话(5分)
请阅读下面的对话，根据对话内容从方框中选择恰当的句子填入空白处，使对话通顺、合理，意思完整(每空一句，每小题1分)。
A:I'm very glad t be yur guide these days. Arc yu satisfied with my service?
B:(81) I had a great time in Yichun.
A: Nice t hear that. What d yu think f the peple here?
B:(82) The drivers will stp the cars and wait when peple are crssing the rad.
A: Yes, we fllw the traffic rules well, What abut the city?
B: Oh, it's beautiful and clean. (83) That's great!
A: Thanks a lt. Is there anything else I can d fr yu?
B: Well, I need sme special lcal fd fr my family. (84)
A: There is a supermarket ver there, next t the pst ffice. My hmetwn is famus fr its lcal rice ndles.
B:(85) Thank yu very much!
A: My pleasure. Welcme t Yichun again!
A. Where I can buy it?
B. Yes, yu did a gd jb.
C. OK, I will g there later.
D. Everything here is a mess.
E. They are friendly and plite.
F. The rubbish is divided int grups.
G. What are the specialties in Yichun?
六、书面表达(15分)
教育部提倡减负之后，学生自主的课余时间更长了，各校积极引导学生充分利用课余时间。你校英语角针对此事开展讨论，希望大家的课余活动更加有意义。请你根据下表提示，以“Hw are we suppsed t make gd use f ur spare time?”为题, 用英语写一篇短文。 短文须表达出学生的不同意见，并提出你的建议。
要求：1.包含提示中所有的写作要点，条理清楚，行文连贯，可适当发挥；
2.不能出现真实的校名和姓名；
3.词数不少于80词，开头已给出，不计入总词数。
Hw are we suppsed t make gd use f ur spare time?
Nwadays, we students have much mre spare time than ever befre, but hw are we suppsed t make gd use f ur spa re time?
宜春市2020-2021学年上学期期末质量监测
九年级英语听力材料及参考答案
听力材料
一、听力测试
A）请听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. W: Peter, I dn’t want t stay at hme this weekend. Watching TV is s bring.
M: Why nt g climbing? Then we can get clse t nature.
2. W: Michael! Des this schlbag belng t yur brther Bill?
M: N, it’s nt his. It’s Tm’s.
3. W: Oh, tday is Friday. And we’ll have a picnic tmrrw. Hw’s the weather tmrrw?
M: The radi says it will be fine. Have a gd time!
4. W: Culd yu please give me tw tickets?
M: OK, here yu are. Ten dllars each ticket.
5. W: Dad, here is a watch fr yu. It’s yur festival tday.
M: Thank yu, my dear. Yu’ve never frgtten this special day.
6. W: Why are yu still here? Are yu ging n reading that bk till the library clses?
M: I knw it’s late. bad weather makes me stay.
7. W: Excuse me, I’d like t bk a duble rm fr Wednesday next week.
M: I’m srry. But we have nly tw single rms.
8. W: Mike, I hear yu are wrking as a huse painter this summer. It’s t ht wrking in the sun all day.
M: Well, it’s hard wrk, but I’ve gt used t wrking utdrs and the pay is gd.
B）请听下面5段材料。每段材料后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段材料前你都有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。
请听第1段材料，完成第9至第10小题。
W: Where’s Sally?
M: She has gne t Italy.
W: Hw many days has she spent there?
M: Fur r five days.
W: Have yu ever been there?
M: Yes, but nly nce.
W: When did yu g there?
M: Tw years ag.
请听第2段材料，完成第11至第12小题。
M: Hw was yur trip t New Yrk, Nancy?
W: It was great until I lst my wallet.
M: Really? Hw did that happen?
W: I was waiting in line t buy a ticket at the train statin. When I wanted t get the mney, I fund my wallet lst.
M: Bad luck! Did yu leave it anywhere?
W: I dn’t knw.
M: Then hw did yu cme back?
W: I called my friend and he drve me back hme.
请听第3段材料，完成第13至第15小题。
W: Hi, Sam, it’s me, Linda.
M: Oh, hell.
W: I rang t see if yu want t cme t the cncert tnight.
M: The cncert? Well, I dn’t really like ging t the cncert.
