浙江省金华市东阳市2022-2023学年七年级上学期期末英语试题

这是一份浙江省金华市东阳市2022-2023学年七年级上学期期末英语试题，共10页。试卷主要包含了 Wh is Jane?等内容，欢迎下载使用。

考生须知：
1. 全卷共七大题，76小题，满分为120分。考试时同为100分钟。
2. 全卷分为卷Ⅰ（选择题）和卷Ⅱ（非选择题）两部分，全部在“答题纸”上作答。卷Ⅰ的答案必须用2B铅笔填涂；卷Ⅱ答案必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔写在“答题纸”的相应位置上。
3. 请用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔在“答题纸”上先填写姓名和准考证号。
卷 一
说明：本卷共有三大题，40小题，满分65分。
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力（共15小题，满分25分）
第一节：听小对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确的选项，回答问题。（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
1. Hw much is the red T-shirt?
A. 3 dllars.B. 4 dllars.C. 5 dllars.
2. Why des the girl want t stay at hme?
A. T watch TV.B. T play tennis.C. T play table tennis.
3. What des the by think is healthy?
A. Hamburgers.B. Fruit.C. Vegetables.
4. What’s the girl’s telephne number?
A. 63377742.B. 63377924.C. 63377942.
5. Wh is Jane?
A. The by’s sister.B. The by’s daughter.C. The by’s cusin.
第二节：听长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确的选项，回答问题。（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
听下面一段较长对话，回答6～7两个问题。
6. What des Selina think f histry?
A. Bring.B. Funny.C. Interesting.
7. When des Steven have English?
A. On Wednesday.B. On Thursday.C. Frm Mnday t Friday.
听下面一段较长的对话，回答第8～10三个问题。
8. Where are the tw speakers?
A. In a library.B. In a shp.C. In a park.
9. What clur des the wman chse at last?
A. Red.B. White.C. Blue.
10. Hw much are the tw pairs f shes?
A. 30 dllars.B. 15 dllars.C. 45 dllars.
第三节：听下面一段独白，从A、B、C三个选项中选择正确的选项，回答问题。（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
11. When is Tny’s birthday?
A. January 5th.B. February 15th.C. January 15th.
12. Hw ld is Peter?
A. 12.B. 13.C. 14.
13. What’s Peter’s favrite subject?
A. Music.B. Math.C. Science.
14. Wh likes chicken?
A. Peter.B. Tny.C. Peter and Tny.
15. What sprt d they like t play?
A. Tennis.B. Ftball.C. Basketball.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
同读下面短文，然后从各题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
Hi, Paul. I’m Liu Ming. I’m an 11-year-ld by and I live with my family in Beijing, China. I have a 16 . He is 7 years ld. We lve ur parents.
My day is 17 . I get up at 7 ’clck. First, I clean my rm a bit because my mm will g angry if I 18 . Then I have breakfast, take my schlbag and leave hme. It’s nly 10 minutes t get t schl. S I’m usually nt 19 fr schl.
Classes start at 8:00. I’m in Grade 7 20 my favrite subject is science. We can learn many interesting things in science lessns. I 21 like sme ther subjects, like Chinese, English and s n. I dn’t eat at the schl dining hall. I g hme fr lunch. We have a 22 break frm 12 t 2 ’clck.
After schl, I ften 23 picture bks fr half an hur. It is *relaxing and helpful. Then I d my hmewrk. 24 , after dinner, my parents watch TV. I like listening t CDs with my yunger brther. On Wednesday evening, I take a(n) 25 lessn at the museum. Pictures are s fun! I g t bed at abut ten ’clck at night.
