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2023-2024学年江苏省泰州市姜堰区高三上学期期中英语质量检测模拟试题（含解析）
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这是一份2023-2024学年江苏省泰州市姜堰区高三上学期期中英语质量检测模拟试题（含解析），共20页。试卷主要包含了考试结束后，将答题卡交回等内容，欢迎下载使用。
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考试号等填写在答题卡指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号，回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。
写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂
到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题：每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最
佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一个小题。每段
对话仅读一遍。
1. Which clr hair des the missing girl have?
A. Red.B.Black C.Brwn
2. What des the wman suggest the man d?
A. Be thankful. B.Be psitive C.Be helpful
3. Where des the cnversatin prbably take place?
A. In a cafe. B.In a library C. In a bkshp.
4. What time is it nw?
p.m.: 05 p.m.B. 8: 00 p.m. C.7:55 p.m.
5. What might bther the man?
A. His dieting.B. His weight. C. His plan
第二节（共15小题，每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个
选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听
完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。
6. What prblem des the wman have?
A. She is hungry.B. She feels tired. C.She hurt her eyes
7. What des the man ffer t d?
A. Fix the cmputer.B. Take care f the kids. C. Make a meal.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. Wh gave the wman the tickets?
A. Her brther. B.her husband C. her friend
9. What will the wman prbably d?
A. Sell the tickets. B.Buy sme flwers.C. Get a gift fr the man.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What did the wman feel scared f at university at the beginning?
A. Taking tests. B. Leaving hme. C. Cmmunicating with new peple.
11. What is the wman studying at university?
A. English.B. French.C. Russian.
12. What des the man want t be?
A. A teacher.B. A translatr.C. A histrian.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Wh are the speakers?
A. A cuple.B. Friends.C. Teacher and student.
14. What are the speakers mainly talking abut?
A. Whether kids shuld wrk fr pcket mney.
B. Hw kids can balance wrk and study.
C. What kids can d at hme.
15. What did the man d when he was yung?
A. He washed the dishes.B. He wrked n a farm.C. He delivered newpers.
16. What is the wman's attitude twards sleep fr yung peple?
A. They have t much sleep.
B. They shuld have enugh sleep.
C. They shuld sleep during the same time perid.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What is the speaker ding?
A. Recmmending a TV shw.
B. Intrducing a sng.
C. Presenting a star.
18. Hw is the speaker feeling abut tnight's shw?
A. Excited.B. Surprised.C. Cnfused.
19. What rle is the special guest mst famus as?
A. A sngwriter.B. An authr.C. An actress.
20. Hw many children are helped by the Imaginatin Library prgramme?
A. 1 millin.B. 9 millin.C. 1. 9 millin.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
The value-packed, all-inclusive sight-seeing package that cmbines the best f Sydney's harbr, city, bay and beach highlights.
A SydneyPass gives yu unlimited and flexible travel n the Explrer Buses: the ‘red’Sydney Explrer shws yu arund ur exciting city sights while the‘blue’Bndi Explrer visits Sydney Harbur bays and famus beaches. Take t the water n ne f three magnificent daily harbr cruises(游船). Yu can als travel free n regular Sydney Buses, Sydney Ferries r CityRail services(limited area), s yu can g t every crner f this beautiful city.
Imagine brwsing at Darling Harbur, tasting the famus seafd at Watsns Bay r enjying the city lights n an evening ferry cruise. The pssibilities and plans are endless with a SydneyPass. Wherever yu decide t g, remember that bkings are nt required n any f ur services s tickets are treated n a first in, first seated basis.
SydneyPasses are available fr 3, 5 r 7 days fr use ver a 7-calendar-day perid. With a 3r 5-day pass yu chse n which days ut f the 7 yu want t use it. All SydneyPasses include a free Airprt Express inward trip befre starting yur 3, 5 r 7 days, and the return trip is valid fr 2 mnths frm the first day yur ticket was used.
SydneyPass Fares
＊A child is defined as anyne frm the ages f 4 years t under 16 years. Children under 4 years
travel free.
＊A family is defined as 2 adults and any number f children frm 4 t under 16 years f age frm the same family.
21. A SydneyPass desn't ffer unlimited rides n
A.regular Sydney Buses B. CityRail services
C.the Explrer Buses D.the harbr cruises
22. With a SydneyPass,a traveller can
A.enjy the famus seafd fr freeB.take the Sydney Explrer t beaches
C.save fares frm and t the airprtD.reserve seats easily in a restaurant
23. If 5-day tickets were t be recmmended t a mther wh travelled with her clleague and her children, aged 3,6 and 10, what wuld the lwest cst be?
A.$225. B.$300. C.$360. D.$420.
B
Fr years ging hme fr the hlidays has been bittersweet. I appreciate the pprtunity t spend quality time with my mm but it is painful fr me t see her huse littered with stuff(物品). Clthes bught but never wrn, and new items in their riginal packaging carelessly purchased and never used. It's evident that seeing the stuff n a daily basis reminds my mm f a time when shpping was her way f spending mney.
I didn't fully understand the extent t which my mm was suffering until this week, when I saw piles f clthes n her bed,“Hw d yu manage t sleep every night with all that stuff, Mm?”I asked. T my hrrr, she replied t it because I knw I have t get rid f all this stuff eventually; I am punishing myself by sleeping with them until I d that.”
Shcked and upset, I gently explained t her that punishing herself was nly t make things wrse, and that everybdy deserves a place t sleep in peace, n matter what mistakes they've made. I suggested she mve all the stuff upstairs, leaving her rm cmfrtable t sleep in.
With patience and her slw but steady guidance, I helped her g thrugh sme f the piles and mve them upstairs. Fr the rest f the week I stayed there, she was in a better md and was excited abut ging-thrugh the rest f the huse t finally get rid f her stuff—pa st mistakes and painful times. The items brught back painful memries as we inspected and mved them, but I kept reminding her that remving them wuld allw her t mve n and heal. We finally sld s many things and tk bag after bag t charity.
The stuff is just a sign f the destructive patterns f self-hatred n past mistakes. Only thrugh the act f self-frgiveness can we bring abut a chain reactin f rerganizing—bth f the huse and heart.
24. What made the authr feel bitter?
A. Her mm was always left alne at hme.
B. Her mm wasted mney n useless things,
C. She culdn't understand her mm's srrws.
D. Her mm was stuck in the painful memries.
25. The underlined wrd“that”in the secnd paragraph refers t _.
A. pening the stuff B. buying the stuff
C. getting rid f the stuff D. mving the stuff
26. We can infer frm the passage that _.
A. the authr never bught her mm anything
B. the authr's m m regrets buying s many things
C. the authr's m m has n mney t purchase nw
D. the authr knws her mm's suffering nly this week
27. What's the best title f the passage?
A. Clearance helps remve suffering B. The imprtance f self-frgiveness.
C. Keep an eye n the elderly's behavir D. Hw t d shpping wisely
C
Trees dn't lk at the calendar t see when spring arrives, but they seem t knw when spring is here better than we d. The annual shift frm winter t spring is a breathtaking event t watch as leaves becme green and a lush(苍翠的) envirnment reveals itself. Recently a research takes a lk at why trees in cities are turning green earlier than expected.
Scientists use satellite imagery t see when plants turn green. By cmparing spring green ups in the 85 largest US cities, scientists fund that n average trees start t turn green nine days earlier in cities due t the cmbined effect f artificial lights and urban heat effect.
