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    广西壮族自治区百色市2023-2024学年九年级上学期11月期中英语试题

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    这是一份广西壮族自治区百色市2023-2024学年九年级上学期11月期中英语试题,共12页。

    (全卷满分120分, 考试时间 120分钟)
    注意事项:
    1. 答题前, 考生务必将姓名、 准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡上。
    2. 考生作答时, 请在答题卡上作答(答题注意事项见答题卡),在本试卷上作答无效。
    3. 先考听力, 在听力开始前有两分钟听力试音时间。
    一、 听力 (本大题共30小题,每小题1分,共30分)
    (一) 听句子, 选图片。
    你将听到五个句子,请选出与所听句子内容相符的图片,有一幅图是多余的。每个句子读两遍。
    1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
    (二)听短对话,选择最佳答案。
    你将听到五段对话, 每段对话后有一个小题,请根据对话内容,选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍
    6. Where is the wman ging?
    A. T a pst ffice. B. T a library. C. T a bank.
    7. What is the ruler made f?
    A. Steel. B. Silver. C. Wd.
    8. Which festival is Betty's favrite?
    A. The Spring Festival. B. The Mid-Autumn Festival. C. The Lantern Festival.
    9. Hw des the girl learn English?
    A. By listening t sngs. B. By reading bks. C. By watching mvies.
    10. What will the speakers d this weekend?
    A. Fly a kite. B. Play chess. C. Have a picnic.
    (三) 听长对话,选择最佳答案。
    你将听到三段对话, 请根据对话内容,选出每个问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
    请听第一段对话, 回答第11至 13小题。
    11. What shuld the man d when he walks t the end f the street?
    A. Turn right. B. Turn left. C. G ahead.
    12. Where is the subway statin?
    A. Beside the white building. B. Behind the white building. C. Acrss frm the white building.
    13. Hw lng will it take the man t walk t the su bway statin?
    A. Abut 5 minutes. B. Abut 10 minutes. C. Abut 15 minutes.
    请听第二段对话, 回答第14至 16小题。
    14. Hw lng has Frank lived in China?
    A. Fr three mnths. B. Fr fur mnths. C. Fr five mnths.
    15. What are they talking abut?
    A. Traditinal Chinese art. B. Traditinal Chinese festival. C. Traditinal Chinese fd.
    16. When will Lucy g t Frank's huse?
    A. This afternn. B. Tmrrw mrning. C. Tmrrw afternn.
    请听第三段对话, 回答第17至20 小题。
    17. What des Sam think f the new city?
    A. It's bring. B. It's exciting. C. It's relaxing.
    18. Which city did Sam live in befre?
    A. Lndn. B. Tky. C. New Yrk.
    19. Wh mved with Sam?
    A. His brther. B. His wife. C. His dg Charles.
    20. Hw many children des Helen have?
    A. One. B. Tw. C. Three.
    (四) 听短文,选择最佳答案。
    你将听到一篇短文,请根据短文内容,选出每个问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。
    21. Where did Amy's family live befre she was 12?
    A. In the muntains. B. In the city. C. In the twn.
    22. Hw lng did Amy spend walking t schl every mrning?
    A. Half an hur. B. One hur. C. One and a half hurs.
    23. Hw many students were there in Amy's schl?
    A.6. B. Abut 20. C. Abut 120.
    24. What did Amy still remember nw?
    A. Fish. B. Vegetables. C. Flwers, trees and birds.
    25. What des Amy think abut her life befre?
    A. It was happy. B. It was bring. C. It was pr.
    (五) 听短文,填信息。
    你将听到一篇短文,请根据短文内容,将所缺信息填入答题卡对应的横线上,每空一词。短文读三遍。
    二、单项选择(本大题共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
    从下列各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出最佳选项。
    31. ——My math is pr. Culd yu help me with it?
    —— .
