2020-2021学年福建省泉州市晋江市安海镇八年级上学期期中英语试题及答案

这是一份2020-2021学年福建省泉州市晋江市安海镇八年级上学期期中英语试题及答案，共19页。试卷主要包含了5分，满分7等内容，欢迎下载使用。
本试卷分为第一卷和第二卷两大部分。试卷内含听力部分(20%)和笔试部分(80%)。答卷时可先将答案先写在试卷上，后转写到答题卡上。
第一卷
第一部分 听力考查 (共两节，满分30分)
第一节 听句子（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5个句子，从每小题所给的三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项，每个句子读两遍。
ABC
( )1.
AB C
( )2.
ABC
AB C
( )3.
( )4.
AB C
( )5.
听对话（共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。每段对话读两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第6小题。
( )6.When will Jane have a tennis game?
A. This Sunday. B. Next Mnday. C. Next Tuesday.
听第二段对话，回答第7小题。
( )7. Wh has a bad cugh?
A. Bill’s uncle. B. Bill’s brther. C. Bill’s father.
听第三段对话，回答第8小题。
( )8. Hw des Aunt Huang lk?
A. A little angry. B. A little tired. C. A little excited.
听第四段对话，回答第9小题。
( )9. What will Tina d first?
A. D hmewrk. B. G shpping. C. D the cleaning.
听第五段对话，回答第10-11小题。
( )10. Hw is Ann feeling nw?
A. Unhappy. B. Excited. C. Afraid.
( )11. Wh may be Mr. Li?
A. A math teacher. B. A P.E. teacher. C. A music teacher.
听第六段对话，回答第12-13小题。
( )12. Wh wants t speak t Mr. Li?
A. Mrs. Green. B. Mr. Green. C. Jim Green.
( )13. What’s wrng with Jim Green?
A. He has a tthache. B. He has a fever. C. He has a cld.
听第七段对话，回答第14-15小题。
( )14. Hw ften shuld the wman take the pills?
A. Once a day. B. Twice a day. C. Three times a day.
( )15. When will the wman have a meeting?
A. This afternn. B. Tmrrw. C. The day after tmrrw.
第三节 听对话 根据所听到的对话内容，完成下面表格，每空填一词。（对话读三遍）
第二部分 选择填空(共两节，满分30分)
第一节 单项选择（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
从每小题A、B、C三个选项中，选出能填入空白处的最佳答案。
( )21.—Tm, d yu have______flu?
—N. I have _____bad cugh.
a, / B. the, a C. a，the
( )22.— Dn’t wrry. Mther will lk after yur baby_______. —Thanks a lt.
careful enugh B. gd enugh C. carefully enugh
( )23.—Must we get up early tmrrw mrning?
—N, we. We can have a lng sleep.
A.mustn’tB. can’tC.needn’t
( )24.—I have a tthache. —Yu shuld _______.
A.drink lts f waterB.see a dentistC.have a gd sleep
( )25.—There _______ a sprts meet next week. —Exciting news.
A.will have B.is ging t beC.is ging t have
( )26. Yu had better ask yur brther _______ playing cmputer games s lng. It’s bad fr him.
A.t give upB.nt t give upC.t give it up
( )27.—Which sprt will yu take part in?
—I will take part in the ________ race. I’ll d my best t win the race.
A.bys’ 100-meters B. bys’ 100-meter C.by’s 100-meter
( )28.Swimming is a gd way ______________.
A. t keep healthy B. fr healthy C. keeping healthy
( )29.—Is Bill still angry ________ yu?
—Yes, he left ____ a wrd.
A. with; withut B. with; with C. abut; withut
( )30. —Wuld yu mind _______ the windw? It’s cld utside.
—Nt at all. I’ll d it at nce.
A. pening B. clsing C. clse
( )31.We shuld get up early and d mrning exercises t________ ur bdies.
build up B. put up C. grw up
( )32.Sally ___________ an hur __________ her hmewrk yesterday.
A. spent, ding B. spends, ding C. spent, t d
( )33.The students were very _________, because they saw an __________ mvie.