Accrding t the findings, ne f the reasns is the artificial light. City lights brightening the night skies, billbard signs lit up n radways and car headlights all cntribute t shifting the regular day t night cycle that plants and trees rely n. In rder t stay alive during cruel winters, trees hit the pause buttn n their grwth. Since temperatures can vary dramatically thrughut the winter, the length f daylight is the signal trees lk fr t safely start grwing again and turn green.
On average cities are typically 1.8 t 5.4F warmer than rural areas. This is knwn as the urban heat island effect. The changes in city envirnments may affect seasnal changes even mre than climate warming and msquit seasn, water cycles, and als affect pllinatrs(授粉媒介). Despite the wrries and cncern, it isn't all bad news.“With a lnger grwing seasn, trees wuld be able t absrb mre carbn dixide,”A researcher said.“Hpefully they’d have a lnger perid t d the cling effect that can help relieve the urban heating effect in cities.”
28. What is the purpse f the text?
A. T reveal hw trees survive bitter winters.
B. T explain why trees turn green earlier in cities.
C. T warn hw human activities disturb nature.
D. T clarify hw trees turning green earlier benefits cities.
29. Hw did the scientists cnduct their research?
A. Develping pictures sht by the satellite.
B. Allwing the city envirnment t reveal itself.
C. Cmparing the green-up time in sample cities.
D. Bringing ut urban heat island effect.
30. Which f the fllwing elements cntributes t trees turning green earlier?
A. Plant pllinatrs. B. Water cycle. C. Rad signs. D. Street lamps.
31. In which sectin f a website can the text be fund?
A. Envirnment. B. Educatin. C. Entertainment. D. Business.
D
Experts analyzed hw language can affect children's lives and the rle it plays in everyday life. They als determined which languages tend t lead t the best career pprtunities as an adult.
“We believe that language learning is hugely beneficial fr children's develpment and it is a real investment fr the future,” said Antnella Srace, prfessr f develpmental linguistics(语言学)at Edinburgh University. The study invlved a survey f 2,001 parents with children under the age f 18, as well as anther survey f mre than 500 business leaders.
S which languages tk the tp spt? Results indicated that children shuld be learning french, German, and/r Chinese if they want t be successful within the next ten years. Mastering a secnd language pens the dr t new markets fr businesses and allws them t create new relatinships with ptential partners. Besides being able t speak anther language, the academic and interpersnal skills that can be acquired frm learning a new language are imprtant as well. “Children wh are expsed t different languages becme mre aware f different cultures, anchrpeple, and ther pints f view. They als tend t be better than mnlinguals(只用单语的人) at multitasking and are ften mre advanced readers.”said Srace.
A vast majrity f parents surveyed in this study (85 percent) believe it is imprtant fr their children t learn a secnd language, and abut ne in fur believe it will increase their child's career pprtunities and imprve their chance f being emplyed. The future emplyment markets are in need f ce tur guides, rbt caches, frnt-line e-cmmerce wrkers, nurses etc. N matter what a child chse t be, multilinguals and crss-culture talents will prbably have a gd chance t take the lead. Hwever, 45 percent f parents surveyed admit that their child r children cannt speak a secnd language.
If yu want yur child t stand ut frm the crwd, fllw the habits f parents f successful peple-give children chres, set high but realistic expectatins, get yurself educated, make time fr bnding, accept and recgnize their feelings—and, f curse, make sure they learn ne f the three success languages!
32. Wh might be a persn that tk part in the survey?
A. A yung technician with n child. B. A farmer with a 19-year-ld child.
C. A middle-aged reprter with n child. D. A librarian with a 16-year-ld child.
33. What are the benefits f peple's mastering a secnd language?
①Develping ne's strng will.
②Imprving the ability t bserve things.
③Acquiring academic and interpersnal skills.
④ Having access t new markets fr businesses.
⑤Frming new relatinships with ptential partners.
A.①③⑤ B.①②④ C.③④⑤ D.②③④
34. Hw many parents surveyed believe learning a secnd language will increase their child's career pprtunities?
A. Abut 500. B. Abut 600. C. Abut 700. D. Abut 800.
35. What is the aim f the last paragraph?
A. T explain sme cncepts. B. T tell readers a stry.
C. T present sme parents' pinins. D. T ffer readers sme suggestins.
第二节(共5 小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Being a gd neighbr matters—nt nly because it makes life mre pleasant, but als because being a gd neighbr is part f being a gd persn.
Being a gd neighbr has a lt t d with respecting privacy. _36_ , give neighbrs a lt f ce and try t sense when it's apprpriate t back ff.
_37_ . Helping with physical wrk is ne gd way t establish trust. If yur neighbr is ging t be mving sme heavy furniture, r needs help in fixing smething yu knw yur way arund, ffer t help ut. Once yu're getting familiar, this assistance can als extend t things like huse-sitting r cllecting the mail while yur neighbr is away. Eventually, the day may cme when yu're asked t take care f their kids. _38_ if yu accept it.
It shuld g withut saying that pet wners need t care fr their animals prperly. _39_ .There are few things mre annying fr neighbrs than a dg that uses their lawns as a tilet, r that barks endlessly while chained up in a backyard. Dn't mess arund—be a kind and respnsible pet wner.
There are times when a certain level f nise is fine and there are times when it isn't. _40_ .Turn the music dwn a bit after sunset, and further reduce the vlume as it gets tward 10 p. m. It's usually fine t thrw an ccasinal lud party as lng as the neighbrs are invited r have been infrmed.
A. It's gd t knw the difference
B. This includes cleaning up after them
C. It's ften best t mind yur wn business
D. Yu had better say cngratulatins t yur neighbur
E. Yur family pet can be left in the trust f a neighbur
F. Yu’ll prbably end up playing with and entertaining these children
G. But it's just as imprtant t knw when the time is right t ffer sme help
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共 15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I was getting mre excited as we gt ff the train at beautiful Grand Central Statin. After a tur at the Museum f Mdern Art, we _41_ Radi City Music Hall and the Christmas tree at Rckefeller Center. In ne f the _42_ in the area, I fund a tiny bxed set f Peter Rabbit bks, perfect fr my _43_ . Was there anything like Christmas in New Yrk? Having experienced an exciting and tiring tur, we called a _44_ back t Grand Central Statin.
On the way hme I realized that my handbag was gne —lst r _45_ , I had n idea. All the magic f this special day _46_ . I glumly(闷闷不乐地) pictured a jam-packed Department f Mtr Vehicles and all the phne calls that I’d have t make t get my _47_ cards replaced with new nes. And I'd never _48_ all thse precius phts f my daughters.
The days slipped by while I gt rides t cllege and _49_ ging t the DMV(车管所) at such a busy time f year. Then I gt an unexpected _50_ , a bx with the return address f Radi City Music Hall. _51_ ,I pened it and shuted in a jyful _52_ .
There was my ld handbag, with everything _53_ gd inside — license, cards and phts—and ne thing that hadn't been there _54_ , a handwritten nte, saying,“I fund this handbag lying under the seat f my taxi by _55_ . Merry Christmas!”
