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湖北省武汉市洪山区2023-2024学年上学期期中质量检测七年级英语试卷
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这是一份湖北省武汉市洪山区2023-2024学年上学期期中质量检测七年级英语试卷，共10页。试卷主要包含了 11， 答非选择题时，答案用0， 认真阅读答题卡上的注意事项， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
洪山区教育科学研究院命制2023. 11. 16
亲爱的同学：在你答题前，请认真阅读下面的注意事项。
1. 本卷共4页，7大题，满分120分。考试用时120分钟。
2. 答题前，请将你的姓名、班级、学校填在试卷和答题卡相应的位置，并核文条码上的信息。
3. 答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标片涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案。答在”试卷”上无效
4. 答非选择题时，答案用0. 5毫米黑色笔迹签字笔写在答题卡上。答在”试卷上无效。
5. 认真阅读答题卡上的注意事项。
预祝你取得优异成绩！
第I卷 (选择题共85分)
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试 (共五节，满分25分)
第一节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听录音，选择与句中信息相符的图片。只读一遍。
第二节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听录音，选出你所听到的内容。只读一遍。
6. A. It B. Its C. It’s
7. A. their B. they C. them
8. A. 3E673 B. 31683 C. 3E683
9. A. flwers B. friends C. families
10. A. Anna Smith B. Paul Smith C. Peter Sawyer
第三节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听录音，找出问题的正确答语。每个问题读两遍。
11. A. N, I’m nt. B. Yes, I am C. Yes, it is.
12. A. My uncle David. B. My brther Bb. C. My sister Mary.
13. A. N, they aren’t. B. Yes, these are. C. Yes, it is.
14. A. It’s range. B. Here yu are. C. It’s an range
15. A. She is a teacher B. It’s in the bkcase. C. I’m fine.
第四节． (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听五个短对话，根据内容选择正确的答案。每段对话读两遍。
16. Wh’s Paul?
A. Ann’s cusin. B. Ann’s brther. C. Ann’s friend
17. Whse cmputer game is it?
A. Cindy’s. B. Jhn’s C. Eric’s.
18. Where’s Paul’s ID card?
A. On the desk. B. In the drawer. C. Under the sfa
19. What clr is Tm’s pencil?
A. Red. B. Black C. White.
20. What is under the bed?
A. A bag. B. A cat. C. A hat.
第五节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面一段短文，回答21至25五个小题。短文读两遍。
21. It’s a picture f __________.
A. bys and girls B. desks and chairs C. a classrm
22. Where are the tw pens?
A. In the pencil case. B. On the teacher’s desk. C. Under the chair.
23. Wh is eleven?
A. Mike. B. Jhn. C. Miss Green.
24. Mike is in Class __________.
A. Tw B. Seven C. Eight
25. Mike and Jhn are __________.
A. teacher and studentB. gd friends C. brthers
第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
26. Which f the fllwing wrds is prnunced (发音) /’dɔ: tə/?
A. Dctr B. dr C. dg D. daughter
27. I lst a set f keys. Which f the fllwing is crrect fr the underlined wrd in the sentence?
A. /lɒst/ B. /lɜːst/ C. /li: st/ D. /lʌst/
28. Hw many syllables (音节) are there in the wrd “cmputer”?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
29. Which f the fllwing underlined parts is different in prnunciatin (发音不同)?
A. Black B. map C. watch D. thank
30. Which f the fllwing underlined parts is different in prnunciatin (发音不同)?
A. I want t brrw yur ntebk. B. Can yu buy ranges fr me?
C. Let’s g t schl. D. Here is a pht f my family.
31. —Jhn, this is my e-friend Zhang Liang
— __________.
A. Have a gd day B. GdC. Nice t meet yu D. Bye-bye
32. —Mike, hw abut playing basketball with us?
— __________.
A. It’s interesting. B. Sunds great! C. Why? D. N, it’s bring
33. —Can I have yur name, please?
— __________.
A. Yes, please B. Yu’re welcme
C. Srry, yu have yur wn name D. I’m Amy White
34. —Oh, these watches lk s cl!
—Yes. Why nt buy __________ fr ur daughter?