A. exciting, excited B. excited, exciting C. excited, bring
( )34.I’d like sme __________ and a kil f __________.
sandwich, strawberry B. chclate, tmat C. beef, ptates
( )35. —I’m srry fr lsing yur pen. —______________
A. Yu’re welcme. B. Thank yu all the same. C. It’s nthing.
第二节 完形填空: 从每小题A、B、C三个选项中，选出能填入空白处的最佳答案，使短文意思完整(共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分)
I started rck climbing fifteen years ag. I think__36__ is a great adventure(冒险). I like t__37__ t the tp(顶端). My father built a 7-meter climbing wall in the backyard, and I learned__38__ t climb there. Tday, I climb abut nce a week at the park near my hme.
Last mnth，I gt the first place in a climbing game，and I__39__ my first climb ver 90 meters these days. And I als had the chance t climb with Beth Rdden and Tmmy Caldwell. They are tw f the wrld's mst famus climbers. __40__ muntains is fun, but it is nt__41__. Yu're ging up the rck__42__ yur hands, and it's pretty easy t fall when yu're mving. __43__ when yu want t g climbing, the mst imprtant thing is t be__44__. I never climb__45__ alne. I have many climbing friends. I feel s great every time I get t the tp.
( )36. A. skiing B. skating C. climbing
( )37. A. get B. fly C. sit
( )38. A. when B. what C. hw
( )39. A. missed B. finished C. lses
( )40. A. ClimbB. Climbed C. Climbing
( )41. A. hard B. bring C. easy
( )42. A. at B. n C. with
( )43. A. But B. And C. S
( )44. A. healthy B. safe C. dangerus
( )45. A. indrs B. utdrs C. utdr
第三部分 阅读理解（共两节，25小题，共45分）
第一节阅读下面A、B、C、D四篇短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选择最佳答案。（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
（A）
( )46. What's the passage mainly abut?
A. Healthy fd. B. Healthy lifestyle.
C. Junk fd. D. Healthy sprts.
( )47. What is the best title fr the secnd paragraph(段落)?
A. Man's disease B. Disease
C. Change the tthbrush D. Yur bathrm
( )48. Hw lng shuld yu at least exercise each time?
A. Twenty minutes. B. Fifteen minutes.
C. Five minutes. D. Ten minutes.
( )49. Frm the passage, we knw ________ can help us stay healthy.
A. a prper diet and much fd B. exercise and much fd
C. sleeping and exercise D. a prper diet and exercise
( )50. What des a healthy eating plan mean?
A. Chsing the right fds. B. Cking the fds in a healthy way.
C. Never eating meat r fresh vegetables. D. Bth A and B.
(B)
Mr. and Mrs. White had tw sns and three daughters. One Sunday, Mrs. White said t her husband, “The children dn't have any lessns tday, and yu're free t. There's a new funfair(游乐场) in the park. Let's all g there t play.”
Her husband said, “I want t finish sme wrk tday.”“Oh, frget it. G there and make ur children happy. That's the mst imprtant wrk,”Mrs. White said.
S Mr. and Mrs. White tk their children t the funfair. Mr. White was frty-five years ld, but he enjyed the funfair mre than his children. He hurried frm ne thing t anther, and ate lts f sweets. One f the children said t her mther, “Dad is just like a small child, isn't he, Mm?” Mrs. White didn't want t fllw her husband arund any mre at that time and answered, “He is even wrse than a small child, Mary, because he might spend mre mney than a small child.”
( )51. There were ________ children in the White family.
A. tw B. three C. fur D. five
( )52. One Sunday, Mr. and Mrs. White wanted t g t ________ with their children.
A. schl B. wrk C. a funfair D. a shp
( )53. Mrs. White thught the mst imprtant wrk that day was t ________.
A. make their children happy B. let Mr. White finish his wrk
C. spend mre mney playing D. make Mr. White fllw her
( )54. Frm the stry we knw Mrs. White________ when Mary asked her the questin.
