2021-2022学年广西桂平市八年级下学期期中英语试题及答案

这是一份2021-2022学年广西桂平市八年级下学期期中英语试题及答案，共12页。试卷主要包含了听力测试，阅读理解，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。

注意：第Ⅰ卷的答案一律写在第6页的答题卡上
第I卷（共85分）
一、听力测试(共30分)
（一）你将听到4个句子,请你根据所听到的内容,选择与句子内容相符的选项。每个句子读一遍。
（二）听句子，选择正确的答语。每个句子读一遍。
（三）听对话，选择正确的答案。
A）你将听到五段对话及五个问题，选择正确的答案。每段对话及问题读两遍。
B）你将听到两段对话，请根据对话内容，选择正确的答案。每段对话读两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第16至17小题。
听第二段对话，回答第18至20小题。
18. When will Jack's parents be back hme tmrrw?
（四）听短文，选择正确的答案。短文读两遍。
（五）听短文，请根据所听到的内容，完成下面的表格。短文读两遍。
二、单项选择 选出最佳选项，并将其标号填入题前的括号内。(每小题1分，共15分)
三、完形填空 阅读下面短文，选出最佳答案。（每小题1分，共10分）
As a vlunteer teacher, I traveled a lng way t a village schl in Lngzhu,Guangxi. On myway there,I 46
the schl and the children there. “It must be new and big. Flwers areeverywhere,” I said t myself. 47 I gt s upset when I arrived there. It didn't lk like a schl atall! Hw small! And there were nly 48 rms! One was fr Grades 1,2 and 3; ne was frGrades 4, 5 and 6; the third ne was fr me.
The nly cmfrtable thing was that the children welcmed me 49 n my first day.Theyasked me a lt f questins, and I tld them stries abut myself and my life inShanghai.The next day,I gave them a 50 t find ut their levels（水平）．T my surprise, thugh the test was very 51 ，ver half f the students failed（不及格）. But they all wanted t learn new things. I knewthey 52 me.
Nw I＇m busy preparing（准备） lessns fr them every night. I can see that they are ding better and better 53
my help. I learn a lt frm them t. I understand 54 lives better nw, and ware gd friends. I'm very happy, and the experience isvery useful fr me. I lve the small.schl and the children.
四、阅读理解(一)根据短文内容, 选择最佳答案。（每小题1分，共30分）
A
What d mthers think f husewrk? Let's read the fllwing ideas.
B
I have tw daughters and ne sn. They are Mary, Laura and Eric. Mary is seven. Laura and Ericare five. They watch a lt f televisin, maybe five hurs a day. I'm wrried that it's t much. Whatshuld I d?
Catherine
Televisin can be a way f learning and relaxing. But studies shw that t much televisin canmake kids mre likely（可能的） t be fat and fight with thers.
The American Academy f Pediatrics （AAP，美国儿科学会）says that lder kids shuldn't watchmre than 1-2 hurs f televisin every day, and that kids under the age f tw shuld nt watch anytelevisin. The shws shuld be educatinal. All in all, kids shuldn't watch t much televisin. Yushuld ask them t spend mre time playing with friends, exercising r reading.
C
Prana， my lvely dg， died because f his illness （疾病） a few years ag. She brught a lt f jy and lve int ur lives. We miss her very much.
There are many wnderful stries abut Prana. Amng these stries, ne tells us hw t share ur wn things with thers.
It was an autumn day, but the weather didn't seem t knw the difference between autumn and winter. A big snw came s early this year that we hadn't prepared fr it.
We have tw apple trees in ur garden. Prana lved apples. When she went utside, she wuld dig a hle t hide sme apples and carry an apple t the huse. The apple was ften dirty, s I wasn't happy when Prana had brught it int the huse. After she understd why I felt like this, she wuld turn her head s I wuldn't see her apple. It was ur little game.
One day, Prana went utside and I watched her frm the windw. I saw that she was digging and bringing the apples t the surface（表面）.
When I called her back int the huse, she had an apple in her muth as usual. Abut five minutes later, I lked utside. The yard was filled with birds. Prana had dug up all the apples fr her bird friends t eat. She knew that they wuldn't have s much fd fr such an early winter!
Tears （眼泪） came int my eyes as I saw this beautiful act f uncnditinal lve frm an animal.She taught us hw t be helpful t thers.
请把第I卷各题的答案填入下列答题表中,26-30小题答案写在表下相应横线上。
第II卷
五、单词拼写 根据句子中所给的首字母或汉语提示, 写出单词的正确形式。
（每小题1分，共10分）
71. We can't get the bus befre it stps.
72. If smene gets int truble, yu shuld t help.
73. After finishing the hard wrk, my father fell aquickly.
74. Jimmy ften vlunteers t repair the b bikes fr peple.
75.Dn'ttthe things everywhere. Yur rm is in a mess.