A. ne B. it C. this D. that
35. Jane is __________ 13-year-ld middle schl student in __________ United States.
A. a; the. B. the; a C. a; / D. /; the
36. —I find yu always play with Alan at schl.
—Yes. And I am really ne best friend f __________.
A. he B. his C. she D. her
37. Uncle King ften helps me __________ my math. Yu can als ask him help.
A. fr; withB. with; fr C. with; abutD. fr; abut
38. —Yu mean he is Mr. White He lks s yung!
—Yeah. It’s hard t __________ him as a father f 3 sns.
A. knw B. think C. picture D. call
39. —D yu knw Rald Dahl?
—Yeah! We all knw him—he makes his __________ as a writer f children’s bks.
A. number B. pht C. peple D. name
40. —Mm! I want t watch TV!
—But sn, yur tys are everywhere! Let’s __________ them up first, OK?
A. tidy B. help C. find D. email
三、完形填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
A
Hell! I’m Linda. Welcme t my 41 !
This is ur living rm. Yu can see a lng table near the wall, and a big TV set is 42 the table. we can enjy the fd when watching TV in the living rm.
Lk! This is my parents’ bedrm. Next t it is a big study. My dad ften reads in it. Yu can see 43 beautiful flwers beside the windw. My mm ften 44 them in the mrning. Can yu see the small bedrm ver there? It’s 45 ! What’s under my desk? Haha! It’s my cat, Mimi. It lves sleeping there!
41. A. schl B. classrm C. hme D. city
42. A. n B. fr C. in D. between
43. A. sme B. any C. every D. n
44. A. spells B. waters C. thanks D. says
45. A. me B. my C. I D. mine
B
One day, Mr. Brwn wants t ck fr his family. 46 he finds nthing in his refrigeratr (冰箱). “I 47 buy sme fd nw.” he says.
S he drives t a new stre in the twn. The stre is big and tidy. Mr. Brwn gets much fd there. And he 48 buys a mdel plane fr his sn, a radi fr his daughter, and a hat fr Mrs. Brwn. Then he lks at his 49 and says, “Oh, it’s twelve ’clck. I 50 I shuld g hme nw. It’s quite 51 . “S he ges ut f the stre and drives hme, but he 52 his way.
Mr. Brwn drives alng the street. He still can’t find the way. Then he 53 and asks an ld man, “Excuse me, sir. 54 am I?”
The ld man lks 55 him and says, “Of curse yu’re in yur car, sir.”
46. A. But B. And C. Because D. Fr
47. A. can B. can’t C. must D. mustn’t
48. A. als B. t C. always D. never
49. A. player B. card C. clck D. watch
50. A. knw B. think C. want D. see
51. A. tidy B. gd C. early D. late
52. A. finds B. asks C. lses D. meets
53. A. stps B. plays C. calls D. answers
54. A. Wh B. Hw C. What D. Where
55. A. in B. at C. fr D. up
四、阅读理解 (共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
56. In which part f the newspaper can we read the news?
A. FAMILY B. ANIMAL C. SCHOOLD. FOOD
57. What des Li teach?
A. Chess. B. Chinese. C. English. D. News writing.
58. Li ges and teaches at a village schl because __________.
A. he wants t be arund kidsB. his parents wrk there
C. it’s a teaching activity f his schlD. the schl desn’t have enugh teachers
59. Frm the last paragraph (段落) we knw Li __________.
A. lves the chess class in ChengduB. learns a lt frm the kids
C. feels happy abut his wrkD. helps the kids learn frm bks
60. What’s the news abut?
A. Li Ziqi’s life in middle schl. B. Li Ziqi’s best friend.
C. Li Ziqi’s favrite teacher. D. Li Ziqi’s vlunteer wrk.
B
Frm Mnday t Friday, American students usually get up at seven. After breakfast, they g t schl n ft r n the yellw schl bus, and sme students ride bikes. ★ . Then they put their bags in their lckers and take nly ne bk, a ntebk and a pencil t each class.
At nn, students have lunch at schl. After lunch, they dn’t take a nap like Chinese students. They dn’t sleep in the classrm. They just g back t classes after lunch, and study at schl until three ’clck. Then they g hme.
Students usually play r watch TV befre supper. They have supper at six in the evening. After supper they d the hmewrk. Smetimes they play r talk with their parents.