A. was still excited t play B. was a little angry with Mr. White
C. lked fr Mr. White everywhere D. ate a lt f sweets
( )55. Of all the family members，________ enjyed playing there mst that Sunday.
A. Mr. White B. Mrs. White C. Mary D. the bys
(C)
Snake(蛇) meat is ppular in restaurants. Sme peple think eating snakes is gd fr their health. But these peple dn't knw that snakes feed n mice and wrms, s there are many parasites(寄生虫) in snakes' bdies. They may be bad fr ur health. And we're srry t see a butcher's(屠夫的) knife is killing mre snakes.
An English newspaper says, “Peple eat abut 1,000 tns f snakes every year in China. In Shenzhen, smetimes peple serve 10 tns f snakes n dinner tables in a day.”
If we keep eating snakes, there will be a vicius circle(恶性循环). If peple eat mre snakes，snakes are becming fewer and fewer. But mice are becming mre and mre, s there will be few crps.
This will make mre peple hungry. Wh wants t see such a bad thing happen? S peple must stp eating snakes. T prtect(保护) snakes is t prtect urselves.
( )56. The writer thinks ________.
A. eating snake meat is expensive
B. eating snake meat is helpful t ur health
C. eating snake meat isn't bad fr ur health
D. eating snake meat may be bad fr ur health
( )57. On average(平均)，peple eat abut ________ tns f snakes every day in China.
10 B. 365 C. 3 D. 100
( )58. Why des the writer say“T prtect snakes is t prtect urselves”?
A. Because snake meat is gd fr ur health.
B. Because eating snake meat is very ppular nw.
C. Because if snakes are becming fewer and fewer，there will be few crps.
D. Because we can use snake skin t make many beautiful shes，bags and clthes.
( )59. A butcher kills snakes t ________.
A. prtect peple
B. build himself up
C. have fun
D. get snake meat and make mre mney
( )60. The best title fr the passage is ________.
Snake Meat Is Healthy Fd
Dn't Eat Snakes
Snake Meat Is Dangerus
D. Snake Meat Is Ppular in China
(D)
Hw culd we live withut the Internet? That's hw mst f us talk with friends, find hw t d hmewrk, lk fr a cl place t visit, r find ut the latest news. Yu can use it t d research(研究) fr schl, find ut the mvies in the cinema near yu, check ut a schl yu're thinking abut, r find a jb. Almst anything yu can think f has a website abut it.
Yu've prbably heard stries abut peple wh get int truble in chat rms(聊天室). Because users can easily keep annymus, yu may be cheated(欺骗) in the chat rm. Everyne in the chat rm lks like wearing a mask(面具). Chat rms ften attract(吸引) peple wh like mre than just chatting. They will smetimes ask visitrs fr infrmatin abut themselves. The infrmatin might be abut their families, r where they live. Yu shuld nt tell thers abut these.
Usually, the peple wh ask fr persnal infrmatin like where they live, phne numbers，and emails use the infrmatin t d sme illegal(违法的) things.
Of curse, the Internet is hme t millins f places yu can and shuld visit. Hwever，remember t prtect yurself while nline.
( )61. The first paragraph is mainly abut ________ f the Internet.
A. the advantages(优点) B. the safety
C. The interest D. the truble
( )62. Which can't the Internet d fr yu accrding t the passage?
A. Find ut the news. B. Lk fr a cl place t visit.
C. Find hw t d the hmewrk. D. Watch mvies fr yu.
( )63. The underlined wrds “annymus” mean “________” in the passage.
A. 出名的 B. 胆小的
C. 有趣的D. 匿名的
( )64. The Internet is an unsafe place because________.
A. chat rms can attract peple
B. ther peple may get yur persnal infrmatin
C. the cmputers may be harmed
D. yur email might be changed
( )65. What can we learn frm the passage?
A. Internet users shuld wear a mask.
B. The Internet makes it difficult t use the cmputer.
C. It's difficult t get cheated n the Internet.
D. We'd better nt tell yur persnal infrmatin n the Internet.
(E)
根据短文内容，把A-E五个句子填入文中空缺处，使补全后的短文意思通顺，结构完整。(5分)
It is never t late t have gd study habits. Fllw these gd habits, and yu will becme a gd student.