    A. Thank yu B. Me, t C. N prblem
    32. ——Tim, this is ne f yur scks. Where is ne?
    —I dn't knw, Mm. Maybe it's under the bed.
    A. ther B. anther C. the ther
    33. It's imprtant fr students t hang ut with gd kids because students can be easily by their friends.
    A. influenced B. punished C. interviewed
    34. Sally is a(n) girl. She likes talking with thers.
    A. active B. quiet C. serius
    35. ——D yu have any in Guilin? ——Yes. My aunt and uncle wrk there.
    A. classmates B. relatives C. friends
    36. Yur parents lve yu very much they seldm say, “I lve yu.”
    A. even thugh B. s C. because
    37. ——Yu lk different nw. ——Yes. I tenpunds after the summer hliday.
    A. put up B. put ff C. put n
    38. The flwers n the farm twice a week and they grw very well.
    A. water B. watered C. are watered
    39. The summer vacatin is cming. Dn't swim in the lake, when yu are alne.
    A. prbably B. especially C. exactly
    40. ——Excuse me. Culd yu tell me ? ——At the new bkstre n the crner.
    A. why yu bught the bk B. when yu bught the bk C. where yu bught the bk
    三、补全对话(本大题共5小题,每小题1分, 共5分)
    根据对话内容,从下面方框中选出恰当的句子补全对话, 有一个选项是多余的。
    A. Hw lng did yu stay in the frest?
    B. What d yu think f the peple there?
    C. Wh did yu g there with?
    D. Where did yu g?
    E. Where have yu been?
    F. Yu need t take mre thick clthes.
    A: Hell, Mike. Hw was yur vacatin?
    B: I really had a gd time.
    A: 41
    B: I've been t a frest near my uncle's farm.
    A: 42
    B: I went there with my friends.
    A: 43
    B: Fr 3 days. I expect t g there again.
    A: Lucky yu. I had t stay at hme. But I'm planning t travel t Munt Changbai.
    B: Oh, that's a gd place. I went there three years ag.
    A: Can yu give sme advice n my trip t Munt Changbai?
    B: 44
    A: OK,I'll d as yu tell me. 45
    B: They are friendly and yu will enjy yurself there.
    四、完形填空(本大题共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
    阅读下面语篇, 从各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中, 选出最佳选项。
    What is the mst difficult language fr peple t learn? Yu 46 think it is English. But fr many peple,Chinese is ne f the mst difficult languages. It 47 abut 2,200 hurs t be a master(大师) f Chinese.
    If smene studies Chinese fr ne hur every day, it will take 48 six years t learn the language well.
    49 Chinese is difficult, a lt f peple learn it because Chinese is ne f the 50 languages. Here are sme ther difficult languages. Hw many 51 des it take t learn thse languages well? Japanese is as 52 as Chinese. It als takes as many as 2,200 hurs t learn it well.
    Russian(俄语) is difficult, t. A lt f peple wh dream f being astrnauts want t learn 53 well.They have t spend 1,100 hurs 54 it. Hw abut German? It may nt be s difficult. If yu want t learn it well, it 55 needs 750 hurs. And if yu can speak English well, yu may learn German mre easily.
    46. A. can B. may C. must
    47. A. takes B. feels C. makes
    B. them C. him r her
    49. A. Because B. Althugh C. S
    50. A. internatinal B. natinal C. easy
    51. A. dllars B. hurs C. times
    52. A. difficult B. interesting C. bring
    53. A. English B. Chinese C. Russian
    54. A. in B. at C. n
    55. A. nly B. als C. always
    五、 阅读理解(本大题共20小题,第56~60 小题,每小题1分;第61~75小题,每小题2分,共35分)
    A
    There was nce a farmer. He thught f a cmpetitin between his dg and his rabbit. He dug a hle in ne f his biggest fields, and put a carrt and a bne in it. He wanted t see which animal wuld find them first.