On weekends, they ften g t church (教堂) with their parents in the mrning and have a big dinner at ne ’clck in the afternn.
6l. Which f the fllwing can be put in ★ ?
A. They walk t schl at sevenB. They have breakfast at half past seven
C. They study hard in the classrmD. They get t schl at half past eight
62. The students take __________ with them t each class.
A. a bk, a ntebk and a pencil B. a bk and sme ntebks
C. sme bks, a pencil and a ntebkD. sme bks, bags and a pencil
63. The underlined wrd “nap” in paragraph 2 means __________.
A. a shrt sleepB. a class C. a bk D. a quick meal
64. They have lunch at __________ n Sunday.
A. 12: 00 B. 12: 30 C. 13: 00 D. 15: 00
65. The passage is abut __________.
A. American families B. American studentsC. American schls D. American parents
C
Cindy wuld like t have a pet. On her birthday this year, she can chse a pet herself as a birthday gift.
Tday is Tuesday and it’s Cindy’s birthday. Her mther drives her t the pet shp. At the dr f the shp, Cindy is really happy. She walks int the shp and lks arund at all the different kinds f animals. There are dgs, cats, birds, fish, and even snakes! They are all s interesting and she can’t chse ne frm them.
Cindy lks at sme blue fish swimming arund in a small glass tank (缸) when she hears smene say, “Hell! What’s yur name?” Cindy lks arund, but she can’t see anyne.
“Um, my name is Cindy. Wh is there?” she says.
“Cindy, Cindy, Cindy!” says a small green parrt in a brwn cage (笼子).
“I want it, Mum. It’s very interesting and it knws my name nw. It will be my best birthday gift.” Cindy tells her mther.
66. Hw d Cindy and her mther g t the pet shp?
A. By bike. B. By bus. C. By car. D. On ft.
67. What des Cindy think f the animals in the shp?
A. They are interesting. B. They are smart.
C. They are difficult t keep. D. They are beautiful.
68. What des the underlined phrase “it” refer t?
A. A cage. B. A parrt. C. A name D. A gift.
69. What des Cindy tell abut herself in the pet shp?
A. Her hbby. B. Her address. C. Her name. D. Her family.
70. Which is the best title f this passage?
A. A Wnderful Day. B. Cindy’s Birthday Party.
C. A Pet in the Cage. D. The Best Birthday Gift.
第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题共30分)
五、词与短语填空 (共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
仔细阅读下面五个句子，然后用下面方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使每个句子在结构、句义和逻辑上正确。 (提示：方框中有两个单词或短语是多余的)
that / thse / her / hers / asks / phts / at
71. “Where’s my schlbag? “Gina always __________.
72. Here are tw nice __________ f my family.
73. The white mdel plane is __________.
74. This is yur ruler and __________ are my erasers.
75. Email me __________ maryg2@gfimail. cm.
六、综合填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，根据所给首字母、上下文或括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的单词。每个空只能填一个词。
Anna is an 11-year-ld girl frm Germany. She is tall and thin, and she has lng hair. She lives with her f____________ (76) in a huse near sme muntains. Her mther and her father ____________ (77) (be) teachers. They h____________ (78) three daughters and Anna is the yungest ne. Every day, she a____________ (79) ges t schl by bus. She likes math, art and science best. Anna enjys her s____________ (80) life, because the teachers are very n____________ (81). As fr her dream, she wants t be an engineer in the future. She lves playing sprts ____________ (82) her favurite sprts are swimming and basketball.
Recently, Anna starts a blg (博客). She hpes t make as many ____________ (83) (friend) as pssible. D yu want t k____________ (84) mre abut Anna? G and check ut ____________ (85) (she) blg!
七、书面表达 (本题15分)
假设你是李华，昨天在学校操场上丢失了书包。现在请你根据以下内容提示，写一则英文寻物启事，描述一下书包的外观特征以及书包里的物品等信息。
内容提示：
What des yur schlbag lk like?
What d yu have in the schlbag?
Hw can thers cntact (联系) yu?
Smething mre abut the lst item.