41. A. reached B. visited C. entered D. nticed
42. A. schls B. factries C. shps D. hspitals
43. A. sns B. parents C. cusins D. daughters
44. A. car B. taxi C. carriage D. bus
45. A. stlen B. hidden C. frgtten D. cvered
46. A. arrived B. wrked C. disappeared D. disturbed
47. A. ld B. useful C. dirty D. small
48. A. packed B. encuntered C. shwn D. replaced
49. A. brught abut B. came rund C. relied n D. put ff
50. A. fax B. delivery C. reward D. dcument
51. A. Cnfused B. Shcked C. Disappinted D. Frightened
52. A. speed B. wrd C. vice D. mment
53. A. gradually B. riginally C. frequently D. cmpletely
54. A. thugh B. befre C. ever D. yet
55. A. accident B. nature C. design D. cmparisn
第二节(共 10小题;每小题1.5分, 满分 15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Why d Chinese peple drink ht water? Many westerners find it s interesting that they always see Chinese peple carry a vacuum cup(保温杯) n matter which seasn it is.
Fr lts f Chinese peple, nthing is _56_ (cmmn) than drinking ht water every day. But fr mst f the Westerners, _57_ idea f drinking plain ht water is really dd since they drink cld water even in winter. Why d Chinese peple drink ht water? Ht water vs cld water, which ne is better? Fllw us _58_ (find) an ideal answer.
It is well knwn _59_ Chinese peple prefer ht meals every day, and they're als used t _60_ (have) ht drinks with it. Mrever, sme parents always teach _61_ (they) children t drink ht water with meals, because they think mixing cld liquids with ht meals _62_ (be)really bad fr the stmach. And cld liquids may slidify fats in yur stmach, which cause digestive prblems, whereas ht liquids aid in _63_ (digest).
Accrding t the eating habits in western cuntries, they prefer“raw”fd, _64_ they als prefer their water“raw”. At the same time, they are fnd _65_ hamburgers, cheese and fried stuff, which are all with high calrie. As a matter f fact, they need cld drinks t cl them ff.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假如你是李华，你的外国朋友David在给你的电子邮件中问及了你家乡的近况，请你给他写一封电子邮件，告诉他你家乡近3年的一些变化。内容包括：
1.主要变化；
2. 变化的原因；
3.发出邀请。
注意：词数80左右，可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear David,
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
续写的词数应为150左右。
续写的词数应为 150 左右。
The average present merely satisfies a temprary desire; the great ne becmes mre precius with time ging by.
When I was a by f furteen, I needed t have 80 hurs f cmmunity service per year and I used t take care f Mrs. Lng's garden, which was near the Presbyterian Church. As a junir high schl student, I devted myself t it, sweeping the fallen leaves and mwing the lawn(修剪草坪). There I learnt hw t cut away dry branches and even helped t plant a sapling(小树苗).Tired as I was every time I finished my wrk, I did enjy the time there fr learning smething new. I clearly remembered that Mrs Lng, a nice and caring elder, always treated me t delicius meals and drinks. She als lved taking phts, always with an ld camera in hand. It was said that the camera was passed dwn frm her father and she cherished it a lt.
Several days befre Christmas, she whispered t me,“When Christmas cmes, I shall have a present fr yu.”I spent much time wndering what it wuld be. The bys I played with had baseball glves, ice skates and bicycles, and I was s eager t acquire any ne f these that I cnvinced myself that she intended t chse frm amng them. But at the same time, I had sme dubts whether she wuld buy me such things because she was nt that well-ff.
The day befre Christmas, I went there as befre. With the wrk dne, I was ging t leave when she pulled me aside.“Kid, wait fr a minute,”she said, leading me int her living rm. She seated me n a chair, went t anther rm, and in a mment std befre me hlding a small package that under n circumstances culd hld a bicycle r a pair f skates r even a baseball glve. It weighed almst nthing.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为 150左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Paragraph 1:
I tk the package with disappintment. __________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2:
Opening the package, I was ttally astnished._____________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
答案及听力录音材料
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
1—5 BACCB6－10 BCA BC11－15 AABAB16－20 BCAAC
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
21—23 BCC 24—27 DCBA28—31 BCDA32—35 DCAD
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
36—40 CGFBA
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41—45 BCDBA46—50 CACDB51—55 ACDBA
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56. mre cmmn57. the58. t find59. that60. having
61.their62. is63. digestin64. s/and65.f
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
The pssible versin
Dear David,
Nice t receive yur email! Hearing that yu are interested in my hmetwn, I’m writing t intrduce my hmetwn’s new changes t yu.
The past three years have witnessed great changes in my hmetwn. First, the infrastructure has been upgraded greatly. The rads have been widened and new parks have been added t, all f which make the city a better place and help imprve the life f thse arund them. These changes are mainly due t the gvernment’s investment in the city’s develpment, as well as the effrts made by lcal businesses and residents in imprving the city’s image and attractiveness.
I warmly invite yu t cme and visit my hmetwn again. I believe yu will be amazed at its transfrmatin.
Yurs,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
Paragraph 1:
I tk the package with disappintment. It was s light that I guessed there must be smething valueless. I had been lking frward t the present fr s lng but I had never expected the result like this! There was n dubt that Mrs. Lng culd nt understand what I desired. Carrying the package, I tried t cntain my facial expressin but bviusly, Mrs. Lng nticed my emtin. With a smile, she gently patted my shulder and encuraged me t pen the package. Slwly I unwrapped the delicately-packed present, wndering what n earth it wuld be. She tld me t pen the package sn after arriving hme. Thanking her with a knwing smile, I headed hme. The mment I was back hme, curisity drve me t unwrapped the delicately-packed present.
Paragraph 2:
Opening the package, I was ttally astnished. Lying there were several phts f me! I picked up ne f them which shwed a hard-wrking figure sweeping the fallen leaves with sweat wetting the whle T-shirt. I was s thrilled that it was Mrs. Lng wh carefully recrded such precius mments fr me. Never befre had I realized hw attentive I was and the wnderful scene was elabrately recrded. Deeply tuched, I expressed hw meaningful I cnsidered the present was. Nw the pht is still in my album, reminding me f the wnderful days I spent n Mrs. Lng’s garden.
书面表达评分标准
（一）应用文评分标准
应用文总分是15分。评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来评分。一般分为五档：第五档（13～15分），第四档（10～12分），第三档（7～9分），第二档（4～6分），第一档（1～3分）。
（二）读后续写评分原则：
1、本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分，每个档次5分。（参见附录）
2、评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言（内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性）初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。（如果通篇没有使用较复杂的句子结构，评分时将分数降低1个档次）。
3、词数少于120或多于180的，从总分中减去2分。
4、语言形式错误分为大错和小错。大错包括“时态、语态、主谓一致等”，小错包括“单词拼写错误、小品词用法错误”等。
如出现1个大错，从总分中减去1分。如出现1个小错，从总分中减去半分。
5、如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
6、如层次不清楚，写作没分段，从总分中减去2分。
读后续写作文附录：各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（很好）：（21—25分）
1、完全完成了试题规定的任务；
2、与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理，内容丰富；
3、应用了较多的语法结构和词汇；
4、语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言应用能力；
5、有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑；
6、完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档（好）：（16—20分）
1、完全完成了试题规定的任务；
2、与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理，内容比较丰富；
3、应用语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求；
4、语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因为尝试较复杂的语法结构或词汇所致；
5、应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑；
6、达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档（适当）：（11—15分）
1、基本完成试题规定的任务；
2、与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接，写出了若干有关内容；
3、应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求；
4、有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解；
5、应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯；
6、整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（较差）：（6—10分）
1、未恰当完成试题规定的任务；
2、与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接，写出了一些有关内容；
3、语法结构单调、词汇项目有限；
4、有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解；
5、较少地使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性；
6、信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档（差）：（1—5分）
1、未完成试题规定的任务；
2、与所给短文和开头语的衔接较差，产出内容太少；
3、语法结构单调、词汇项目有限；
4、较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解；
5、缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯；
6、信息未能传达给读者。
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求的内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
听力录音稿
Text 1
M: Lk at the girl in a red skirt ver there. She lks like the missing girl in the newper.