    The rabbit was very cheerful and believed in himself. He threw himself int lking fr the carrt, digging here and there, and thught he wuld find it. But the dg smelt arund fr a bit, lay dwn and began t cmplain(抱怨) abut hw difficult it was t find ne bne in such a big field.
    The rabbit dug fr hurs. Every time the rabbit dug a new hle, the dg thught it was s difficult that he wuld never find the bne. S he just had a rest there and stpped lking fr it. But the rabbit kept digging. Finally,the rabbit fund the carrt and the bne.
    The dg lst the game, because he nly cmplained and didn't try at all.
    根据语篇内容,判断下列句子正误,正确的在答题卡上将“T”涂黑,错误的在答题卡上将“F”涂黑。
    56. The cmpetitin was between the farmer and his tw animals.
    57. The farmer dug a hle because he wanted t put a carrt and a bne in it.
    58. The rabbit was very cheerful and believed in himself.
    59. The dg thught it's nt difficult t find ne bne in such a big field.
    60. Frm this stry, we've learned that we shuld believe in urselves and keep n trying.
    B
    Many schls have increased the number f P. E. classes frm three a week t five r even mre. This is in respnse t(响应) China’s new standard(标准) n P. E. educatin. The standard als encurages schls t prvide ther ppular sprts and traditinal Chinese sprts.
    Ma Jiajun, 17, frm Jilin Jiangcheng Middle Schl, recently set a wrld recrd fr
    “the mst cnsecutive jump rpe triples(连续三摇跳绳)”with 701 times. His teacher
    said the schl has placed attentin n P. E. every year. Nw students here have been
    mre active in nt nly jump rpe but als ther kinds f sprts.
    Ga Yuxiang frm Yantai N.1 Middle Schl enjys the tai chi traditin f his
    schl. Ga said,“Different frm ball games, tai chi calms(冷静) me dwn and relaxes
    my mind, getting me ready fr the next class.”
    Ren Jianjiang is a hip-hp dance fan. He said,“The sprt desn't require any
    experience, but it requires teamwrk. I have made many gd friends alng the way. If
    we want t get mre training, we can apply fr(申请) the schl hip-hp team.”
    The dragn bat race at the sprts festival is a traditin f Shenzhen Hngshan
    Middle Schl. Surprisingly, it's dne n the playgrund. What students like the mst
    abut it is teachers are als a part f the team. When teachers are jining the students,
    they are mre united.
    根据语篇内容,选择最佳选项。
    61. What d we knw abut Jiangcheng Middle Schl?
    A. Students there like many kinds f sprts including jump rpe.
    B. Yu can learn a square dance when yu are at schl.
    C. It has mre P. E. classes than ther schls in Jilin.
    62. Why des Ga Yuxiang like tai chi?
    A. It is dne in the water. B. It belngs t ppular sprts. C. It culd relax his mind.
    63. What des a hip-hp dance r need?
    A. Much experience. B. Teamwrk. C. A wrld recrd.
    64. What is the writer's main purpse in writing the passage?
    A. T cmpare(比较) traditinal sprts with ppular sprts.
    B. T encurage schls t prvide different sprts.
    C. T intrduce the hip-hp dance t middle schl students.
    65. Where is the passage prbably frm?
    A. A newspaper. B. A histry bk. C. A nvel.
    C
    At times, everything is ging t g suth n yu. Maybe yu can try yur best t slve that. Maybe yu na ve t accept that. Yu're ging t say,“This is it.”“This is hw I end.”
    Let's read tw stries abut the super heres frm different cuntries. What did they d fr their gals?
    Jingwei Tries t Fill up the Sea
    Once upn a time, the yungest daughter f Emperr Yan, went bating n the Eastern Sea. While she was enjying herself, a strng wind rse n the sea, and her bat sank t the sea. Her spirit turned int a beautiful bird after she died. She cried sadly in the sund“Jingwei, Jingwei”. That was why peple called her“Jingwei”.