注意：文中不得透露个人真实姓名和学校：词数40-60：标题和开头已给出；不计入总词数。
Lst
I lst my schlbag n the playgrund yesterday. _______________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Li Hua
洪山区2023-2024学年度第一学期期中质量检测
七年级 英语试卷 参考答案
一、听力测试 (共 25 分，每小题 1 分)
1-5 AABBC 6-10 CACBB 11-15 CCAAB16-20 AACBC 21-25 CABAC
二、选择填空 (共 15 分，每小题 1 分)
26-30 DACCB 31-35 CBDAA 36-40 BBCDA
三、完形填空 (共 15 分，每小题 1 分)
41-45 CAABD 46-50 ACADB 51-55 DCADB
四、阅读理解 (共 30 分，每小题 2 分)
56-60 CADCD 61-65 DAACB 66-70 CABCD
五、词与短语填空 (共 10 分，每小题 2 分)
71. asks 72. phts 73. hers 74. thse 75. at
六、综合填空 (共 10 分，每小题 1 分)
76. family 77. are 78. have 79. always 80. schl
81. nice 82. and 83. friends 84. knw 85. her
七、书面表达 (共 15 分)
Lst
I lst my schlbag n the playgrund yesterday. It’s blue and white. My name is n it. It’s big but light. Sme ntebks and a green pencil case are in the bag. A set f keys is in it, t. If yu find it, please call me at 1234567. Thank yu very much.
Li Hua
附：书面表达评分标准
书面表达评分标准
一、评分原则
评分时，先根据短文的内容、语言和思维逻辑以及写作规范初步判定其所属档次，然后根据该档次的具体要求来确定或调整档次，最后给分。这一原则也称为整体评分或印象评分。
评分时，应关注的短文内容为：内容要点表达的清楚程度、完整性及准确性。
评分时，应关注的短文语言和思维逻辑为：运用词汇和语法结构的准确性及上下文语意的流畅性和完整性。
评分时， 应关注的短文写作规范为：词数不少于 40 词，拼写和标点符号符合写作规范(英、美拼写及词汇用法均视为符合要求) ，如书写较差，以致影响交际，建议将分数降低一个档次。
二、档次判定
英语书面表达题的评判一般把学生写作的短文分为五个档次。
第五档次： (13~15 分)
短文能呈现所有内容要点，写出的句子语意表达清楚、逻辑合理且基本无错误。
(信息无缺项、语言准确、逻辑缜密、错点≦2-3 个、书写美观，建议判 13 分)
第四档次： (10~12 分)
短文能呈现绝大部分内容要点，写出的句子语意表达清楚且无严重错误，逻辑比较合理，有少数单词拼写错误。
(词法错误≦4-5 个、句法错误≦1-2 个，建议判 10 分；较之好者，考虑档内高分)
第三档次： (7~9 分)
短文能呈现大部分内容要点，写出的句子虽然有语法错误但能表达基本信息，逻辑基本合理，有较多的单词拼写错误。
(只有 1-2 个表述正确句、其他仅能表意、有多处词法句法错误，建议判 7 分；较之好者，考虑档内高分)
第二档次： (4~6 分)
短文包含部分内容要点，写出的句子有较严重的语法错误，表达的意思也不清楚，有较多的单词拼写错误。
(有三个关键词和 1-2 个有表意功能的句子，建议判 4 分；较之好者，考虑档内高分)
第一档次： (1~3 分)
短文包含少量内容要点，写出的句子有严重语法错误，基本不能表达语意，或只写出几个关键词。
(三个关键词 3 分、两个关键词 2 分、一个关键词 1 分；有句子但与要点无关，不加分)
注意： 如短文出现以下情况之一，建议判零分。
1) 未能传递任何信息；
2) 内容太少，无法评判；
3) 所写内容均与题目要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
Bringing Chess t All
Can middle schl students be “teachers”? Hw will they teach? Li Ziqi, a 13-year-ld by frm Chengdu Xichuan Middle Schl, vlunteers t teach third--grade students chess (国际象棋) in a village (村庄).
Li jins a teaching activity in Xichang, Sichuan. “I read the news that teachers are nt enugh () in the village, s I want t give sme classes t the kids there,” says Li. His parents help him call the schl.