W: But it’s a seasn f flk cncerts.
M: Oh, n! I can’t stand them.
W: Oh, I lve flk music. Anyway, if yu’re nt interested in cncerts, what abut ging fr a drink?
M: Nw, that’s a better idea. I enjy ging fr a drink n a Saturday night.
W: Well, where d yu want t g?
M: I dn’t mind. Yu chse.
W: Let’s g t Uncle Bb’s near ur hme. I really like their beer.
请听第4段材料，完成第16至第18小题。
M: What wuld yu say is yur mst interesting subject in schl, Susan?
W: I like P.E.
M: I thught s. I always see yu utside.
W: But I als really like writing.
M: What d yu think is yur mst difficult subject?
W: Of curse science. Hw abut yu, Eric?
M: Music is hard fr me. But it’s als my mst interesting subject.
W: D yu play any instruments?
M: Did yu say instruments?
W: That’ s right.
M: N, but I want t learn hw t play ne.
W: I guess we have very different interests.
请听第5段材料，完成第19至第22小题。
Dear Jack,
My name is Harry. I hpe yu can help me slve a prblem. I was very happy at schl in the past. I did very well in sprts and all my lessns. In fact, I was very ppular. Everyne wanted t be my friend. Then a new student called Nick came t ur schl. First he gt a higher scre than me in an exam. Then he jined the schl basketball team and scred tw gals. The ther students started t think he was better than me.
Sme f my best friends became his friends. It is getting wrse and wrse. Yesterday, I gave the wrng answer t a questin in class, but Nick gave the crrect ne. Nw everyne thinks that Nick knws mre than I d.
What can I d t get my friends back?
Harry
C）请听下面一段独白，根据独白内容完成下列句子，每个空格不超过3个单词。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。
Nw, listen carefully! I want t tell yu abut a new TV shw fr children. It’s called Answer That, and it will be n Channel 4 at five ’clck every Thursday.
Every week there will be frty-eight children n the prgram. They will be in eight teams, and each team will have six children. The questins will be easy at the beginning f the quiz and then they will get mre difficult. They will all be abut films, music and TV. At the end f the TV shw there will be nly ne team left--the winners.
There will be sme great prizes. This week each winner will all get a new camera. Next week the first prize is a cmputer. If yu wuld like t be n Answer That, then call 279-6800. Just give yur name, age and schl address, and maybe yu will be n TV sn.
参考答案
一、听力
1-8 CBBC ACAA 9-10 CC 11-12 CB 13-15 ABB
16-18 BCA 19-22CCBA
23. TV shw 24. children 25. easy 26. a new camera 27. 279-6800
二、单项填空
28-30 DCB 31-35 CDBAD
三、完形填空
A)36-40 CABDB 41-45ADCAC 46-50 DABDB
B)51. number 52. tried 53. similar 54. generally 55. death
56. with 57. cuntries 58. thirteenth 59. never 60. t sit
四、阅读理解
A)61-63 ADB
64-67 CDBA
B篇阅读介绍了工程师阿尔弗雷德Traeger如何为了飞行医生服务而发明了踏板无线电。这有助于整个澳洲内地的人们相互交流。
64小题：细节理解题。根据第二段的第四句“Jhn Flynn asked Traeger t invent a simple radi fr the Flying Dctr Service. ”可知，答案选C。
65小题：代词指代题。根据本句“Traeger's jb was t develp a radi that was bth a transmitter and a receiver, meaning it culd bth send a message and receive a message. ”意义为：崔格的工作是开发一种既是发射机又是接收器的无线电，也就是说它既能发送信息又能接收信息。故此处的it指代的是无线电。选D。