W: But the descriptin said the missing girl had black hair. (1) That girl ver there has brwn hair.
Text 2
W: Please, Steve. When yu ask fr help, it makes thers upset if yu dn' t express yur thanks. (2)
M: Yu' re right. There are just s many things n my mind. But srry, it wn' t happen again.
Text 3
W: Ww, this place has gt all srts f bks. There is als a nice cafe nearby. I can't believe I've never been here befre!
M: Great, isn't it? It's definitely my favrite place t buy bks, (3) even if they are a bit mre expensive here than they are nline.
Text 4
M: Put yur cat n. The taxi will be here in five minutes.
W: I need t brush my hair. I thught I had tld yu t rder it fr 8:00 p.m.
M: I did. (4) Just hurry up nw.
Text 5
M: I'm trying t lse weight but nthing seems t be wrking. I' ve tried running and cycling.
W: Yu shuld try cunting calries. Yu decide what t eat and measure hw many calries t bum every day accrding t yur wn plan. Yu'll see and feel the difference. (5)
Text 6
M: Yu lk tired. (6) Has it been a lng day?
W: Yes. I can hardly keep my eyes pen nw. (6) I started wrking at my cmputer at nine 0 'clck this mrning and I dn't think I lked away until five.
M: Really? N breaks at all?
W: Nt ne.
M: Well, yu're hme nw. Just relax and have an early night.
W: I wish I culd. But nw I have t ck dinner. (7) The kids need t be fed.
M: Oh, dn't wrry abut that. I'll take care f it. (7)
W: Thank yu. Yu are s sweet
Text 7
W: Want t g t a cncert tnight?
M: Which cncert?
W: The Peppers at the City Stadium.
M: Hw n earth did yu get tickets fr that? (8) They must have been sld ut as sn as they went n sale
W: My brther and his wife were planning t g but they' ve had t cancel. His wife is ill, s I gt the tickets.(8)
M: Srry t hear that. By the way, where are the seats?
W: In the third rw.
M: Ww, thse are really gd seats! They must have cst a lt. I can usually nly affrd seats at the back r upstairs.
W: Yes, it's a pity that they can't g.
M: We shuld get them a gift as a way f saying thank yu.
W: Hw abut sme flwers fr his wife? (9)
M: OK. (9)
Text 8
M: Have yu ever experienced any fears? (10)
W: Oh, lts f fears. Especially since I came t university. (10)
M: What d yu mean一leaving hme, taking exams... that srt f thing?
W: Nt really, thse things haven't bthered me t much. But meeting ther peple was scary t me at first.(10)
M: Why? Yu had met peple befre, hadn't yu?
W: Yes, but I had knwn them all my life. Here I had t get t knw varius new peple and learn hw t cmmunicate with them.
M: Weren't they friendly?
W: They were friendly enugh. But they cme frm all ver the wrld 一 frm France, Russia, Pland.. everywhere. Frtunately, we can all cmmunicate in English, which happens t be my majr in cllege. (11)
M: Yes, even in yur re time, it is helping yu study.
W: Exactly.
M: What d yu want t be when yu leave schl? (12)A translatr r smething?
W: I'm hping t g int teaching. (12)
M: Oh, the same as me. I want t teach histry. (12)
Text9
W: D yu think yung peple shuld als have jbs when they are at schl?
M: I d. I think kids shuld wrk fr their pcket mney.
W: What kind f wrk?
M: Helping with the washing up, cleaning. . . whatever. They shuld realize they need t wrk if they want t have mney.
W: My kids are very gd at thse things. Bth f them help with jbs arund the huse.
M: That's gd, but I dn't think all yung peple are like that these days.
W: T be fair, I suppse a lt f parents want their k ids t cncentrate n their schlwrk.
M: I always had enugh time t d my schlwrk in my yuth, even thugh I als wrked n my dad's farm.(15)
W: I used t deliver newpers. I had t be up at 6:00 a.m., whatever the weather.
M: It didn't d yu any harm, did it? I bet yu still did well at schl.
W: I did OK, althugh I was tired all day. I really think yung peple need t get enugh sleep. (16) It is sleep that helps their brains develp.
Text 10
Hell, and welcme t That's Entertainment! I'm Sally Withers, and tnight, I am s excited t have ne f my wn persnal heres n the shw! (18) Nw, I dn't want t give the surprise away t quickly. S hw abut if I give yu sme infrmatin, and see if yu can guess?
Tnight's guest star was brn in 1946, (19) as the furth f 12 children. Besides her charity wrk, she's als an actress, authr and businesswman. Hwever, nne f these amazing achievements are what she is mst famus fr!
Cnfused yet? Well, let's see... She's mst famus fr being ne f America's mst ppular and prductive sngwriters, (19) with 51 recrds t her name. Twenty-five f her sngs reached number ne n the Billbard cuntry music charts. She 's wn Grammy Awards many times thrughut her unbelievable career!
Her Imaginatin Library prgramme currently gives free bks t 1.9 millin children arund the wrld. (20) Back in 2016, she raised $9 millin t help the victims f the Great Smky Muntains wildfires. And mst recently, during COVID-19, she dnated $1 millin t fight against the disease.
Yes, yu've guessed it Our special guest tnight is Dlly Partn!Adult
Child
Family
3-day ticket
＄90
＄45
＄225
5-day ticket
＄120
＄60
＄300
7-day ticket
＄140
＄70
＄350
第五档
（13～15分）
很好地完成了试题规定的任务。
包含所有内容要点；
使用丰富的语法结构和词汇；
语言自然流畅，语法错误极少；
有效地采用了多种衔接手法，文字连贯，层次清晰；
格式与语域恰当贴切。
对目标读者（即语言接受对象）完全产生了预期的效果。
第四档
（10～12分）
较好地完成了试题规定的任务。
包含所有内容要点，允许漏掉一、两个次重点；
使用较丰富的语法结构和词汇；
语言基本准确，只在试图使用复杂结构或较高级词汇时才有个别错误；
采用了适当的衔接手法，层次清晰，组织较严密；
格式和语域较恰当。
对目标读者产生了预期的效果。
第三档
（7～9分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉一些内容，但包含多数内容要点；
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的需求；
有一些语法及词汇错误，但不影响理解；
采用了简单的衔接手法，内容较连贯，层次较清晰；
格式和语域基本合理。
对目标群体基本产生了预期的效果。
第二档
（4～6分）
未能按要求完成试题规定的任务。
漏掉或未能有效阐述一些内容要点，写了一些无关内容；
语法结构单调、词汇项目有限；
有较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解；
未采用恰当的衔接手法，内容缺少连贯性；
格式和语域不恰当。
未能清楚地传达信息给读者。
第一档
（1～3分）
未完成试题规定的任务。
明显遗漏主要内容，且有许多不相关的内容；
语法项目和词汇的使用单调、重复；
语言错误多，有碍读者对内容的理解，语言运用能力差；
未使用任何衔接手法，内容不连贯，缺少组织、分段；
无格式与语域概念。
未能传达信息给读者。
零档（0分）
所传达的信息或使用语言太少，无法评价；内容与要求无关或无法辨认。
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考试号等填写在答题卡指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号，回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。
写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂
到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题：每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最
佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一个小题。每段
对话仅读一遍。
1. Which clr hair des the missing girl have?
A. Red.B.Black C.Brwn
2. What des the wman suggest the man d?
A. Be thankful. B.Be psitive C.Be helpful
3. Where des the cnversatin prbably take place?
A. In a cafe. B.In a library C. In a bkshp.
4. What time is it nw?
p.m.: 05 p.m.B. 8: 00 p.m. C.7:55 p.m.