Li carefully gives 10 chess lessns. “Chess can help kids think. They lve the chess class very much,” says Li. “They nw knw that there are many ways f learning, nt just learning frm bks. I feel s prud (骄傲的)!”
Teens
洪山区教育科学研究院命制2023. 11. 16
亲爱的同学：在你答题前，请认真阅读下面的注意事项。
1. 本卷共4页，7大题，满分120分。考试用时120分钟。
2. 答题前，请将你的姓名、班级、学校填在试卷和答题卡相应的位置，并核文条码上的信息。
3. 答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标片涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案。答在”试卷”上无效
4. 答非选择题时，答案用0. 5毫米黑色笔迹签字笔写在答题卡上。答在”试卷上无效。
5. 认真阅读答题卡上的注意事项。
预祝你取得优异成绩！
第I卷 (选择题共85分)
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试 (共五节，满分25分)
第一节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听录音，选择与句中信息相符的图片。只读一遍。
第二节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听录音，选出你所听到的内容。只读一遍。
6. A. It B. Its C. It’s
7. A. their B. they C. them
8. A. 3E673 B. 31683 C. 3E683
9. A. flwers B. friends C. families
10. A. Anna Smith B. Paul Smith C. Peter Sawyer
第三节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听录音，找出问题的正确答语。每个问题读两遍。
11. A. N, I’m nt. B. Yes, I am C. Yes, it is.
12. A. My uncle David. B. My brther Bb. C. My sister Mary.
13. A. N, they aren’t. B. Yes, these are. C. Yes, it is.
14. A. It’s range. B. Here yu are. C. It’s an range
15. A. She is a teacher B. It’s in the bkcase. C. I’m fine.
第四节． (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听五个短对话，根据内容选择正确的答案。每段对话读两遍。
16. Wh’s Paul?
A. Ann’s cusin. B. Ann’s brther. C. Ann’s friend
17. Whse cmputer game is it?
A. Cindy’s. B. Jhn’s C. Eric’s.
18. Where’s Paul’s ID card?
A. On the desk. B. In the drawer. C. Under the sfa
19. What clr is Tm’s pencil?
A. Red. B. Black C. White.
20. What is under the bed?
A. A bag. B. A cat. C. A hat.
第五节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面一段短文，回答21至25五个小题。短文读两遍。
21. It’s a picture f __________.
A. bys and girls B. desks and chairs C. a classrm
22. Where are the tw pens?
A. In the pencil case. B. On the teacher’s desk. C. Under the chair.
23. Wh is eleven?
A. Mike. B. Jhn. C. Miss Green.
24. Mike is in Class __________.
A. Tw B. Seven C. Eight
25. Mike and Jhn are __________.
A. teacher and studentB. gd friends C. brthers
第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
26. Which f the fllwing wrds is prnunced (发音) /’dɔ: tə/?
A. Dctr B. dr C. dg D. daughter
27. I lst a set f keys. Which f the fllwing is crrect fr the underlined wrd in the sentence?
A. /lɒst/ B. /lɜːst/ C. /li: st/ D. /lʌst/
28. Hw many syllables (音节) are there in the wrd “cmputer”?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
29. Which f the fllwing underlined parts is different in prnunciatin (发音不同)?
A. Black B. map C. watch D. thank
30. Which f the fllwing underlined parts is different in prnunciatin (发音不同)?
A. I want t brrw yur ntebk. B. Can yu buy ranges fr me?
C. Let’s g t schl. D. Here is a pht f my family.
31. —Jhn, this is my e-friend Zhang Liang
— __________.
A. Have a gd day B. GdC. Nice t meet yu D. Bye-bye
32. —Mike, hw abut playing basketball with us?
— __________.
A. It’s interesting. B. Sunds great! C. Why? D. N, it’s bring
33. —Can I have yur name, please?
— __________.
A. Yes, please B. Yu’re welcme
C. Srry, yu have yur wn name D. I’m Amy White
34. —Oh, these watches lk s cl!
—Yes. Why nt buy __________ fr ur daughter?
A. ne B. it C. this D. that
35. Jane is __________ 13-year-ld middle schl student in __________ United States.
A. a; the. B. the; a C. a; / D. /; the
36. —I find yu always play with Alan at schl.