    The bird lived n a muntain near the sea. She was s sad that she decided t fill up the sea. Every day,she flew between the muntain and the sea, carrying a stne r a tree branch frm the muntain and drpping it int the sea.
    One day, the sea said t Jingwei,“Pr little bird, stp ding that meaningless thing! Yu'll never fill me up.”Jingwei replied,“I’ll fill yu up n dubt(怀疑)!I will, even if it will take me thusands f years! I’ll fight n withut taking a rest.”
    Rbinsn Cruse
    Rbinsn Cruse is a main character frm a nvel named Rbinsn Cruse.
    When Rbinsn first arrived n the island, he had nthing. But he fund the ship and made a small bat.He brught back many things he culd use——fd and drink, tls, knives and guns. Althugh he lst everything, he didn't lse his life. He kept wrking and waiting fr anther ship. He used the knife t cut dwn trees and built a huse. He went with his gun almst every day t kill animals and birds fr fd. He learned t grw fruit and vegetables. He lived n the island fr many years and he was saved finally.
    根据语篇内容,选择最佳选项。
    66. Wh are the super heres in the tw stries?
    A. Animals and birds. B. Jingwei and Rbinsn. C. Emperr Yan and the Eastern Sea.
    67. Why did peple call the beautiful bird“Jingwei”?
    A. Because she cried sadly in the sund“Jingwei”.
    B. Because her father gave her the name“Jingwei”.
    C. Because the name f the muntain where she lived was“Jingwei”.
    68. What did Rbinsn d with his knife in the passage?
    A. Grew fruit and vegetables. B. Killed animals and birds fr fd. C. Cut dwn trees t build a huse.
    69. Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
    A. The sea thught Jingwei did the meaningful thing.
    B. Jingwei decided t fill up the sea with stnes and branches.
    C. Rbinsn had sme fd and tls when he first arrived n the island.
    70. What d the tw stries tell us?
    A. Peple shuld never give up.
    B. Peple shuld ask fr help.
    C. Peple shuld keep away frm difficulties.
    D
    Shenzhu XVI spaceship successfully reached space n May 30, 2023. It marked the beginning f the Shenzhu XVI missin(任务).
    There are three peple n the spaceship:Jing Haipeng, 57;Zhu Yangzhu, 37 and Gui Haicha,37. There are sme special facts abut them. Jing is nw the mst experienced astrnaut in China. This is the furth time fr him t fly int space. Zhu is an engineer and Gui is a scientist. Gui is als the first Chinese civilian wh isn't a sldier n a spaceflight.
    Bth Zhu and Gui are China’s third-generatin (第三代) astrnauts. They were picked in 2020 frm a grup f researchers and engineers. One wman and seventeen men were picked. And they are in three grups. One grup is spaceship pilts. They“fly”the spaceship. Anther grup is spaceflight engineers. They“fix”the spaceship. There is als a grup f science specialists(载荷专家), such as Gui. They d scientific studies in space.
    Gui’s glasses als draw peple’s attentin because astrnauts aren’t usually nearsighted(近视的). But picking specialists is different frm picking ther astrnauts. It's safe t wear glasses in the space statin.Hwever, during the launch (发射) and return, Gui needs t take ff the glasses.
    The astrnauts will stay inside the Tiangng space statin fr arund five mnths. They will return t Earth in Nvember. They will d spacewalks, prvide help when ther spaceships visit the Tiangng space statin and finish many science tasks in space.