76. I dn't knw why Kate____________（突然地）left here.
77.I have a sre _____________（咽喉）. I can＇t say anything nw.
78. I want t g fr a picnic. What's yur ________________（想法、意见）？
79.Yu can't ______________（借）my bike because I have t use it tmrrw.
80.When I heard the gd news, I was really_______________（激动的）abut it.
六、选词填空 根据短文内容，用方框中所给单词的正确形式填空，并将答案写在相应的横线上。每词限用一次。（每小题1分，共5分）
These day, mre and mre students are (81)___________n weekends than weekdays. They have t much pressure and many health prblems. Fr students, what can we d t keep healthy?
First, try t exercise as ften as pssible. Exercise can help ur bdy keep healthy. If we exercise at 82_____________30 minutes every day, we will feel very gd.
Secnd, try t d sme vlunteer jbs t help (83)_________in ur free time. It can bring us a lt f happiness and experience.
Third, as fr parents,they shuld cut ut a few f their (84)_____________activities. Kids shuld have time t relax and think fr (85)___________. It’s imprtant t have happy children.
七、阅读理解 （二） 阅读下面短文，根据短文内容回答问题。（每小题2分，共10分）
I lve t g biking n the weekend！ Tw years ag，I bught an exercise bike（健身脚踏车）.Butsn I gt bred with being at hme, s I bught a used bike and started ging fr shrt rides. Nw Iplan day trips in my neighbrhd. When yu drive a car, yu miss many things. It's surprising hwmuch mre yu can see when yu're biking.
—Maggie
My favrite thing t d n the weekend is t g t the beach. The beach is beautiful all thrugh theyear.I usually drive there.If the weather is cld, I wear sme warm clthes and g fr lng walks nthe beach. When the weather is ht, I enjy swimming r just lying in the sun.
—Barbara
On the weekend I like t read bks. If the weather is nice,I'll take a gd bk t the park andstay there reading fr hurs. I think there's nthing as enjyable as reading a gd bk.
—Bill
Weekends are fr ging hiking (徒步旅行) with my parents. We live near sme beautifulmuntains. Smetimes we camp ut at night. We really enjy cking dinner ver a campfire andspending a night under the stars!
—Sara
八、书面表达（10分）
有句话说“帮助他人，快乐自己”。做志愿活动在中国已经很流行了。请你根据以下表格的提示，以“What Culd Yu D as a Vlunteer？”为题写一篇短文。
要求：1．语句通顺，符合逻辑，可适当发挥；
2．词数80左右，开头已给出，但不计入总词数。
What Culd Yu D as a Vlunteer?
A
B
C
D
1.
2.
3.
4.
5. A. That's right.
B.That sunds interesting.
C.N prblem.
6. A. N, I can't.
B. Yes, I can.
C.Yes,yu can.
7. A. I had a fight with Jim.
B.Are yu OK?
C. He has a sre back.
8.A. She left her hme.
B. She was taking a shwer.
C.She is ding hmewrk.
're right.
B. I lve my parents.
C.My parents.
10.A. Of curse.
B. OK, I’ll give him a call.
C.Thanks a lt.
11.A. Teach her t dance.
B.Teach her t sing.
C.Tell her a funny stry.
12.A. He has a cld.
B. He has a tthache.
C.He cut ff his finger.
t relax.
B.G t sleep.
C. Talk t her parents.
14.A. Pass the salt.
B.Pass the sugar.
C. D the dishes.
B.Lucy.
C.Cindy's brther.
16. What's the matter with Bb?
A. He brke his leg.
B.He has a fever.
C. He has a stmachache.
17. Wh sent him t the hspital?
A.His mther.
B.His teacher.
C.His classmates.
A. Befre 8:00 pm.
B. After 8:00 pm.
C.After 8:00 am.
19.What d Jack's parents ask him t d?
A.Fld the clthes.
B.Water the flwers.
C.Ck dinner.
20.Where will they have dinner?
A. At their hme.
B.Outside.
C. At grandparents'hme.
21. Wh takes ut the rubbish in David's family?
A.David.
B.His mther.
C.His father.
22. What husewrk des David's father usually d?
A.Cking.
B.Fd shpping.
C.Cleaning.
23. Where des David ften play basketball after schl?
A.Near his neighbrhd.
B.At schl.
C. In the park.
24. What des David's father lve ding?
A.Drawing.