—Yes. And I am really ne best friend f __________.
A. he B. his C. she D. her
37. Uncle King ften helps me __________ my math. Yu can als ask him help.
A. fr; withB. with; fr C. with; abutD. fr; abut
38. —Yu mean he is Mr. White He lks s yung!
—Yeah. It’s hard t __________ him as a father f 3 sns.
A. knw B. think C. picture D. call
39. —D yu knw Rald Dahl?
—Yeah! We all knw him—he makes his __________ as a writer f children’s bks.
A. number B. pht C. peple D. name
40. —Mm! I want t watch TV!
—But sn, yur tys are everywhere! Let’s __________ them up first, OK?
A. tidy B. help C. find D. email
三、完形填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
A
Hell! I’m Linda. Welcme t my 41 !
This is ur living rm. Yu can see a lng table near the wall, and a big TV set is 42 the table. we can enjy the fd when watching TV in the living rm.
Lk! This is my parents’ bedrm. Next t it is a big study. My dad ften reads in it. Yu can see 43 beautiful flwers beside the windw. My mm ften 44 them in the mrning. Can yu see the small bedrm ver there? It’s 45 ! What’s under my desk? Haha! It’s my cat, Mimi. It lves sleeping there!
41. A. schl B. classrm C. hme D. city
42. A. n B. fr C. in D. between
43. A. sme B. any C. every D. n
44. A. spells B. waters C. thanks D. says
45. A. me B. my C. I D. mine
B
One day, Mr. Brwn wants t ck fr his family. 46 he finds nthing in his refrigeratr (冰箱). “I 47 buy sme fd nw.” he says.
S he drives t a new stre in the twn. The stre is big and tidy. Mr. Brwn gets much fd there. And he 48 buys a mdel plane fr his sn, a radi fr his daughter, and a hat fr Mrs. Brwn. Then he lks at his 49 and says, “Oh, it’s twelve ’clck. I 50 I shuld g hme nw. It’s quite 51 . “S he ges ut f the stre and drives hme, but he 52 his way.
Mr. Brwn drives alng the street. He still can’t find the way. Then he 53 and asks an ld man, “Excuse me, sir. 54 am I?”
The ld man lks 55 him and says, “Of curse yu’re in yur car, sir.”
46. A. But B. And C. Because D. Fr
47. A. can B. can’t C. must D. mustn’t
48. A. als B. t C. always D. never
49. A. player B. card C. clck D. watch
50. A. knw B. think C. want D. see
51. A. tidy B. gd C. early D. late
52. A. finds B. asks C. lses D. meets
53. A. stps B. plays C. calls D. answers
54. A. Wh B. Hw C. What D. Where
55. A. in B. at C. fr D. up
四、阅读理解 (共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
56. In which part f the newspaper can we read the news?
A. FAMILY B. ANIMAL C. SCHOOLD. FOOD
57. What des Li teach?
A. Chess. B. Chinese. C. English. D. News writing.
58. Li ges and teaches at a village schl because __________.
A. he wants t be arund kidsB. his parents wrk there
C. it’s a teaching activity f his schlD. the schl desn’t have enugh teachers
59. Frm the last paragraph (段落) we knw Li __________.
A. lves the chess class in ChengduB. learns a lt frm the kids
C. feels happy abut his wrkD. helps the kids learn frm bks
60. What’s the news abut?
A. Li Ziqi’s life in middle schl. B. Li Ziqi’s best friend.
C. Li Ziqi’s favrite teacher. D. Li Ziqi’s vlunteer wrk.
B
Frm Mnday t Friday, American students usually get up at seven. After breakfast, they g t schl n ft r n the yellw schl bus, and sme students ride bikes. ★ . Then they put their bags in their lckers and take nly ne bk, a ntebk and a pencil t each class.
At nn, students have lunch at schl. After lunch, they dn’t take a nap like Chinese students. They dn’t sleep in the classrm. They just g back t classes after lunch, and study at schl until three ’clck. Then they g hme.
Students usually play r watch TV befre supper. They have supper at six in the evening. After supper they d the hmewrk. Smetimes they play r talk with their parents.
On weekends, they ften g t church (教堂) with their parents in the mrning and have a big dinner at ne ’clck in the afternn.