    根据语篇内容,选择最佳选项。
    71. What des the underlined wrd“ civilian ”mean in Chinese in the secnd paragraph?
    A. 平民 B. 懦夫 C. 说客
    72. What d we knw abut the third-generatin astrnauts?
    A. They are all men. B. There are 18 peple f them. C. They are all spaceship pilts.
    73. What is Gui Haicha's jb this time?
    A. He flies the spaceship. B. He fixes the spaceship. C. He des scientific studies.
    74. What questin des Paragraph 4 answer?
    A. Why des Gui's glasses catch peple's attentin?
    B. Hw did Gui Haicha becme an astrnaut?
    C. Why can't nearsighted peple g int space?
    75. What can we learn frm the passage?
    A. Jing Haipeng has been t the space fur times befre 2023.
    B. Zhu Yangzhu flies the spaceship t the Tiangng space statin.
    C. The three astrnauts will be back t Earth in abut five mnths.
    六、选词填空(本大题共10小题,每小题1.5分,共15分)
    根据语篇内容,从方框中选择恰当的单词,并用其正确形式填空。将单词填写在答题卡对应的横线上。每个单词只能用一次。
    hard fall Chinese lvely als between becme ne cuntry Befre
    This summer, many peple watched the 31st FISU Summer Wrld University Games(世界大学生运动会). Frm July 28 t August 8,6,500 student players frm 113 76 and regins(地区) came tgether in Chengdu. The players were 77 18 and 27 years ld.
    In the matches, they tried 78 fr medals(奖牌). Players gt 269 gld medals and brke 22 recrds (纪录) fr the Games this time.
    It's all thanks t the yung players' hard wrk and cnfidence(自信). One example is Chinese player Wu Yanni. 79 each match, the 26-year-ld liked t turn her head arund and pint her fingers t the sky.She did it t shw she wants t 80 strnger.
    After matches, players were happy t learn abut their differences. The players 81 gt t visit pandas in Chengdu. On July 31, Italian player Mari Del Bass met pandas fr the 82 time in real life. He even learned t say“cme here”in 83 .“They are much mre 84 than they are in vides,”said Bass.
    They als lved the nice fd. In Chengdu, many players 85 in lve with chili pwder(辣椒面).After the players left the city, they bught sme chili pwder back t their hme cuntries.
    七、书面表达(15分)
    假设你是李华,你的美国朋友Tny对中华民族丰富多样的文化习俗很感兴趣。请你给他写一封电子邮件,向他简要介绍我们的传统节日————中秋节。
    内容要点:
    1.中秋节是中国传统的节日;
    2. 活动:赏月,吃月饼,讲故事;
    3. 你的感受,并邀请他有机会来中国和你过中秋节。
    注意:
    1. 词数为 80左右;
    2. 可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
    3.文中不能出现真实姓名及学校名称;
    4. 短文开头已给出,不计入总词数。
    参考词汇:The Mid-Autumn Festival(中秋节); lunar calendar(阴历);admire the mn(赏月)
    Dear Tny,
    I'm glad t receive yur letter asking abut the Mid-Autumn Festival.
    Best wishes t yu.
    Yurs,
    Li Hua
    2023~2024 学年度上学期阶段质量调研试题
    九年级英语
    听力材料及参考答案
    英语听力测试
    下面是听力试音时间。
    M: Gd mrning, Cindy.
    W: Gd mrning, Alex. Yu lk happy tday. What's new?
    M: I'm tld ur friend David came back frm the US last weekend.
    W: Really? We haven't seen him fr a lng time.
    M: That's true. Let's visit him and give him a big surprise.
    W: But I'm afraid we'd better tell him abut it first.
    M: Yu're right. We're nt suppsed t visit him unexpectedly.
    W: S why nt call him nw?
    M: I frgt his telephne number.
    W: I think we can ask Gina. She is David's cusin. Maybe she knws his telephne number.
    M: Gd idea!
    (播两遍)
    试音到此结束。
    英语听力考试现在开始。
    (一) 听句子,选图片。
    你将听到五个句子, 请选出与所听句子内容相符的图片, 有一幅图是多余的。每个句子读两遍。
    1. It's raining heavily.
    2. The shirt is made f cttn.
    3. In China, peple g hme fr reunin at the Spring Festival.
    4. Tm is playing basketball utside.
    5. It's cnvenient t g shpping at the supermarket.
    (二) 听短对话,选择最佳答案。
    你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,请根据对话内容,选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
    6. W: Excuse me, is there a bank near here?
    M: Yes it's between the pst ffice and the library.