B.Swimming.
C.Listening t music.
25. When des David's mther ften g shpping?
A. After wrk.
B. After dinner.
C. On weekends.
Have a Bad Cld
What shuld
students d?
First, they shuld take their temperature and wear (26)clthes.
Secnd, drink a lt f ht water, and try t (27).
Third, dn't get (28)they shuld have a gd rest.
Furth, if they dn't get (29)they shuld see a dctr.
Everyne shuld lk after (30).
31. —Can I help yu,Mm?
— Yes,yu can take _______dg fr______walk.
A. a; /
B. The; a
C. / ; the
D. The; /
32. —I ften argue with my parents.
—Maybe yu shuld learn t get n well_________yur family.
A.fr
B.t
C.with
D.f
33. —It rained _________just nw.
—Yes.Many peple were wet because f it.
A.recently
B.ludly
C.cmpletely
D.suddenly
34. —Why didn't yu g t schl this mrning,Vera?
—I was_________and went t the hspital.
A.late
B.sick
C.healthy
D.serius
35. —Be careful when yu are utside, Lisa and Nancy!
—Dn't wrry. We can take care f
A.myself
B.yurselves
C.urselves
D.yurself
36. —I'm ging l get lts f exercise this year.
—Yu made a gd__________.I hpe yu can keep n ding it.
A.reprt
B.decisin
C.ntice
D.jurney
37. —What d yu d n weekends?
—I____________in the ld peple's hme. I help t d sme cleaning.
A.vlunteer
B.fix
C.study
D.build
38. —Can we g t the muntains tmrrw?
—Well,it_________the weather.
A.gets n
C.keeps n
B.turns n
D.depends n
39. —Why did they__________the huses?
—Because they will build a new park there.
A.take dwn
B.write dwn
C.cut dwn
D.tum dwn
40．—The entrance exam （入学考试） is cming, I＇m s nervus．
—Helen,the mre careful yu are during the exam, ___________mistakes yu'll make.
A.the mre
B.the fewer
C.the fewest
D.the less
41. —I'm angry because Jane brught my dictinary withut asking me.
—It's nt a big deal. Yu shuld talk t her___________she can remember it.
A.such that
B.because
C.in rder t
D.s that
42. —Cathy is used t__________early t read English nw.
—It's a gd beginning fr her.
A.gets up
B.get up
C.getting up
D.gt up
43. —I heard that Kim had a traffic accident this mrning.
—Yes. His right leg was hurt badly. The dctr had t___________.
A.cut it ff
B.cut them ff
C.cut ff it
D.cut ff them
44 —Was yur sister watching TV when the strm began?
—___________.She was playing with her friends.
A.Yes,she did
B. N,she didn't
C.Yes,she was
D.N,she wasn't
45. —Culd I g t see the BFG（圆梦巨人） with Anna tnight，Mm？
—_____________. But dn't stay ut late.
A. It's a gd idea
B.Thanks a lt
C.Sure,that's OK
D.Yu're right
abut
B. set up
C.lked after
D.tried ut
B.Or
C.But
D.S
B.three
C.fur
D.five
B.prly
C.quietly
D.friendly
B.ntice
C.test
D.letter
B.bring
C.creative
D. expensive
B.needed
C.trained
D.cntrlled
B.under
C.at
D.f
B.her
C.ur
D.their
55. A.never
B.als
C.still
D.either
Laura
We dn't like husewrk, but at the same time, we hpe t have a clean and cmfrtable hme. I learn frm my neighbr Teresa. She says,“Yu dn't have t d everything right away. but 'd small things with great lve.' Start with the easy nes, rest, and then g n withe thers. It becmes less tiring but much mre interesting when yu divide （分成） thingst smaller parts.”
Mna
D yu knw what yu shuld call thse wh use twels （毛巾） but never wash them， eat meals but never d the dishes, sit in rms but never clean? If yur answer is, 'A huse guest（房客）＇， yu＇re wrng， because I just described my kids.
Mary
My kids seem t learn t use the cmputer and turn n the TV quickly. Hwever,they have difficulty in using the vacuum cleaner（吸尘器）. It is really amazing.
56. Wh taught Laura t divide things int smaller parts?
A.Mary.
B.Mna.
C.Her friend.
D.Teresa.
57.What des Mna think f her kids?
A.Hard-wrking.
B.Helpful.
C.Lazy.
D.Serius.
58. Wh des Mary talk smething abut?
A.Her guests.
B.Her kids.
C.Her parents.
D.Her students.
59. Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A. They all talk abut their kids.