Plan yur time carefully. Make a list f yur weekly tasks. 66. ________ Then decide n gd time fr studying. This weekly plan may nt slve all f yur prblems，but it will make yu knw hw t spend yur time.
Find a gd place t study. 67. ________ It may be a desk r a chair at hme r in the schl library，but it shuld be quiet. When yu begin t wrk，yu shuld be able t pay mre attentin t the subject.
68. ________ Listening t what the teacher says in class means less wrk later. Sit where yu can see and hear well. Get ready fr yur ntebk. 69. ________
Review(复习) what yu have learnt after class. It's nrmal t frget, s reviewing the day's lessns is imprtant. 70. ________
If yu fllw these suggestins, yu will study better.
Make gd use f yur time in class.
Make a plan f yur time fr a week.
Then yu can finish yur hmewrk easily.
Chse ne place fr studying carefully.
Taking ntes helps yu remember the lessn.
66___________67_____________68____________69______________70______________
第二卷
第四部分 语言知识应用（共四节，满分45分）
第一节 情景交际（共5小题，每小题2分, 满分10分)
71. 下礼拜野炊，你想知道你要不要带上你的相机，你可以这样问：
__________________________________________?
当朋友告诉你吸烟会导致癌症，你觉得好可怕啊，可以这样说：
__________________________________________!
你想请问对方一些问题，你可以这样说：
__________________________________________?
你想知道朋友长大后相当什么，你可以这样问：
__________________________________________?
你们班下礼拜有一场篮球赛，你想要Mike加入你们，你可以这样问他：
__________________________________________?
第二节 遣词造句（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
根据提供的图画和提示词，写一个符合图意的完整、正确的句子。
根据每小题所提供的图画情景和提示词，写出一个与图画情景相符的句子。
76.have, yesterday 77.imprtant,brush78. had better
79.ging, this Sunday 80. nt,sun
76. _________________________________________________________
77. ______________________________________________________
78. ________________________________________________________
79. ________________________________________________________
80._________________________________________________________
第三节 短文填词（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，根据语境，音标或提示词，在每个空格内填入一个恰当的词，使短文完整，行文流畅。
When yu see a wman in the street, she can’t walk well with her 81.(ft). Hw d yu like the wman? Maybe it’s surprising, maybe yu will feel 82.fr her. But here is the same wman: She has sick feet, but she cmes t ur schl and “stands” well in frnt f the blackbard. Nw 83. (hundred) f students lve listening t her. She is Huang Meilian. She wrks hard 84. [ˈdjʊərɪŋ] her day time and at night desn’t stp studying. She gt her Dctr’s Degree.(博士学位)
I still remember what she “said” t us in her first class. In class, Huang wrte n the blackbard, “ I am very happy because I am a 85. [ˈlʌkɪ] persn. My families lve me very much. And I have friends all ver the wrld. I talk with them 86. sending messages.” Again she wrte, “Yes, I dn’t want t lie in bed andd 87. [ˈnʌθɪŋ].Teaching can make me happy. S yu see, 88. (happy)is arund me. And I dn’t see what I dn’t have！”
Yes, we have ur happy families. We have all ur things. 89.we aren’t always happy. I think we shuld 90. frm Huang Meilian. Remember: See what we have! Dn’t mind sme bad things. Speakludly, “We are happy!”
第四节 书面表达 （15分）
假设你是Jade，昨天收到朋友Amy的求助信。Amy在信中说她遇到了许多困难。请你就她提出的困难给出建议，帮助她早日解决困难，转变心情。
要求：1.给对方的建议必须回答以下四个问题，还可以适当发挥。
2.字数80词左右。开头已给出，不计入总数。
3.语句通顺，表达准确，内容连贯，且文中不能出现真实校名、姓名等信息。
问题一：学习认真，太迟睡，导致第二天没精神。
问题三：喜欢垃圾食品导致太胖。
求助信
问题二：早上起床迟，来不及吃早餐。
问题四：体育是一个新的考试项目，但是体育不好。
Dear Amy,
I’m srry t hear that yu are nt feeling well.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Jade
听力材料
第一节听句子选择正确图片（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5个句子，从每小题三幅图中选出与句子意思相符的图。每个句子读两遍。
1. If yu have the flu, yu’d better see a dctr at nce.
2. We can see sme pigs n the farm.
3. Her sister drinks a cup f cffee every mrning.
4.Li Hng is ill and she shuld g t hspital.