6l. Which f the fllwing can be put in ★ ?
A. They walk t schl at sevenB. They have breakfast at half past seven
C. They study hard in the classrmD. They get t schl at half past eight
62. The students take __________ with them t each class.
A. a bk, a ntebk and a pencil B. a bk and sme ntebks
C. sme bks, a pencil and a ntebkD. sme bks, bags and a pencil
63. The underlined wrd “nap” in paragraph 2 means __________.
A. a shrt sleepB. a class C. a bk D. a quick meal
64. They have lunch at __________ n Sunday.
A. 12: 00 B. 12: 30 C. 13: 00 D. 15: 00
65. The passage is abut __________.
A. American families B. American studentsC. American schls D. American parents
C
Cindy wuld like t have a pet. On her birthday this year, she can chse a pet herself as a birthday gift.
Tday is Tuesday and it’s Cindy’s birthday. Her mther drives her t the pet shp. At the dr f the shp, Cindy is really happy. She walks int the shp and lks arund at all the different kinds f animals. There are dgs, cats, birds, fish, and even snakes! They are all s interesting and she can’t chse ne frm them.
Cindy lks at sme blue fish swimming arund in a small glass tank (缸) when she hears smene say, “Hell! What’s yur name?” Cindy lks arund, but she can’t see anyne.
“Um, my name is Cindy. Wh is there?” she says.
“Cindy, Cindy, Cindy!” says a small green parrt in a brwn cage (笼子).
“I want it, Mum. It’s very interesting and it knws my name nw. It will be my best birthday gift.” Cindy tells her mther.
66. Hw d Cindy and her mther g t the pet shp?
A. By bike. B. By bus. C. By car. D. On ft.
67. What des Cindy think f the animals in the shp?
A. They are interesting. B. They are smart.
C. They are difficult t keep. D. They are beautiful.
68. What des the underlined phrase “it” refer t?
A. A cage. B. A parrt. C. A name D. A gift.
69. What des Cindy tell abut herself in the pet shp?
A. Her hbby. B. Her address. C. Her name. D. Her family.
70. Which is the best title f this passage?
A. A Wnderful Day. B. Cindy’s Birthday Party.
C. A Pet in the Cage. D. The Best Birthday Gift.
第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题共30分)
五、词与短语填空 (共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
仔细阅读下面五个句子，然后用下面方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使每个句子在结构、句义和逻辑上正确。 (提示：方框中有两个单词或短语是多余的)
that / thse / her / hers / asks / phts / at
71. “Where’s my schlbag? “Gina always __________.
72. Here are tw nice __________ f my family.
73. The white mdel plane is __________.
74. This is yur ruler and __________ are my erasers.
75. Email me __________ maryg2@gfimail. cm.
六、综合填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，根据所给首字母、上下文或括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的单词。每个空只能填一个词。
Anna is an 11-year-ld girl frm Germany. She is tall and thin, and she has lng hair. She lives with her f____________ (76) in a huse near sme muntains. Her mther and her father ____________ (77) (be) teachers. They h____________ (78) three daughters and Anna is the yungest ne. Every day, she a____________ (79) ges t schl by bus. She likes math, art and science best. Anna enjys her s____________ (80) life, because the teachers are very n____________ (81). As fr her dream, she wants t be an engineer in the future. She lves playing sprts ____________ (82) her favurite sprts are swimming and basketball.
Recently, Anna starts a blg (博客). She hpes t make as many ____________ (83) (friend) as pssible. D yu want t k____________ (84) mre abut Anna? G and check ut ____________ (85) (she) blg!
七、书面表达 (本题15分)
假设你是李华，昨天在学校操场上丢失了书包。现在请你根据以下内容提示，写一则英文寻物启事，描述一下书包的外观特征以及书包里的物品等信息。
内容提示：
What des yur schlbag lk like?
What d yu have in the schlbag?
Hw can thers cntact (联系) yu?
Smething mre abut the lst item.