B. Mary's kids can't use the cmputer.
C. Mna's kids never help with the husewrk.
D. Laura desn't like a clean and cmfrtable hme.
60.Where is the text prbably frm?
A.Anewspaper.
B.A textbk.
C. A sprts magazine.
D.A science reprt.
61. Hw many kids des Catherine have?
A.Tw.
B.Three.
C.Fur.
D.Five.
62. Why des Catherine write this letter?
A. Because her kids are t fat.
B. Because her kids dn't like exercising.
C. Because her kids watch t much televisin.
D. Because her kids always fight with each ther.
63.Studies shw that kids wh watch t much televisin are likely t be___________.
A.fat
B.lazy
C.serius
D.shy
64.Accrding t AAP,kids lder than tw can watch TV fr__________.
A. less than 3 hurs
B.4 hurs
C.less than 2 hurs
D.5 hurs
65.Which f the fllwing is NOT true?
A.Laura and Eric are 5.
B. Kids under tw shuldn't watch TV.
C. Kids shuld watch educatinal shws.
D.Catherine's kids watch TV fr 3 hurs a day.
66.Prana _____________.
A.was a bird
B. didn't like apples
C. culdn't understand the writer's feelings
D.died f an illness
67. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the passage?
A. The stry happened n a summer day.
B. Prana ften carried apples int the huse.
C. The writer hated Prana because she was dirty.
D.There were three pear trees in the writer's garden.
68. Prana dug up the apples n ne snwy day because__________.
A.she was wrried abut her apples
B.she wanted t give them t the writer
C.she wanted t eat them very much
D.she wanted t give them t her friends
69.What des the underlined wrd “uncnditinal” mean in Chinese?
A.想象的
B.无条件的
C.假设的
D.放弃的
70. What is the message that yu can get frm the passage?
A.The writer lved Prana very much.
B.Prana missed the writer very much.
C. The writer didn't lean anything frm Prana.
D. Prana was t lazy t dig a hle t hide apples.
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答案
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26-30小题答案请填写在表格下相应横线上
答案
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26.______________
27.______________
28.______________
29.______________
30.______________
得分
评卷人
得分
评卷人
therkidtheylittlebusy
得分
评卷人
86.When did Maggie buy an exercise bike?
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
87.Hw des Barbara usually g t the beach?
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
88. What des Bill think f reading bks?
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
89.Wh des Sara like t g hiking with n the weekend?
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
90. What des the passage talk abut?
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
得分
评卷人
志愿者工作
活动或行为
原因或目的
1．去老人院帮助老人们打扫房间、唱歌等
老人们孤独
2．通过多种树来保护地球
在更好的环境中生活
3．加入动物俱乐部，帮助处在危险中的动物
动物是人类的好朋友
感想
······（至少两点）
There are many things yu culd d as a vlunteer._________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
参考答案及评分标准
一、1~4 DCBA5~10 ACABCB 11~15 BACBC 16~20 ACBAB 21~25 ABACC
26. enugh 27. relax 28. tired 29. better 30. themselves
二、31~35 BCDBC 36~40 BADAB 41~45 DCADC
三、46~50 ACBDC 51~55 ABADB
四、56~60 DCBCA 61-65 BCACD 66-70 DBDBA
五、71. ff 72. ffer 73. asleep74. brken 75. thrw
76. suddenly 77. thrat 78. pinin79. brrw 80. excited
六、81. busier 82. least 83. thers84. kids’ 85. themselves
七、86. Tw years ag.
87. By car. / He drives a car.
88. Enjyable.
89. Her parents.
90. It talks abut the weekend activities f the fur children.
八、One pssible versin:
What Culd Yu D as a Vlunteer
There are many things yu culd d as a vlunteer. Yu can g t the ld peple’s hme t help them clean their rms, sing sngs and play games with them. Then they will be very happy and wn’t feel lnely. Yu can help t care fr ur earth by planting mre trees. Then we can live in a better envirnment. And yu can als jin an animal club t help the animals in danger. Because animals are ur friends.
I think if we can help thers tday, maybe when we’re in truble tmrrw, smebdy will help us ut. Being a vlunteer is great and meaningful.