5. Dr. Liu is giving a talk abut healthy eating habits.
第二节 对话理解（共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面七段对话，从题中所给的A、B、C、三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听第一段对话，完成第6小题。
M: Hell, Jane. When are yu ging t have a tennis games in Shanghai?
W: I’m leaving fr Shanghai next Mnday mrning and have the game the next day.
听第二段对话，完成第7小题。
M:My father has a cugh these days.
W: Really? Yu’d better ask him t stp smking, Bill.
听第三段对话，完成第8小题。
M: Aunt Huang, yu lk a little tired tday.
W: I didn’t sleep well last night. My neighbr had a party and it didn’t end until tw ’clck this mrning.
听第四段对话，完成第9小题。
M:Tina, wuld yu like t g shpping with me nw?
W:I’d lve t. But I have t finish my hmewrk first. Why dn’t we g this afternn?
听第五段对话，完成10、11小题。
M: Hell, Ann. Hw d yu feel?
W: Unhappy.
M: Why?
W: We did badly in the basketball game yesterday.
M: I’m srry t hear that. Keep practicing and yu will win. Why dn’t yu ask fr sme advice frm Mr. Li?
W: That’s a gd idea. He teaches basketball well.
听第六段对话，完成第12-13小题。
M: Hell!
W: Hell! Culd I speak t Mr. Li?
M: I’m srry he isn’t here right nw. Can I take a message?
W: Yes, please. This is Alice Green. My sn Jim Green has a fever. He can’t g t schl tday.
M: OK. I’ll give him the message.
听第七段对话，完成第14-15小题。
M: Mrning, madam! What’s wrng?
W: I have a sre thrat and a headache.
M: D yu feel tired?
W: Yes, I feel very weak.
M: I’m srry t hear that. Let me take yur temperature. Oh, it’s high.
W: What shuld I d?
M: Yu have a cld. Take these pills three times a day.
W: Can I g ut tmrrw? I have an imprtant meeting.
M: If yu have a gd rest tday, I think yu can.
听短文，根据你听到的短文内容，完成下列表格，每空一词。（短文读三遍）
W: Hell, Dctr. My name is Linda.
M: Hi, Linda. What’s the matter with yu?
W: Oh, my head hurts badly. And I dn’t want t eat any fd.
M: Did yu take yur temperature?
W: Yes, I did. My temperature is 36.5℃. I dn’t have a fever.
M: Well, it’s prbably nt serius then. Can yu tell me what yu did yesterday?
W: I wrked n the cmputer all day.
M: That’s prbably the reasn. Yu wrked n the cmputer t lng.
W: Then what shuld I d?
M: Yu shuld lie dwn and have enugh rest. By the way, hw ften d yu exercise?
W: Hardly ever. I’m always s busy.
M: Thanks fr yur advice, Dctr.
参考答案及评分标准
第一卷(共105分)
第一部分听力考查（30分）
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. C 5.A 6. C 7. C8. B 9. A10. A
11. B 12. A 13. B14. C15. B
16. head 17. fever18. wrked19. cmputer20. rest
评分标准：每小题1.5分。
第二部分 语言知识运用选择题 (共三节，满分40分)
第一节 单项选择： (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
21. B 22. C 23. C 24. B 25. B 26. A 27. B 28. A 29. A 30. B
31. A 32. A 33. B 34. C 35. C评分标准：每小题1分。
第二节 完形填空(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
36. C 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. C 41. C 42. C 43. C 44. B 45. B
评分标准：每小题1.5分。
第三部分 阅读理解 (A、B、C、D四篇每题2分，E篇每题1分，满分45分)
A篇46. B 47. C 48. A49. D50. D
B篇51. D 52. C53. A54. B55. A
C篇56. D57. C 58. C59. D60. B
D篇61. A62. D63. D64. B65. D
A、B、C、D篇评分标准：每小题2分。
D篇66. B67. D68. A69. E70. C E篇评分标准：每小题1分
第二卷 非选择题(共45分)
第四部分 语言知识应用（共四节，满分45分）
第一节 情景交际（共5小题，每小题2分, 满分10分)