16. A. classmateB. brtherC. friendD. sister
17. A. freeB. easyC. busyD. lng
18. A. amB. am ntC. dD. dn’t
19. A. readyB. srryC. happyD. late
20. A. andB. butC. sD. r
21. A. nlyB. alsC. justD. ften
22. A. breakfastB. lunchC. lessnD. dinner
23. A. shwB. printC. readD. buy
24. A. In the eveningB. In the afternnC. At nnD. At last
25. A. sprtsB. basketballC. musicD. art
三、阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下面四篇短文，然后从各题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
A
26. Where was Marcus brn?
A. Liverpl.B. Manchester.C. Dundee.D. Qatar
27. What des Marcus want?
A. N children t be hungry.B. T have a lt f mney.
C. Sme children t scre gals.D. All children t like ftball.
28. In which part f a magazine can we read it?
A. Schl.B. Family.C. Histry.D. Sprt.
B
①Fr many cuntries, the new year begins at midnight when December 31st ends and January 1st begins. It is ften seen as an imprtant time when peple say gdbye t the past year and welcme in the new year.
②Peple may *thrw away ld things t make rm fr new things befre the new year. In sme cuntries, peple thrw ut sme f their ld r used things. These can help keep rms clean and tidy.
③There are a lt f ways t celebrate New Year’s Eve. Staying up past midnight is a fun traditin. Peple may thrw parties with delicius fd. In sme places, children pen small gifts when the new year begins.
④Often new year is a time t think n the past year. It is a time t make New Year’s reslutins. Reslutins help peple plan better and make yur life cl and bright.
29. When des the new year begin fr many cuntries?
A. Nvember 31st.B. January 2nd.C. December 31st.D. January 1st.
30. Frm Paragraph 2, we can knw ________.
A. Peple ften d cleaning befre the spring festival.
B. Peple think used things are very imprtant.
C. Peple ften build new rms fr the New Year.
D. Peple dn’t keep ld things any mre n the new year.
31. Which wrd has the same meaning as the underlined wrd “reslutins”?
A. Presents.B. Traditins.C. Plans.D. Dcuments.
32. What is the main idea f the text?
A. T tell different new year traditins.
B. T tell different cultures in different places.
C. T intrduce different fd f the New Year.
D. T intrduce traditins in different cuntries.
C
On a sunny day, a ten-year-ld by ges int a cffee shp and takes a seat at a table. A waiter puts a glass f water in frnt f him.
“Hw much is an ice cream?” he asks. “Fifty cents”, the waiter answers.
The by pens the pcket and *cunts the cins in it.
“Well, hw much is a *plain ice cream?” he asks again. “Thirty-five cents,” the waiter is a little angry, fr mre peple are waiting fr the table.
The little by cunts his cins again, “I want the plain ice cream,” he says.
The waiter gives the ice cream t the little by, puts the bill paper n the table and walks away. After eating all the ice cream, the little by puts the mney n the table and walks ut.
When the waiter cmes back t that table and begins t clean it, tears well up in his eyes. ▲ . This is a *tip t him and here is a *tip fr yu: Always remember thse wh *serve yu even if they dn’t remember yu.
33. The by ges t the shp t ________.
A. get sme waterB. drink cffeeC. have ice creamD. meet the waiter
34. Hw des the waiter feel when he sees the tip n the table?
A. Tired.B. Happy.C. Srry.D. Afraid.
35. Which f the fllwing can be put in ▲ ?
A. There are fifty cents n itB. There are thirty-five cents n it
C. There are sme flwers n itD. There is a thank-yu card n it
36. What is the best title f the passage?
A. A sunny dayB. A bad waiterC. A cffee shpD. A plain ice cream
D
Plar Animals
①Sme animals live in very ht places, e. g snakes and camels live in deserts. Other animals live in quite cld places, like the Arctic r Antarctic.
②Plar Bears are very large, meat-eating animals with *fur and warm *bld that can be fund in the Arctic. A plar bear can be ver 2.5m lng and abut 700kg. They are nt like ther bears because they spend mst f their lives swimming and catching small animals fr fd n ice. They nly cme nt land t have babies.
③Yung plar bears stay in their hmes fr abut five mnths after they are brn and stay with their mums fr 2 years after that.
④Plar bears are strng swimmers. Their big feet under the water help them swim fast. They can swim fr hurs t get frm ne piece f ice t anther.