评分原则：
1. 本题满分10分，按五个档次给分。
2. 评分时, 先根据文章的内容和语言表达初步确定所属档次，最后在本档次内酌情给分。
3. 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点，应用词汇，语法结构, 上下文的连贯性及语言得体。
各档次的给分范围和要求：
第一档：（9—10分）能写明全部或绝大部分内容要点；语言基本无误；行文连贯，表达清楚。（语法和词汇拼写错误不超过3处）
第二档：（7—8分）能写明大部分内容要点；语言有少量错误：行文基本连贯，表达意思基本清楚。（语法和词汇拼写错误不超过6处）
第三档：（5—6分）能写明大部分内容要点；语言有很多错误，尚能表达。（语法和词汇拼写错误不超过9处）
第四档：（3—4分）只能写出少部分内容要点；语言错误很多，影响意思表达。（语法和词汇拼写超过10处以上）
第五档：（0—2分）只能写出与所给要求有关的一些单词，不成句。
说明：1. 内容要点可用不同方式表达，顺序不限。
2. 内容要点齐全，语言流畅，能运用较多的语法结构和词汇，行文连贯，表达清楚，即使有个别小错误，也可以给满分。
3. 所给范文仅供样式参考，请阅卷教师不要仅局限于范文所述的内容，应着重于学生如何运用语言表达的能力。
2022年春季期期中教学质量检测八年级英语听力录音材料
（一）听句子，选择与句子内容相符的图片。每个句子读一遍。
1. Sam was sleeping when smene kncked at the dr.
2. Dave shuld have ftball training every day.
3. Mary and her classmates vlunteer t clean up the city park.
4. My little brther has a tthache, s my mther tk him t see a dentist.
(二) 听句子，选择正确的答语。每个句子读一遍。
5. We shuld ften listen t ld peple and care fr them.
6. Culd I watch TV tnight, mum?
7. What’s wrng with yu, Dave?
8. What was Gina ding when the rainstrm came?
9. Wh give yu the advice when yu get int truble?
10. Why dn’t yu talk t him t say yu’re srry?
（三）听对话，选择正确的答案。
A）你将听到五段对话及五个问题，选择正确的答案。每段对话及问题读两遍。
11. M: Hw culd yu cheer up the sick girl, Anna?
W: I’ll teach her t sing. She lves singing.
Questin: Hw culd Anna cheer up the sick girl?
12. W: Peter, culd yu g t visit the museum with me this afternn?
M: Srry, I can’t. I have a cld.
W: Srry t hear that. Yu shuld take gd care f yurself.
Questin: What’s the matter with Peter?
13. M: Hi, Kate! Yu dn’t lk well. What’s wrng?
W: I have t much pressure frm my parents and dn’t sleep well.
M: That’s t bad. Yu shuld talk t yur parents first.
Questin: What shuld Kate d first?
14. M: Culd yu please pass me the sugar, Sandy?
W: Sure. Hw much d yu need?
M: A spn f it, please.
W: OK. Here yu are.
Questin: What des the man ask Sandy t d?
15. M: Hey, Cindy! Culd yu d the dishes?
W: Srry, I have t meet my friend nw. Yu can ask Lucy d it.
M: OK. She’s busy ding her hmewrk. Maybe yur brther is free.
Questin: Wh culd d the dishes?
B）你将听到两段对话，请根据对话内容，选择正确的答案。每段对话读两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第16至17小题。
W: Is Bb here?
M: N. He is in the hspital.
W: What’s the matter?
M: He brke his leg when he was playing ftball.
W: Oh, my gd!
M: Luckily, his classmates sent him t hspital at nce.
听第二段对话，回答第18至20小题。
W: Jack, culd yu please help ut with sme chres tmrrw?
M: Yes. But why?
W: Yur father and we will be back hme after 8:00 tmrrw.
M: OK. What d yu need help with?
W: The huse is mess. Culd yu sweep the huse?
M: What else?
W: Well, yu shuld fld the clthes and take ut the rubbish.
M: Hw abut the dinner?
W: Let’s have dinner utside. And yu can eat sme snacks when yu are hungry.
M: Great.
（四）听短文，选择正确的答案。短文读两遍。
I am David. I have a happy family. In my family, we share the husewrk. I usually make my bed and take ut the rubbish. My mum usually des the cking and my dad usually des the fd shpping. On weekends, my mum des the cleaning while my dad and I d the washing tgether.
We als have different habits. I like playing sprts. I ften play basketball near my neighbrhd after schl. My father lves t listen t music. My mther lves delicius fd and nice clthes. She ften ges shpping with her friends n weekends.
(五) 听短文，请根据所听到的内容，完成下面表格。短文读两遍。
It becmes cld nw. I’m srry t hear many students have a bad cld. T becme better, I think they shuld d these things.
First, they shuld take their temperature and wear enugh clthes. Secnd, drink a lt f ht water, and try t relax as pssible. Third, dn’t get tired, they shuld have a gd rest, they shuldn’t g t bed t late. Furth, if they dn’t get better, they shuld see a dctr and d as the dctr says. I hpe everyne shuld lk after themselves and can feel better sn.