66小题：排列顺序题。从文中第二段可知when he was 12,he made a telephne receiver.第二个选项排第一。 根据文章第三段的第一句可知，He develped a radi that can send and receive messages.第一个选项排第二。然后是从第四段中可知He used bicycle pedals t prduce pwer.第四个选项排第三。从最后一段可知He used bicycle pedals t prduce pwer.是最后发生的。故答案选B。
67小题：主旨大意题。本文主要介绍了工程师阿尔弗雷德Traeger如何为了飞行医生服务而发明了踏板无线电的故事。
68-71 DBAD
C篇阅读主要介绍了澳大利亚的待客习俗。
68小题：细节理解题。根据文章的第一句可知，澳洲对于约会没有那么严格。
69小题：归纳综合题。根据文章的第二段可知这个印度朋友作为一个访客，在澳洲遭遇的尴尬经历。故选B。
70小题：猜测词义题；根据句意“当然，在亚洲，以及许多地中海国家，这个问题根本不会出现”，故选A。
71小题：标题归纳题。本文讲述的是澳大利亚的待客的习俗。
72-75 ACCD
72小题：细节理解题。根据第一段的第二句“After a mnth f nline learning, Idalia Rizvic started getting headaches and felt stressed. ”可知选A。
73小题：细节理解题。根据第三段的最后一句“If students must have a seven-hur schl day, their petitin states, they shuldn’t be given hmewrk.”可知选C。
74小题：信息匹配题。从文章第二段的第二句“Like many f her classmates, she feels mre cmfrtable with her camera ff.”可知b属于第一个选项。
从文章的第三段的最后一句“If students must have a seven-hur schl day, their petitin states, they shuldn’t be given hmewrk.”可知d属于第二个选项。从文章的第四段的最后一句If schls want t re-vte... we are all set.” A plan fr next quarter will cme ut “very sn”, accrding t CPS. 可知c属于第三个选项。从最后一段的第二个句子 she is trying t switch frm 60-minute t 30-minute nline lessn plans, 可知a属于第四个选项。故答案选C。
75小题：A选项和C选项是可以从文章最后两段直接找到，属于细节理解，不是推断；B选项没有提及，D选项可以从最后一句得出，“午餐休息时间较长的学生将有更多的时间在户外玩耍，并从他们的屏幕中得到休息”，可推断学生们将有更长的休息时间及远离屏幕的更多的时间。
B)76-80 CEBGA
五、补全对话
81-85 BEFAC
六、书面表达
评分标准：
第一档（13-15分）：写出全部内容要点，语句流畅。基本无语法和词汇方面的错误，少数错误主要是由于较高级词汇或复杂结构所致。词数达到要求。基本无单词拼写及标点错误。
第二档（10-12分）：写出大部分要点内容。语句较流畅。有少量语法和词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。有少量单词拼写及标点错误。
第三档（7-9分）：写出部分要点。语句基本通顺。有一些语法和词汇错误，有少量单词及标点错误。
第四档（4-6分）：写出少量内容要点，语句不通顺。语法、词汇、单词拼写、标点错误较多。只有少量句子表达正确。
第五档（0-3分）：基本上没有写出内容要点，语法、词汇、单词拼写错误较多。基本上没有通顺的句子。只写出一些单词，不知所云。
Hw are we suppsed t make gd use f ur spare time?
Nwadays, we students have much mre spare time than ever befre, but hw are we suppsed t make gd use f ur spare time?
Sme students think it’s gd t help ur parents d sme husewrk t shw them ur lve. They will be very happy. Other students think we will knw mre abut the wrld by reading. At the same time, we can listen t music. It can make us relaxing.
In my pinin, it’s a gd chance fr us t get clse t nature and relax urselves. And we can d sme sprts t make us strnger and healthier. What’s mre, we can take an active part in sme scial activities as vlunteers t help thse in need.
In a wrd, let’s make gd use f ur spare time and live a happy life.



Schedules(时间表)and Lcatins
Lessns are available n weekday s at public swimming pls and n weekends at private
swimming pls.
Experienced caches
Visit ur web page t lk thrugh the list f ur caches, and then yu can chse smene.
wh best suits yur needs.
Water Safety
Water safety instructin is included in all lessns.
Fast Results
1-n-1 lessn plans depend n students' abilities. Prgress reprts and prize given ut regularly.
Mnthly Fee Per Persn(每人月费用)
Age
1-n-1
Grup(3 t 5 persns)
1-12 years ld
$ 80
$40
13 and abve
$ 110
$60
Call Mr. Jnes at 8622-5978 fr mre infrmatin.
Sme students
Help parents d sme husewrk, shw lve,...
Other students
Knw mre abut the wrld by reading, listen t music,…
My pinins
Get clse t nature and relax urselves,…(至少两点)