5. What might bther the man?
A. His dieting.B. His weight. C. His plan
第二节（共15小题，每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个
选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听
完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。
6. What prblem des the wman have?
A. She is hungry.B. She feels tired. C.She hurt her eyes
7. What des the man ffer t d?
A. Fix the cmputer.B. Take care f the kids. C. Make a meal.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. Wh gave the wman the tickets?
A. Her brther. B.her husband C. her friend
9. What will the wman prbably d?
A. Sell the tickets. B.Buy sme flwers.C. Get a gift fr the man.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What did the wman feel scared f at university at the beginning?
A. Taking tests. B. Leaving hme. C. Cmmunicating with new peple.
11. What is the wman studying at university?
A. English.B. French.C. Russian.
12. What des the man want t be?
A. A teacher.B. A translatr.C. A histrian.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Wh are the speakers?
A. A cuple.B. Friends.C. Teacher and student.
14. What are the speakers mainly talking abut?
A. Whether kids shuld wrk fr pcket mney.
B. Hw kids can balance wrk and study.
C. What kids can d at hme.
15. What did the man d when he was yung?
A. He washed the dishes.B. He wrked n a farm.C. He delivered newpers.
16. What is the wman's attitude twards sleep fr yung peple?
A. They have t much sleep.
B. They shuld have enugh sleep.
C. They shuld sleep during the same time perid.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What is the speaker ding?
A. Recmmending a TV shw.
B. Intrducing a sng.
C. Presenting a star.
18. Hw is the speaker feeling abut tnight's shw?
A. Excited.B. Surprised.C. Cnfused.
19. What rle is the special guest mst famus as?
A. A sngwriter.B. An authr.C. An actress.
20. Hw many children are helped by the Imaginatin Library prgramme?
A. 1 millin.B. 9 millin.C. 1. 9 millin.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
The value-packed, all-inclusive sight-seeing package that cmbines the best f Sydney's harbr, city, bay and beach highlights.
A SydneyPass gives yu unlimited and flexible travel n the Explrer Buses: the ‘red’Sydney Explrer shws yu arund ur exciting city sights while the‘blue’Bndi Explrer visits Sydney Harbur bays and famus beaches. Take t the water n ne f three magnificent daily harbr cruises(游船). Yu can als travel free n regular Sydney Buses, Sydney Ferries r CityRail services(limited area), s yu can g t every crner f this beautiful city.
Imagine brwsing at Darling Harbur, tasting the famus seafd at Watsns Bay r enjying the city lights n an evening ferry cruise. The pssibilities and plans are endless with a SydneyPass. Wherever yu decide t g, remember that bkings are nt required n any f ur services s tickets are treated n a first in, first seated basis.
SydneyPasses are available fr 3, 5 r 7 days fr use ver a 7-calendar-day perid. With a 3r 5-day pass yu chse n which days ut f the 7 yu want t use it. All SydneyPasses include a free Airprt Express inward trip befre starting yur 3, 5 r 7 days, and the return trip is valid fr 2 mnths frm the first day yur ticket was used.
SydneyPass Fares
＊A child is defined as anyne frm the ages f 4 years t under 16 years. Children under 4 years
travel free.
＊A family is defined as 2 adults and any number f children frm 4 t under 16 years f age frm the same family.
21. A SydneyPass desn't ffer unlimited rides n
A.regular Sydney Buses B. CityRail services
C.the Explrer Buses D.the harbr cruises
22. With a SydneyPass,a traveller can
A.enjy the famus seafd fr freeB.take the Sydney Explrer t beaches
C.save fares frm and t the airprtD.reserve seats easily in a restaurant
23. If 5-day tickets were t be recmmended t a mther wh travelled with her clleague and her children, aged 3,6 and 10, what wuld the lwest cst be?
A.$225. B.$300. C.$360. D.$420.
B
Fr years ging hme fr the hlidays has been bittersweet. I appreciate the pprtunity t spend quality time with my mm but it is painful fr me t see her huse littered with stuff(物品). Clthes bught but never wrn, and new items in their riginal packaging carelessly purchased and never used. It's evident that seeing the stuff n a daily basis reminds my mm f a time when shpping was her way f spending mney.
I didn't fully understand the extent t which my mm was suffering until this week, when I saw piles f clthes n her bed,“Hw d yu manage t sleep every night with all that stuff, Mm?”I asked. T my hrrr, she replied t it because I knw I have t get rid f all this stuff eventually; I am punishing myself by sleeping with them until I d that.”
Shcked and upset, I gently explained t her that punishing herself was nly t make things wrse, and that everybdy deserves a place t sleep in peace, n matter what mistakes they've made. I suggested she mve all the stuff upstairs, leaving her rm cmfrtable t sleep in.
With patience and her slw but steady guidance, I helped her g thrugh sme f the piles and mve them upstairs. Fr the rest f the week I stayed there, she was in a better md and was excited abut ging-thrugh the rest f the huse t finally get rid f her stuff—pa st mistakes and painful times. The items brught back painful memries as we inspected and mved them, but I kept reminding her that remving them wuld allw her t mve n and heal. We finally sld s many things and tk bag after bag t charity.
The stuff is just a sign f the destructive patterns f self-hatred n past mistakes. Only thrugh the act f self-frgiveness can we bring abut a chain reactin f rerganizing—bth f the huse and heart.
24. What made the authr feel bitter?
A. Her mm was always left alne at hme.
B. Her mm wasted mney n useless things,
C. She culdn't understand her mm's srrws.
D. Her mm was stuck in the painful memries.
25. The underlined wrd“that”in the secnd paragraph refers t _.
A. pening the stuff B. buying the stuff
C. getting rid f the stuff D. mving the stuff
26. We can infer frm the passage that _.
A. the authr never bught her mm anything
B. the authr's m m regrets buying s many things
C. the authr's m m has n mney t purchase nw
D. the authr knws her mm's suffering nly this week
27. What's the best title f the passage?
A. Clearance helps remve suffering B. The imprtance f self-frgiveness.
C. Keep an eye n the elderly's behavir D. Hw t d shpping wisely
C
Trees dn't lk at the calendar t see when spring arrives, but they seem t knw when spring is here better than we d. The annual shift frm winter t spring is a breathtaking event t watch as leaves becme green and a lush(苍翠的) envirnment reveals itself. Recently a research takes a lk at why trees in cities are turning green earlier than expected.
Scientists use satellite imagery t see when plants turn green. By cmparing spring green ups in the 85 largest US cities, scientists fund that n average trees start t turn green nine days earlier in cities due t the cmbined effect f artificial lights and urban heat effect.