71. Shall I take my camera? 72. Hw terrible!
73. May I ask yu sme questins？
74. What are yu ging t be when yu grw up?
75. Will yu jin us?
71-75评分标准：每小题两分。每小题只要有出现关键词眼即可得分。可以设置为总体给分，有半分分值设置。
第二节 遣词造句（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
根据提供的图画和提示词，写一个符合图意的完整、正确的句子。
She had a stmachache yesterday.
It’s imprtant t brush yur teeth every day.
Yu had better nt smke.
He is ging t play basketball this Sunday.
Dn’t read in the sun.
评分标准：每小题2分。每写出一个符合图意的完整、正确的句子，得2分；能读懂图意、写出关键词的得1分；大小写错误、拼写错误、语法错误的出现两个扣0.5分。可以设置为总体给分，有半分分值设置。
第三节 短文填词（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，根据语境，音标或提示词，在每个空格内填入一个恰当的词，使短文完整，行文流畅。
81. feet82. srry83. hundreds84. during 85. lucky
86. by 87. nthing88.happiness 89. But90. learn
评分标准：每小题1分。没有半分设置
第四节书面表达（15分）范文：
Dear Amy,
I’m srry t hear that yu are nt feeling well. I think yu need t make sme changes.
First, yu shuldn’t g t bed t late. It’s imprtant t have enugh sleep. In this way, yu can listen carefully in class. A healthy lifestyle can help yu get gd grades. Secnd, yu shuld have a healthy eating habit. Yu had better eat breakfast every day. Als, eat mre vegetables and fruit but less junk fd, s that yu can be healthier.Third, yu shuld exercise at least three times every week. Exercise can help yu imprve yur running test, and it can als make yu relaxed.
As the saying ges, health is wealth. I hpe yu will be better and better in the future.
Gd luck!
Yurs, Jade
评分原则：
本题总分为15分，其中内容和语言占13分，词数占1分，书写占1分。按五个档次给分。
评分时，先根据短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。不少于60个单词加1分。书写清晰、规范，加1分。
各档次的给分范围和要求：
第五档：（14-15分）能扣紧主题，语言基本无误；行文连贯；表达清楚。
第四档：（11-13分）能扣紧主题，语言有少量错误；行文基本连贯；表达基本清楚。
第三档：（8-10分）语言有一些错误或较多错误；但仍能达意；行文不够连贯。
第二档：（4-7分）离题，只写出一两句；语言错误多或很多，影响意思表达或只有个别的句子可懂。
第一档：（0-3分）词不达意，不能写出一个完整的句子；或只能写出与所要求内容有关的一些单词.What’s wrng with Linda
Her 16.______________ hurts badly.
What Linda’s temperature is
She desn’t have a 17. .
What Linda did yesterday
She 18.___________n the 19.________________ all day.
What the dctr advises Linda d
T lie dwn and have enugh 20.______________.
Yu are what yu eat
Keeping better eating habits can help yu reduce(减少) disease. A healthy eating plan means chsing the right fds t eat and preparing fds in a healthy way.
_______
D yu ften change yur tthbrush? Maybe yu think it is nt necessary. A study shws ld tthbrushes bring disease. Yu shuld ften change yur tthbrush.
Exercise
Swimming，running，skating，skiing，dancing，walking and sme ther activities can help yu stay healthy. Yu shuld exercise at least three times a week and fr twenty minutes r mre each time. D it.
Plan ut yur life
Yu shuld have breakfast befre yu g t schl. Have a prper(合适的) meal fr lunch. Fllw a healthy diet.