⑤Plar bears live at the very tp f ur *planet and it is very cld there. Water becmes ice very sn in the Arctic in winter. Luckily, plar bears live there well. They have a *thick cat that keeps them warm and als helps them t g well with the snw. But, a plar bear’s fur isn’t always white.
37. Frm the passage, we can knw a plar bear can be ________.
A. ver 2.5 cm lngB. ver 25cm lngC. abut 700gD. abut 700,000g
38. Why d plar bears cme nt land?
A. T catch fr fd.B. T have babies.C. T have fun.D. T find water.
39. Plar bears live well in cld days because f their ________.
A. warm bldB. big feetC. thick furD. special hmes
40. What can we knw frm the passage?
A. Plar bears’ fur is as white as the snw.
B. Plar bears are gd at swimming.
C. Plar bears are the same as ther bears.
D. Yung plar bears never live with mums.
卷 二
说明：本卷共有四大题，36小题，满分55分。
四、补全对话。选择方框中句子的序号填空，其中有一个为多余选项。（本题有5小题，每小题1分，共计5分）
A: Hi, Lucy! 41
B: Yes, I am. Why?
A: 42
B: What is that?
A: It is a festival when families get tgether. On that day we usually eat mn cakes.
B: 43
A: They are small rund cakes with meat, eggs r smething sweet in them. 44 Wuld yu like t cme and celebrate the festival with us?
B: Yes, I wuld lve t. Can Lily cme with me?
A: Sure.
B: Great. 45
A: See yu.
五、词汇运用（本题有15小题，每小题1分，共计15分）
A. 用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空。每词限用一次。
46. Befre the Spring Festival, there are many ____________ in shps.
47. Mnkeys like t eat many kinds f fd, such as meat, fruit and ____________.
48. Wuld yu like t make friends with the tw bys ____________ Tm and Adam.
49. Peple, at all ages, shuld be ____________ t the peple wh need help.
50. Even the ld man ften ____________ infrmatin n the Internet and knws a lt abut the wrld.
B. 阅读下面短文，然后根据括号内所给汉语意思写出单词的正确形式（每空一词）
Lve is great.
Abby is a 9-year-ld girl. She gets abut $500 fr her little brther in 51 (医院) these days. The tw children live with their grandparents because their parents died f a car *accident last 52 (夏天).
Abby’s grandmther says, “Abby’s brther is nt 53 (健康的). He stays there fr a lng time and needs a lt f mney t get better. When I am 54 (谈论) abut the mney with her grandfather, Abby must 55 (听见) that.”
Abby is such a 56 (好的) girl. She wants t help her brther, s she and 57 (八) f her friends decide t sell pictures at $2.5 t make mney.
“I dn’t knw what t say. These children are s great,” Abby’s grandmther says. “Abby and her friends als want t buy apples, ranges and pears. They 58 (非常) want t help Abby’s brther.”
Many peple buy the 59 (孩子们) fruits and pictures. They help these children get abut $500. They 60 (每个) hpe Abby’s brther will be fine.
Lve is everywhere.
六、语法填空（本题有10小题；每小题1分，共计10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
Linda and Ellen are gd friends. They are in 61 same schl. They g t schl five days a week. Every day, they have seven 62 (class). After schl, they ften play games. They g hme at 5:00 p.m.
The tw 63 (girl) mthers are friends t. Linda is in Ellen’s hme n Saturdays.
They play tennis in the mrning, read bks in the afternn, and spend tw hurs 64 (watch) TV in the evening. Ellen has a great *cllectin f many 65 (picture) bks. Linda likes these bks. She can als take 66 hme. The tw girls als like 67 (eat) sme fruit. They like apples, strawberries and ranges, 68 they dn’t like pears. Linda’s mther can make delicius fruit salad. She ften lets Linda 69 (take) sme t Ellen. Ellen lves the fd.
70 gd friends they are!
七、任务型阅读（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
阅读下列短文，在空白处填入人适当单词，完成海报，每空不得超过三词。
*Carpling fr schl
In the US, students ften carpl. When yur schl desn’t have a schl bus and yur hme is nt near, yu can carpl. Usually three r fur students g t schl in the same car. Their parents *take turns in taking the students in their cars.