Accrding t the findings, ne f the reasns is the artificial light. City lights brightening the night skies, billbard signs lit up n radways and car headlights all cntribute t shifting the regular day t night cycle that plants and trees rely n. In rder t stay alive during cruel winters, trees hit the pause buttn n their grwth. Since temperatures can vary dramatically thrughut the winter, the length f daylight is the signal trees lk fr t safely start grwing again and turn green.
On average cities are typically 1.8 t 5.4F warmer than rural areas. This is knwn as the urban heat island effect. The changes in city envirnments may affect seasnal changes even mre than climate warming and msquit seasn, water cycles, and als affect pllinatrs(授粉媒介). Despite the wrries and cncern, it isn't all bad news.“With a lnger grwing seasn, trees wuld be able t absrb mre carbn dixide,”A researcher said.“Hpefully they’d have a lnger perid t d the cling effect that can help relieve the urban heating effect in cities.”
28. What is the purpse f the text?
A. T reveal hw trees survive bitter winters.
B. T explain why trees turn green earlier in cities.
C. T warn hw human activities disturb nature.
D. T clarify hw trees turning green earlier benefits cities.
29. Hw did the scientists cnduct their research?
A. Develping pictures sht by the satellite.
B. Allwing the city envirnment t reveal itself.
C. Cmparing the green-up time in sample cities.
D. Bringing ut urban heat island effect.
30. Which f the fllwing elements cntributes t trees turning green earlier?
A. Plant pllinatrs. B. Water cycle. C. Rad signs. D. Street lamps.
31. In which sectin f a website can the text be fund?
A. Envirnment. B. Educatin. C. Entertainment. D. Business.
D
Experts analyzed hw language can affect children's lives and the rle it plays in everyday life. They als determined which languages tend t lead t the best career pprtunities as an adult.
“We believe that language learning is hugely beneficial fr children's develpment and it is a real investment fr the future,” said Antnella Srace, prfessr f develpmental linguistics(语言学)at Edinburgh University. The study invlved a survey f 2,001 parents with children under the age f 18, as well as anther survey f mre than 500 business leaders.
S which languages tk the tp spt? Results indicated that children shuld be learning french, German, and/r Chinese if they want t be successful within the next ten years. Mastering a secnd language pens the dr t new markets fr businesses and allws them t create new relatinships with ptential partners. Besides being able t speak anther language, the academic and interpersnal skills that can be acquired frm learning a new language are imprtant as well. “Children wh are expsed t different languages becme mre aware f different cultures, anchrpeple, and ther pints f view. They als tend t be better than mnlinguals(只用单语的人) at multitasking and are ften mre advanced readers.”said Srace.
A vast majrity f parents surveyed in this study (85 percent) believe it is imprtant fr their children t learn a secnd language, and abut ne in fur believe it will increase their child's career pprtunities and imprve their chance f being emplyed. The future emplyment markets are in need f ce tur guides, rbt caches, frnt-line e-cmmerce wrkers, nurses etc. N matter what a child chse t be, multilinguals and crss-culture talents will prbably have a gd chance t take the lead. Hwever, 45 percent f parents surveyed admit that their child r children cannt speak a secnd language.
If yu want yur child t stand ut frm the crwd, fllw the habits f parents f successful peple-give children chres, set high but realistic expectatins, get yurself educated, make time fr bnding, accept and recgnize their feelings—and, f curse, make sure they learn ne f the three success languages!
32. Wh might be a persn that tk part in the survey?
A. A yung technician with n child. B. A farmer with a 19-year-ld child.
C. A middle-aged reprter with n child. D. A librarian with a 16-year-ld child.
33. What are the benefits f peple's mastering a secnd language?
①Develping ne's strng will.
②Imprving the ability t bserve things.
③Acquiring academic and interpersnal skills.
④ Having access t new markets fr businesses.
⑤Frming new relatinships with ptential partners.
A.①③⑤ B.①②④ C.③④⑤ D.②③④
34. Hw many parents surveyed believe learning a secnd language will increase their child's career pprtunities?
A. Abut 500. B. Abut 600. C. Abut 700. D. Abut 800.
35. What is the aim f the last paragraph?
A. T explain sme cncepts. B. T tell readers a stry.
C. T present sme parents' pinins. D. T ffer readers sme suggestins.
第二节(共5 小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Being a gd neighbr matters—nt nly because it makes life mre pleasant, but als because being a gd neighbr is part f being a gd persn.
Being a gd neighbr has a lt t d with respecting privacy. _36_ , give neighbrs a lt f ce and try t sense when it's apprpriate t back ff.
_37_ . Helping with physical wrk is ne gd way t establish trust. If yur neighbr is ging t be mving sme heavy furniture, r needs help in fixing smething yu knw yur way arund, ffer t help ut. Once yu're getting familiar, this assistance can als extend t things like huse-sitting r cllecting the mail while yur neighbr is away. Eventually, the day may cme when yu're asked t take care f their kids. _38_ if yu accept it.
It shuld g withut saying that pet wners need t care fr their animals prperly. _39_ .There are few things mre annying fr neighbrs than a dg that uses their lawns as a tilet, r that barks endlessly while chained up in a backyard. Dn't mess arund—be a kind and respnsible pet wner.
There are times when a certain level f nise is fine and there are times when it isn't. _40_ .Turn the music dwn a bit after sunset, and further reduce the vlume as it gets tward 10 p. m. It's usually fine t thrw an ccasinal lud party as lng as the neighbrs are invited r have been infrmed.
A. It's gd t knw the difference
B. This includes cleaning up after them
C. It's ften best t mind yur wn business
D. Yu had better say cngratulatins t yur neighbur
E. Yur family pet can be left in the trust f a neighbur
F. Yu’ll prbably end up playing with and entertaining these children
G. But it's just as imprtant t knw when the time is right t ffer sme help
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共 15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I was getting mre excited as we gt ff the train at beautiful Grand Central Statin. After a tur at the Museum f Mdern Art, we _41_ Radi City Music Hall and the Christmas tree at Rckefeller Center. In ne f the _42_ in the area, I fund a tiny bxed set f Peter Rabbit bks, perfect fr my _43_ . Was there anything like Christmas in New Yrk? Having experienced an exciting and tiring tur, we called a _44_ back t Grand Central Statin.
On the way hme I realized that my handbag was gne —lst r _45_ , I had n idea. All the magic f this special day _46_ . I glumly(闷闷不乐地) pictured a jam-packed Department f Mtr Vehicles and all the phne calls that I’d have t make t get my _47_ cards replaced with new nes. And I'd never _48_ all thse precius phts f my daughters.
The days slipped by while I gt rides t cllege and _49_ ging t the DMV(车管所) at such a busy time f year. Then I gt an unexpected _50_ , a bx with the return address f Radi City Music Hall. _51_ ,I pened it and shuted in a jyful _52_ .
There was my ld handbag, with everything _53_ gd inside — license, cards and phts—and ne thing that hadn't been there _54_ , a handwritten nte, saying,“I fund this handbag lying under the seat f my taxi by _55_ . Merry Christmas!”