    7. M: Is the ruler made f wd?
    W: N, it is made f steel.
    8. M: I like the spring festival.
    W: My sister Betty likes it t, but the lantern festival is her favrite.
    9. M: Hw did yu imprve yur English? By listening t English sngs?
    W: N. I read a lt f English bks.
    10. W: Why dn't we g fr a picnic in Zhngsha n park this weekend?
    M: Gd idea.
    (三) 听长对话,选择最佳答案。
    你将听到三段对话,请根据对话内容,选出每个问题的最佳答案,每段对话读两遍。
    请听第一段对话,回答第 11 至 13 小题。
    M: Excuse me, can yu tell me the way t the nearest subway statin?
    W: Sure. Walk alng this street t the end and then turn right. Yu will see a white building.
    M: Is it the subway statin?
    W: N. The subway statin is just acrss frm the building.
    M: Oh, I see. Hw lng will it take me t walk there?
    W: Abut ten minutes.
    M: Thank yu fr yur help.
    W: It's my pleasure.
    请听第二段对话,回答第 14 至 16小题。
    W: Hi, Frank. Have yu learned abut Chinese paper cutting?
    M: N, I haven't. I have lived in China fr just fur mnths. What is it abut, Lucy?
    W: It is a kind f traditinal art. Peple cut paper int different shapes.
    M: Really? What are the shapes abut?
    W: They are abut flwers, animals and things abut Chinese histry.
    M: That's amazing. Can yu shw me sme paper cutting?
    W: Of curse. I'll take sme t yur huse tmrrw afternn.
    请听第三段对话,回答第17至20小题。
    W: Hi, Sam!
    M: Helen, gd t meet yu.
    W: Did yu just arrive here?
    M: Yeah, we arrived last week.
    W: Hw d yu like it?
    M: It's exciting. It's busier than Lndn. I was wrking in Lndn befre I came here.
    W: Did yu mve here with yur wife?
    M: N,I mved here with my dg Charles.
    W: Oh,I see.
    M: What abut yu?
    W: I have tw children.
    M: Hw ld are they?
    W: Six and eight years ld.
    M: Oh, great. That age is a lt f fun.
    W: But it is tiring.
    M: Yeah, I understand.
    (四) 听短文,选择最佳答案。
    你将听到一篇短文,请根据短文内容,选出每个问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。
    Hi, my name is Amy. Befre I was 12 years ld, my family lived in the muntains. Our huse was far frm my schl. It tk me ne hur t walk t schl every mrning. It was a happy time fr me, because I culd meet friends n the way. And we wuld g t schl tgether. There were just six classes in my schl and nly abut twenty students in each class. We spent mst f ur time playing, in the muntains, r n ur playgrund. I still remember the different kinds f flwers, the sngs f different birds and the clrs f trees and different seasns. Everything was s interesting and beautiful. Even nw I still miss my life in the muntains.
    (五)听短文,填信息。
    你将听到一篇短文,请根据短文内容,将所缺信息填入答题卡对应的横线上,每空一词。短文读三遍。
    Last summer, Li Ziqi jined a teaching activity in Xichang cunty, Sichuan. He is a 13-year-ld by frm Chengdu Xichuan Middle Schl. He vlunteered t teach primary schl students in a village. Teachers were nt enugh in the village, s he wanted t give sme classes t the kids there. His parents helped him. He gave 10 chess lessns carefully with rules and real games. The kids lve the chess class very much. They nw knw that there are many ways f learning, nt just learning frm bks. Li Zipi feels s prud f what he did. He als learned imprtant life lessns. The kids there live a hard life, but they are hpeful abut the future. That als helps him get ver the difficulties in life.