The students have t be n time, because nbdy wants t be late fr class. If yu are in the car and wait fr a lng time, yu will be unhappy and late. Students learn a great lessn-t be n time.
八、书面表达（共1小题；满分20分）
假如你是学校学生会宣传部长，请以学生会名义，根据学校开放周安排的活动，写一份通知给你校的外籍同学，告知活动内容和相关的注意事项。
要求：1. 文中需包含表格中的所有信息，并可作适当想象和发挥；
2. 语句通畅，节写规范，注意大小写字母和标点；
3. 文中不得出现自己真实的姓名、班级和校名；
4. 词数60左右，开头、结尾已经写好，不计入总词数。
Dear students,
This week, we have sme interesting and fun things. ________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Hpe t see yu.
The Students’ Unin
2022年下学期期末试卷七年级（上）
参考答案和评分细则
一、听力
第一节
1. B2. A3. C4. B5. C
[评分细则] 第一节有5小题，每小题1分，共计5分。
第二节
6. A7. C8. B9. C10. A
[评分细则] 第二节有5小题，每小题2分，共计10分。
第三节
11. A12. B13. A14. B15. C
[评分细则] 第三节有5小题，每小题2分，共计10分。
二、完形填空
16. B17. C18. D19. D20. A
21. B22. B23. C24. A25. D
[评分细则] 本题有15小题，每小题1分，共计15分。
三、阅读理解
26. B27. A28. D29. D30. A
31. C32. A33. C34. C35. A
36. D37. D38. B39. C40. B
[评分细则] 本题有15小题，每小题2分，共计30分。
四、补全对话
41. f42. e43. c44. b45. a
[评分细则] 本题有15小题，每小题1分，共计15分。
五、词汇运用
46. custmers47. leaves48. called49. friendly50. searches fr
51. hspital52. summer53. healthy/fit54. talking55. hear
56. gd/nice/kind57. eight58. really59. children’s60. all/each
[评分细则] 本题有15小题，每小题1分，共计15分。有拼写或语法错误的不给分；大小写错误不扣分。
六、语法填空
61. the62. classes63. girls’64. watching65. picture
66. them67. eating68. but69. take70. What
[评分细则] 本题有10小题，每小题1分，共计10分。有拼写或语法错误的不给分；大小写错误不扣分。
七、任务型阅读
71. schl72. car73. schl bus74. parents75. n time
[评分细则] 本题有5小题，每小题1分，共计5分。
八、书面表达
76. One pssible versin:
Dear students,
This week, we have sme interesting and fun things. On January 2nd, we have an English singing cntest in the library. It must be very exciting. A lt f students take part in it. On January 3rd, we have a talent shw in the gym. I think it will be the best part f this week. There are tw ball games n the playgrund n January 4th, and yu can’t miss them. I am sure yu will have a lt f fun.
But befre yu cme, remember t wear schl unifrms and dn’t bring any fd with yu.
Hpe t see yu.
The Students’ Unin
(102词)a. See yu tmrrw.
b. They are delicius.
c. What are mn cakes?
d. Hw d yu make them?
e. Tmrrw is the Mid-Autumn Festival.
f. Are yu free tmrrw evening?
friendly leaf custmers search fr called
Carpling
Where t g?
The students carpl t g t 71 .
Hw t g?
The students g by 72 .
Why t d that?
The schl desn’t have a 73 and sme students live far.
Wh take turns?
The 74 take turns t take the students.
What t learn?
Students learn t be 75 .
Dates
*Activities
Places
Jan. 2nd
English singing class
in the library
Jan. 3rd
talk shw
in the gym
Jan. 4th
ftball and basketball games
n the playgrund
Tips
1. wear schl clthes 2. n fd…
Wrd Bank
accident (意外) activity (活动) bld (血液) carpling (拼车) cllectin (收集)
cunt (数) fur (皮毛) plain (普通的) planet (行星) relaxing (令人放松的)
serve (服务) take turns (轮流) thrw away (扔掉) thick (厚的) tip (小费、提醒)