41. A. reached B. visited C. entered D. nticed
42. A. schls B. factries C. shps D. hspitals
43. A. sns B. parents C. cusins D. daughters
44. A. car B. taxi C. carriage D. bus
45. A. stlen B. hidden C. frgtten D. cvered
46. A. arrived B. wrked C. disappeared D. disturbed
47. A. ld B. useful C. dirty D. small
48. A. packed B. encuntered C. shwn D. replaced
49. A. brught abut B. came rund C. relied n D. put ff
50. A. fax B. delivery C. reward D. dcument
51. A. Cnfused B. Shcked C. Disappinted D. Frightened
52. A. speed B. wrd C. vice D. mment
53. A. gradually B. riginally C. frequently D. cmpletely
54. A. thugh B. befre C. ever D. yet
55. A. accident B. nature C. design D. cmparisn
第二节(共 10小题;每小题1.5分, 满分 15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Why d Chinese peple drink ht water? Many westerners find it s interesting that they always see Chinese peple carry a vacuum cup(保温杯) n matter which seasn it is.
Fr lts f Chinese peple, nthing is _56_ (cmmn) than drinking ht water every day. But fr mst f the Westerners, _57_ idea f drinking plain ht water is really dd since they drink cld water even in winter. Why d Chinese peple drink ht water? Ht water vs cld water, which ne is better? Fllw us _58_ (find) an ideal answer.
It is well knwn _59_ Chinese peple prefer ht meals every day, and they're als used t _60_ (have) ht drinks with it. Mrever, sme parents always teach _61_ (they) children t drink ht water with meals, because they think mixing cld liquids with ht meals _62_ (be)really bad fr the stmach. And cld liquids may slidify fats in yur stmach, which cause digestive prblems, whereas ht liquids aid in _63_ (digest).
Accrding t the eating habits in western cuntries, they prefer“raw”fd, _64_ they als prefer their water“raw”. At the same time, they are fnd _65_ hamburgers, cheese and fried stuff, which are all with high calrie. As a matter f fact, they need cld drinks t cl them ff.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假如你是李华，你的外国朋友David在给你的电子邮件中问及了你家乡的近况，请你给他写一封电子邮件，告诉他你家乡近3年的一些变化。内容包括：
1.主要变化；
2. 变化的原因；
3.发出邀请。
注意：词数80左右，可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear David,
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
续写的词数应为150左右。
续写的词数应为 150 左右。
The average present merely satisfies a temprary desire; the great ne becmes mre precius with time ging by.
When I was a by f furteen, I needed t have 80 hurs f cmmunity service per year and I used t take care f Mrs. Lng's garden, which was near the Presbyterian Church. As a junir high schl student, I devted myself t it, sweeping the fallen leaves and mwing the lawn(修剪草坪). There I learnt hw t cut away dry branches and even helped t plant a sapling(小树苗).Tired as I was every time I finished my wrk, I did enjy the time there fr learning smething new. I clearly remembered that Mrs Lng, a nice and caring elder, always treated me t delicius meals and drinks. She als lved taking phts, always with an ld camera in hand. It was said that the camera was passed dwn frm her father and she cherished it a lt.
Several days befre Christmas, she whispered t me,“When Christmas cmes, I shall have a present fr yu.”I spent much time wndering what it wuld be. The bys I played with had baseball glves, ice skates and bicycles, and I was s eager t acquire any ne f these that I cnvinced myself that she intended t chse frm amng them. But at the same time, I had sme dubts whether she wuld buy me such things because she was nt that well-ff.
The day befre Christmas, I went there as befre. With the wrk dne, I was ging t leave when she pulled me aside.“Kid, wait fr a minute,”she said, leading me int her living rm. She seated me n a chair, went t anther rm, and in a mment std befre me hlding a small package that under n circumstances culd hld a bicycle r a pair f skates r even a baseball glve. It weighed almst nthing.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为 150左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Paragraph 1:
I tk the package with disappintment. __________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2:
Opening the package, I was ttally astnished._____________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
答案及听力录音材料
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
1—5 BACCB6－10 BCA BC11－15 AABAB16－20 BCAAC
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
21—23 BCC 24—27 DCBA28—31 BCDA32—35 DCAD
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
36—40 CGFBA
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41—45 BCDBA46—50 CACDB51—55 ACDBA
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56. mre cmmn57. the58. t find59. that60. having
61.their62. is63. digestin64. s/and65.f
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
The pssible versin
Dear David,
Nice t receive yur email! Hearing that yu are interested in my hmetwn, I’m writing t intrduce my hmetwn’s new changes t yu.
The past three years have witnessed great changes in my hmetwn. First, the infrastructure has been upgraded greatly. The rads have been widened and new parks have been added t, all f which make the city a better place and help imprve the life f thse arund them. These changes are mainly due t the gvernment’s investment in the city’s develpment, as well as the effrts made by lcal businesses and residents in imprving the city’s image and attractiveness.
I warmly invite yu t cme and visit my hmetwn again. I believe yu will be amazed at its transfrmatin.
Yurs,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
Paragraph 1:
I tk the package with disappintment. It was s light that I guessed there must be smething valueless. I had been lking frward t the present fr s lng but I had never expected the result like this! There was n dubt that Mrs. Lng culd nt understand what I desired. Carrying the package, I tried t cntain my facial expressin but bviusly, Mrs. Lng nticed my emtin. With a smile, she gently patted my shulder and encuraged me t pen the package. Slwly I unwrapped the delicately-packed present, wndering what n earth it wuld be. She tld me t pen the package sn after arriving hme. Thanking her with a knwing smile, I headed hme. The mment I was back hme, curisity drve me t unwrapped the delicately-packed present.
Paragraph 2:
Opening the package, I was ttally astnished. Lying there were several phts f me! I picked up ne f them which shwed a hard-wrking figure sweeping the fallen leaves with sweat wetting the whle T-shirt. I was s thrilled that it was Mrs. Lng wh carefully recrded such precius mments fr me. Never befre had I realized hw attentive I was and the wnderful scene was elabrately recrded. Deeply tuched, I expressed hw meaningful I cnsidered the present was. Nw the pht is still in my album, reminding me f the wnderful days I spent n Mrs. Lng’s garden.
书面表达评分标准
（一）应用文评分标准
应用文总分是15分。评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来评分。一般分为五档：第五档（13～15分），第四档（10～12分），第三档（7～9分），第二档（4～6分），第一档（1～3分）。
（二）读后续写评分原则：
1、本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分，每个档次5分。（参见附录）
2、评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言（内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性）初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。（如果通篇没有使用较复杂的句子结构，评分时将分数降低1个档次）。
3、词数少于120或多于180的，从总分中减去2分。
4、语言形式错误分为大错和小错。大错包括“时态、语态、主谓一致等”，小错包括“单词拼写错误、小品词用法错误”等。
如出现1个大错，从总分中减去1分。如出现1个小错，从总分中减去半分。
5、如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
6、如层次不清楚，写作没分段，从总分中减去2分。
读后续写作文附录：各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（很好）：（21—25分）
1、完全完成了试题规定的任务；
2、与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理，内容丰富；
3、应用了较多的语法结构和词汇；
4、语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言应用能力；
5、有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑；
6、完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档（好）：（16—20分）
1、完全完成了试题规定的任务；
2、与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理，内容比较丰富；
3、应用语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求；
4、语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因为尝试较复杂的语法结构或词汇所致；
5、应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑；
6、达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档（适当）：（11—15分）
1、基本完成试题规定的任务；
2、与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接，写出了若干有关内容；
3、应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求；
4、有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解；
5、应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯；
6、整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（较差）：（6—10分）
1、未恰当完成试题规定的任务；
2、与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接，写出了一些有关内容；
3、语法结构单调、词汇项目有限；
4、有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解；
5、较少地使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性；
6、信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档（差）：（1—5分）
1、未完成试题规定的任务；
2、与所给短文和开头语的衔接较差，产出内容太少；
3、语法结构单调、词汇项目有限；
4、较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解；
5、缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯；
6、信息未能传达给读者。
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求的内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
听力录音稿
Text 1
M: Lk at the girl in a red skirt ver there. She lks like the missing girl in the newper.