    英语听力考试到此结束,请同学们将听力答案转涂到答题卡上,然后继续做笔试部分的题目。
    参考答案
    书面表达(15 分)
    One pssible versin:
    Dear Tny,
    I'm glad t receive yur letter asking abut the Mid-Autumn Festival. I'm very glad t intrduce this festival t yu.
    The festival falls n the 15th f the 8th lunar mnth. It is ne f the mst imprtant traditinal Chinese festivals with a lng histry f mre than 2000 years. Usually, hwever far away we are, we will try t g hme fr the celebratin. The mn that night lks the brightest in the whle lunar mnth. What we lve mst is t admire the mn tgether. We sit tgether and eat mncakes and fruit, sharing ur stries. In additin t these traditinal activities, we als visit ur relatives r friends.
    I hpe yu can cme t China and enjy the festival with me.
    Yurs,
    Li Hua
    评分标准
    一、 听力测试(26—30小题) 、选词填空(76—85 小题)
    按参考答案评分,26—30小题,每小题单词拼写完全正确评1分,形式不对(含大小写错误)不予评分,不设小数点以下分值。76—85 小题,每小题单词拼写完全正确评1.5分,形式不对(含大小写错误)不予评分。
    二、书面表达
    1. 本题满分为15分,不设小数点以下分值。按五个档次评分(见下表)。
    2.本题具有一定的开放性,考生可以根据要点紧扣主题适当发挥,但必须涵盖所有要点内容。
    3. 评分时,先根据考生的书面表达内容及语言表达情况,初步确定其所属档次,然后根据该档次的要求衡量、确定或调整档次,最后评分。相同的错误不重复计算;单词拼写错误四个以上扣0.5分, 全文最多扣2分; 字数少于80词扣1分。
    4. 文中若透露个人信息, 一律不予评分。
    五级写作评分标准
    Bringing Chess t All
    Li Ziqi
    26_ years ld
    Vlunteer
    wrk
    He vlunteered t _27_ primary schl students in a village last summer.
    He gave 10 chess lessns _28_ with rules and real games.
    The kids lve the chess class very much.
    The kids nw knw that there are many _29_ f learning, nt just learning frm
    bks.
    He feels s prud. He als learned _30_ life lessns.
    1-5
    AFDBC
    6-10
    CACBC
    11-13
    ACB
    14-16
    BAC
    17-20
    BACB
    21-25
    ABCCA
    26
    13/Thirteen
    27
    teach
    28
    carefully
    29
    ways
    30
    imprtant
    31-35
    CCAAB
    36-40
    ACCBC
    41-45
    ECAFB
    46-50
    BACBA
    51-55
    BACCA
    56-60
    FTTFT
    61-65
    ACBBA
    66-70
    BACBA
    71-75
    ABCAC
    76
    cuntries
    77
    between
    78
    hard
    79
    Befre
    80
    becme
    81
    als
    82
    first
    83
    Chinese
    84
    lvely
    85
    fell
    档次
    分数
    评分标准
    第五档
    14~15分
    很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有内容要点,结构完整,语
    句流畅,意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇,语法
    和词汇错误极少(没有或仅有1处语法错误),格式正确,书写规范。
    第四档
    11~13分
    较好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有内容要点,结构较
    完整,语句完整,意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少(有2~3处
    语法错误),格式基本正确,书写较为规范。
    第三档
    8~10分
    基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点,结构欠完整,
    少数语句不通顺,意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多(有
    4~5处语法错误),格式基本正确,书写基本规范。
    第二档
    5~7分
    未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点,结构不完
    整,多数语句欠完整,意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多(有
    6~7处语法错误),影响理解,格式不够正确,书写欠规范。
    第一档
    0~4分
    未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点,结构不完整,
    多数语句不完整或意思不明,语法和词汇错误很多,书写不规范。
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