注意：文中不得透露个人真实姓名和学校：词数40-60：标题和开头已给出；不计入总词数。
Lst
I lst my schlbag n the playgrund yesterday. _______________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Li Hua
洪山区2023-2024学年度第一学期期中质量检测
七年级 英语试卷 参考答案
一、听力测试 (共 25 分，每小题 1 分)
1-5 AABBC 6-10 CACBB 11-15 CCAAB16-20 AACBC 21-25 CABAC
二、选择填空 (共 15 分，每小题 1 分)
26-30 DACCB 31-35 CBDAA 36-40 BBCDA
三、完形填空 (共 15 分，每小题 1 分)
41-45 CAABD 46-50 ACADB 51-55 DCADB
四、阅读理解 (共 30 分，每小题 2 分)
56-60 CADCD 61-65 DAACB 66-70 CABCD
五、词与短语填空 (共 10 分，每小题 2 分)
71. asks 72. phts 73. hers 74. thse 75. at
六、综合填空 (共 10 分，每小题 1 分)
76. family 77. are 78. have 79. always 80. schl
81. nice 82. and 83. friends 84. knw 85. her
七、书面表达 (共 15 分)
Lst
I lst my schlbag n the playgrund yesterday. It’s blue and white. My name is n it. It’s big but light. Sme ntebks and a green pencil case are in the bag. A set f keys is in it, t. If yu find it, please call me at 1234567. Thank yu very much.
Li Hua
附：书面表达评分标准
书面表达评分标准
一、评分原则
评分时，先根据短文的内容、语言和思维逻辑以及写作规范初步判定其所属档次，然后根据该档次的具体要求来确定或调整档次，最后给分。这一原则也称为整体评分或印象评分。
评分时，应关注的短文内容为：内容要点表达的清楚程度、完整性及准确性。
评分时，应关注的短文语言和思维逻辑为：运用词汇和语法结构的准确性及上下文语意的流畅性和完整性。
评分时， 应关注的短文写作规范为：词数不少于 40 词，拼写和标点符号符合写作规范(英、美拼写及词汇用法均视为符合要求) ，如书写较差，以致影响交际，建议将分数降低一个档次。
二、档次判定
英语书面表达题的评判一般把学生写作的短文分为五个档次。
第五档次： (13~15 分)
短文能呈现所有内容要点，写出的句子语意表达清楚、逻辑合理且基本无错误。
(信息无缺项、语言准确、逻辑缜密、错点≦2-3 个、书写美观，建议判 13 分)
第四档次： (10~12 分)
短文能呈现绝大部分内容要点，写出的句子语意表达清楚且无严重错误，逻辑比较合理，有少数单词拼写错误。
(词法错误≦4-5 个、句法错误≦1-2 个，建议判 10 分；较之好者，考虑档内高分)
第三档次： (7~9 分)
短文能呈现大部分内容要点，写出的句子虽然有语法错误但能表达基本信息，逻辑基本合理，有较多的单词拼写错误。
(只有 1-2 个表述正确句、其他仅能表意、有多处词法句法错误，建议判 7 分；较之好者，考虑档内高分)
第二档次： (4~6 分)
短文包含部分内容要点，写出的句子有较严重的语法错误，表达的意思也不清楚，有较多的单词拼写错误。
(有三个关键词和 1-2 个有表意功能的句子，建议判 4 分；较之好者，考虑档内高分)
第一档次： (1~3 分)
短文包含少量内容要点，写出的句子有严重语法错误，基本不能表达语意，或只写出几个关键词。
(三个关键词 3 分、两个关键词 2 分、一个关键词 1 分；有句子但与要点无关，不加分)
注意： 如短文出现以下情况之一，建议判零分。
1) 未能传递任何信息；
2) 内容太少，无法评判；
3) 所写内容均与题目要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
Bringing Chess t All
Can middle schl students be “teachers”? Hw will they teach? Li Ziqi, a 13-year-ld by frm Chengdu Xichuan Middle Schl, vlunteers t teach third--grade students chess (国际象棋) in a village (村庄).
Li jins a teaching activity in Xichang, Sichuan. “I read the news that teachers are nt enugh () in the village, s I want t give sme classes t the kids there,” says Li. His parents help him call the schl.
Li carefully gives 10 chess lessns. “Chess can help kids think. They lve the chess class very much,” says Li. “They nw knw that there are many ways f learning, nt just learning frm bks. I feel s prud (骄傲的)!”
Teens
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