W: But the descriptin said the missing girl had black hair. (1) That girl ver there has brwn hair.
Text 2
W: Please, Steve. When yu ask fr help, it makes thers upset if yu dn' t express yur thanks. (2)
M: Yu' re right. There are just s many things n my mind. But srry, it wn' t happen again.
Text 3
W: Ww, this place has gt all srts f bks. There is als a nice cafe nearby. I can't believe I've never been here befre!
M: Great, isn't it? It's definitely my favrite place t buy bks, (3) even if they are a bit mre expensive here than they are nline.
Text 4
M: Put yur cat n. The taxi will be here in five minutes.
W: I need t brush my hair. I thught I had tld yu t rder it fr 8:00 p.m.
M: I did. (4) Just hurry up nw.
Text 5
M: I'm trying t lse weight but nthing seems t be wrking. I' ve tried running and cycling.
W: Yu shuld try cunting calries. Yu decide what t eat and measure hw many calries t bum every day accrding t yur wn plan. Yu'll see and feel the difference. (5)
Text 6
M: Yu lk tired. (6) Has it been a lng day?
W: Yes. I can hardly keep my eyes pen nw. (6) I started wrking at my cmputer at nine 0 'clck this mrning and I dn't think I lked away until five.
M: Really? N breaks at all?
W: Nt ne.
M: Well, yu're hme nw. Just relax and have an early night.
W: I wish I culd. But nw I have t ck dinner. (7) The kids need t be fed.
M: Oh, dn't wrry abut that. I'll take care f it. (7)
W: Thank yu. Yu are s sweet
Text 7
W: Want t g t a cncert tnight?
M: Which cncert?
W: The Peppers at the City Stadium.
M: Hw n earth did yu get tickets fr that? (8) They must have been sld ut as sn as they went n sale
W: My brther and his wife were planning t g but they' ve had t cancel. His wife is ill, s I gt the tickets.(8)
M: Srry t hear that. By the way, where are the seats?
W: In the third rw.
M: Ww, thse are really gd seats! They must have cst a lt. I can usually nly affrd seats at the back r upstairs.
W: Yes, it's a pity that they can't g.
M: We shuld get them a gift as a way f saying thank yu.
W: Hw abut sme flwers fr his wife? (9)
M: OK. (9)
Text 8
M: Have yu ever experienced any fears? (10)
W: Oh, lts f fears. Especially since I came t university. (10)
M: What d yu mean一leaving hme, taking exams... that srt f thing?
W: Nt really, thse things haven't bthered me t much. But meeting ther peple was scary t me at first.(10)
M: Why? Yu had met peple befre, hadn't yu?
W: Yes, but I had knwn them all my life. Here I had t get t knw varius new peple and learn hw t cmmunicate with them.
M: Weren't they friendly?
W: They were friendly enugh. But they cme frm all ver the wrld 一 frm France, Russia, Pland.. everywhere. Frtunately, we can all cmmunicate in English, which happens t be my majr in cllege. (11)
M: Yes, even in yur re time, it is helping yu study.
W: Exactly.
M: What d yu want t be when yu leave schl? (12)A translatr r smething?
W: I'm hping t g int teaching. (12)
M: Oh, the same as me. I want t teach histry. (12)
Text9
W: D yu think yung peple shuld als have jbs when they are at schl?
M: I d. I think kids shuld wrk fr their pcket mney.
W: What kind f wrk?
M: Helping with the washing up, cleaning. . . whatever. They shuld realize they need t wrk if they want t have mney.
W: My kids are very gd at thse things. Bth f them help with jbs arund the huse.
M: That's gd, but I dn't think all yung peple are like that these days.
W: T be fair, I suppse a lt f parents want their k ids t cncentrate n their schlwrk.
M: I always had enugh time t d my schlwrk in my yuth, even thugh I als wrked n my dad's farm.(15)
W: I used t deliver newpers. I had t be up at 6:00 a.m., whatever the weather.
M: It didn't d yu any harm, did it? I bet yu still did well at schl.
W: I did OK, althugh I was tired all day. I really think yung peple need t get enugh sleep. (16) It is sleep that helps their brains develp.
Text 10
Hell, and welcme t That's Entertainment! I'm Sally Withers, and tnight, I am s excited t have ne f my wn persnal heres n the shw! (18) Nw, I dn't want t give the surprise away t quickly. S hw abut if I give yu sme infrmatin, and see if yu can guess?
Tnight's guest star was brn in 1946, (19) as the furth f 12 children. Besides her charity wrk, she's als an actress, authr and businesswman. Hwever, nne f these amazing achievements are what she is mst famus fr!
Cnfused yet? Well, let's see... She's mst famus fr being ne f America's mst ppular and prductive sngwriters, (19) with 51 recrds t her name. Twenty-five f her sngs reached number ne n the Billbard cuntry music charts. She 's wn Grammy Awards many times thrughut her unbelievable career!
Her Imaginatin Library prgramme currently gives free bks t 1.9 millin children arund the wrld. (20) Back in 2016, she raised $9 millin t help the victims f the Great Smky Muntains wildfires. And mst recently, during COVID-19, she dnated $1 millin t fight against the disease.
Yes, yu've guessed it Our special guest tnight is Dlly Partn!Adult
Child
Family
3-day ticket
＄90
＄45
＄225
5-day ticket
＄120
＄60
＄300
7-day ticket
＄140
＄70
＄350
第五档
（13～15分）
很好地完成了试题规定的任务。
包含所有内容要点；
使用丰富的语法结构和词汇；
语言自然流畅，语法错误极少；
有效地采用了多种衔接手法，文字连贯，层次清晰；
格式与语域恰当贴切。
对目标读者（即语言接受对象）完全产生了预期的效果。
第四档
（10～12分）
较好地完成了试题规定的任务。
包含所有内容要点，允许漏掉一、两个次重点；
使用较丰富的语法结构和词汇；
语言基本准确，只在试图使用复杂结构或较高级词汇时才有个别错误；
采用了适当的衔接手法，层次清晰，组织较严密；
格式和语域较恰当。
对目标读者产生了预期的效果。
第三档
（7～9分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉一些内容，但包含多数内容要点；
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的需求；
有一些语法及词汇错误，但不影响理解；
采用了简单的衔接手法，内容较连贯，层次较清晰；
格式和语域基本合理。
对目标群体基本产生了预期的效果。
第二档
（4～6分）
未能按要求完成试题规定的任务。
漏掉或未能有效阐述一些内容要点，写了一些无关内容；
语法结构单调、词汇项目有限；
有较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解；
未采用恰当的衔接手法，内容缺少连贯性；
格式和语域不恰当。
未能清楚地传达信息给读者。
第一档
（1～3分）
未完成试题规定的任务。
明显遗漏主要内容，且有许多不相关的内容；
语法项目和词汇的使用单调、重复；
语言错误多，有碍读者对内容的理解，语言运用能力差；
未使用任何衔接手法，内容不连贯，缺少组织、分段；
无格式与语域概念。
未能传达信息给读者。
零档（0分）
所传达的信息或使用语言太少，无法评价；内容与要求无关或无法辨认。
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